Medical Histology and Cell Biology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Medical Histology and Cell Biology provides an in-depth exploration of the microscopic structure and function of cells, tissues, and organs in the human body. The course covers fundamental principles of cell biology, including cell structure, organelles, and cellular processes, alongside detailed study of the four basic tissue types: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues. Students will learn to recognize and interpret histological images and relate cellular and tissue architecture to normal physiological functions and pathological alterations. Emphasis is placed on correlating microscopic anatomy with clinical concepts to foster a comprehensive understanding of health and disease at the cellular and tissue levels.
Recommended Textbook
Histology and Cell Biology An Introduction to Pathology 3rd Edition by Abraham L Kierszenbaum
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246 Verified Questions
246 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Epithelium
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell adhesion molecule that binds to both the intracellular cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix is
A) Cadherin
B) Fibronectin
C) Integrin
D) Laminin
E) Selectin
Answer: C
Q2) Identify the INCORRECT statement
A) Basal lamina can be divided into the lamina densa and lamina lucida
B) Desmosomes are an effective barrier to the diffusion of substances across an epithelium.
C) In pseudostratified epithelia all epithelial cells contact the basement membrane.
D) The basal lamina can act as a selective filter between the epithelium and the connective tissue.
E) Tight junctions between epithelial cells are an effective barrier to the diffusion of substances across an epithelium.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Epithelial Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the site of steroid hormone synthesis?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
Q2) Which phrase does NOT describe one of the functions of proteins of the plasma membrane?
A) Acting as a receptor for substances external to the cell
B) Binding to a substance to carry it through the membrane
C) Forming a channel through the membrane
D) Increasing the rate of a chemical reaction
E) Initiating the replication of the genetic material
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Cell Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functions by diffusing across the cell membrane to bind to intracellular protein receptors, resulting in gene activation or repression?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Insulin
C) Nitric oxide
D) Prostaglandin
E) Testosterone
Answer: E
Q2) A secreted chemical messenger meant to act on an adjacent cell is called a(n)
A) Autocrine
B) Hormone
C) Neurohormone
D) Neurotransmitter
E) Paracrine
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Connective Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation is generally a function of which of the following connective tissue cells?
A) Adipocytes
B) Fibroblasts
C) Macrophages
D) Mast cells
E) Pericytes
Q2) Metastasis can occur when tumor cells release _____, which can dissolve the basement membrane, resulting in the invasion of the tumor into underlying connective tissue.
A) Collagenase I
B) Collagenase IV
C) Gelatinase A
D) Elastase
E) Stromelysin 1
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Chapter 5: Osteogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements about epiphyseal plates is correct EXCEPT
A) Appositional growth occurs on the epiphyseal side
B) Bone replaces cartilage on the diaphyseal side
C) Mitotically active chondrocytes are distributed throughout the zone of reserve cartilage
D) These chondrocytes are required for lengthening of long bones
E) They contain a portion of healthy hyaline cartilage
Q2) Which of the following is true of intramembranous, rather than endochondral, ossification?
A) A hyaline cartilage model is used
B) Long bones are formed
C) Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts within connective tissue
D) Periosteal buds invade the lacunae left behind by dead chondrocytes
E) Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses
Q3) What occurs in the hypertrophic zone during endochondral ossificiation?
A) Chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage undergo mitosis and growth
B) Invasion of empty lacunae by osteoprogenitor cells
C) Penetration of calcified septa by blood vessels
D) Programmed cell death of chondrocytes
E) Proliferating chondrocytes organize into parallel columns
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Chapter 6: Blood and Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a true statement about neutrophils EXCEPT
A) Their cytoplasm contains specific granules that contain major basic protein (MBP) crystals
B) They are bactericidal
C) They are capable of diapedesis
D) They make up approximately 65% of all white blood cells
E) They are active phagocytic cells
Q2) Which cell type gives rise to platelets (thrombocytes)?
A) Megakaryocyte
B) Monoblast
C) Monocyte
D) Myeloblast
E) Thromboblast
Q3) Which of the following hematopoietic growth factors stimulates the production of eosinophils?
A) Erythropoietin
B) Flt3 ligand
C) Granulocyte macrophage colony-stimulating factor
D) Stem cell factor
E) Thrombopoietin
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Chapter 7: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The H-zone of a sarcomere contains which of the following proteins?
A) Myosin only
B) Actin only
C) Troponin and tropomyosin
D) B and C only
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a structural component of a triad?
A) Myofibril
B) Sarcolemma
C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Terminal cisterna
E) Transverse tubule
Q3) Following the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, an action potential travels along the _____ to the interior of the muscle cell.
A) Sarcomere
B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Thick filament
D) Thin filament
E) Transverse tubule
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interneurons are found
A) Only in the brain
B) Only in the central nervous system
C) Only in the peripheral nervous system
D) Only in the spinal cord
E) Throughout the nervous system
Q2) The neuroglial cells responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system are
A) Astrocytes
B) Ependymal cells
C) Microglial cells
D) Oligodendrocytes
E) Schwann cells
Q3) Neurotransmitters synthesized in the soma of a neuron reach the synaptic cleft via
A) Action potentials
B) Anterograde axonal transport
C) Graded potentials
D) Retrograde axonal transport
E) Synaptic activity
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Chapter 9: Sensory Organs: Vision and Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components prevents the aqueous humor from infiltrating the cornea?
A) Bowman's layer
B) Corneal endothelium
C) Corneal epithelium
D) Descemet's membrane
E) Stroma
Q2) As the distance between the eye and the object on which it is focusing decreases to less than approximately 20 feet, the _____ contracts, resulting in a more rounded and convex lens
A) Ciliary muscle
B) Iris
C) Optic disc
D) Suspensory ligament
E) Zonula fibers
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Chapter 10: Immune-Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activated B cells proliferate in the _____ of a lymph node.
A) Capsule
B) Germinal center
C) Mantle zone
D) Subcapsular sinus
E) Trabeculae
Q2) Helper T cells
A) Activate B cells to produce specific antibodies
B) Differentiate into cytotoxic T cells upon re-exposure to a known pathogen
C) Help T cells recognize antigens as nonself
D) Recognize and kill viral cells by secreting perforin
E) Secrete interferon upon contact with a virus
Q3) The humoral immune response is carried out by
A) B lymphocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) T lymphocytes
E) Thrombocytes
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Langerhans cells
A) Are located in the stratum basale of the epidermis
B) Are mechanoreceptor cells
C) Can be found within a cornified cell envelope
D) Have granules in their cytoplasm
E) Present antigens to T cells as part of the immune response
Q2) Which of the following epidermal layers is closest to the dermis?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum germinativum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum lucidum
E) Stratum spinosum
Q3) Which of the following sensory receptors is activated by painful stimuli?
A) Mechanoreceptors
B) Meissner corpuscles
C) Merkel disks
D) Nociceptors
E) Pacinian corpuscles
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vessels that regulate blood flow into capillary beds are
A) Arterioles
B) Elastic arteries
C) Muscular arteries
D) Veins
E) Venules
Q2) ____ capillaries, found in the pancreas, are highly porous and allow high volumes of fluids to pass through them, whereas ____ capillaries, found in the muscles, consist of more tightly joined cells that allow a high degree of selective materials to pass through them.
A) Continuous, fenestrated
B) Fenestrated, continuous
C) Fenestrated, sinusoidal
D) Sinusoidal, continuous
E) Sinusoidal, fenestrated
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-mucous secreting and non-ciliated dome-shaped cells with microvilli are found in the respiratory tract. These cells are detoxifying and secrete a component of surfactant. They are also capable of differentiation for tissue regeneration. Where are they located?
A) Alveoli
B) Bronchi
C) Bronchioles
D) Laryngopharynx
E) Trachea
Q2) In the respiratory system, air moves from the larynx into the A) Bronchi
B) Bronchioles
C) Laryngopharynx
D) Oropharynx
E) Trachea
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Chapter 14: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the juxtaglomerular apparatus is incorrect?
A) Afferent arteriole cells are modified to become macula densa cells
B) Cells of the macula densa are taller and narrower than normal
C) The juxtaglomular apparatus helps regulate blood pressure
D) The juxtaglomular apparatus is partly composed of modified cells from the distal thick segment
E) Juxtaglomerular cells are modified smooth muscle cells
Q2) Decreased salt concentration results in all of the following EXCEPT
A) Aldosterone secretion
B) Paracrine secretion from macula densa cells
C) Renin secretion from juxtaglomerular cells
D) Vasodilation
E) Water reabsorption in the distal tubule
Q3) Following filtration, most water and solutes are reabsorbed in the
A) Bowman's capsule
B) Distal convoluted tubule
C) Glomerulus
D) Loop of Henle
E) Proximal convoluted tubule
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Upper Digestive Segment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The secretion of which cell type is needed to begin the process of digesting proteins?
A) Chief cells
B) Gastroenteroendocrine cells
C) Mucous neck cells
D) Parietal cells
E) Stem cells
Q2) Which of the following is lined with a very thin keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and a very highly vascular underlying lamina propria?
A) Cutaneous region of the lips
B) Dorsal tongue
C) Oral mucosal region of the lips
D) Red region of the lips
E) Ventral tongue
Q3) The outer surface of the tooth's root is covered by _____.
A) Cementum
B) Dentin
C) Enamel
D) Gingivae
E) Pulp
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Lower Digestive Segment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cell types is not found in the small intestine epithelium?
A) Enterocytes
B) Microfold cells
C) Paneth cells
D) Parietal cells
E) None of the above (all of the above cells are found in the small intestine epithelium)
Q2) Fat-filled pouches in the large intestinal adventitia are called
A) Appendices epiploicae
B) Peyer's patches
C) Plicae circulares
D) Rugae
E) Taeniae coli
Q3) Which of the following are not mucosal specializations of the small intestine?
A) Peyer's patches
B) Villi
C) Plicae circulares
D) Microvilli
E) Rugae
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has a mucosa that is rich in mitochondria, absorbs sodium, and is lined with columnar epithelium?
A) Anterior dorsal tongue
B) Intercalated intralobular salivary ducts
C) Interlobular salivary ducts
D) Striated intralobular salivary ducts
E) Vermilion aspect of the lips
Q2) Which of the following does not differentiate the gallbladder from the liver?
A) Microvilli are present on gallbladder epithelial cells
B) The gallbladder epithelium is folded
C) The muscularis mucosae of the gallbladder is thicker than that of the liver
D) There are no mucus-producing cells in the gallbladder
E) Water is reabsorbed from the bile in the gallbladder
Q3) Which of the following is not an accurate statement about salivary gland secretory acini?
A) Acini are surrounded by myoepithelial cells
B) Fused secretory cells form compound acini called serous demilunes
C) Mucous acini lumina have a spongy appearance
D) Serous acini secrete salivary amylase
E) Submandibular glands contain primarily mucous acini with serous demilunes
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Chapter 18: Neuroendocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that stimulates insulin-like growth factor-1 production in the hepatocytes is secreted by
A) Acidophils
B) Basophils
C) Chromophobe cells
D) Herring bodies
E) Pituicytes
Q2) The anterior pituitary
A) Has a blood-brain barrier generated by pituicytes
B) Is composed of basophils, acidophils, and chromophobe cells
C) Is made up of the pars nervosa and the infundibulum
D) Receives blood from the inferior hypophyseal artery
E) Secretes hormones when directed to do so by a nervous signal from the hypothalamus
Q3) Prolactin secretion is _____ by _____.
A) Inhibited dopamine
B) Inhibited somatostatin
C) Stimulated dopamine
D) Stimulated growth hormone-releasing hormone
E) Stimulated nerve impulse from the hypothalamus
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces
A) Androgens
B) Corticoids
C) Glucocorticoids
D) Mineralocorticoids
E) Steroids
Q2) Which of the following hormones is most likely to bind to a receptor inside the cell as opposed to a membrane receptor?
A) Aldosterone
B) Epinephrine
C) Melatonin
D) Parathyroid hormone
E) Vasopressin
Q3) Parafollicular cells
A) Are found in the parathyroid glands
B) Are found in the zona glomerulosa
C) Constitute the pars tuberalis
D) Secrete a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels
E) Secrete hormones responsible for establishing the basal metabolic rate
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Chapter 20: Spermatogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are diploid structures?
A) Primary spermatocytes
B) Secondary spermatocytes
C) Sperm
D) Spermatids
E) Spermatozoa
Q2) Diploid spermatogenic cells in direct contact with the basal lamina are
A) Sertoli cells
B) Spermatocytes
C) Spermatogenic cells
D) Spermatogonia
E) Spermatozoa
Q3) Which of the following is not true of Sertoli cells?
A) Their function is regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone
B) They are found in testicular interstitial tissue
C) They prevent cytotoxic agents from moving to the seminiferous tubules from the blood by forming tight junctions with adjacent Sertoli cells
D) They provide mechanical support for spermatogenic cells
E) They provide nutrition for spermatogenic cells
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Sperm Transport and Maturation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sperm are matured and stored in what structure?
A) Epididymidis
B) Prostate
C) Seminal vesicle
D) Testis
E) Vas deferens
Q2) What structure contributes a lubricating mucus substance to semen?
A) Bulbourethral gland
B) Epididymidis
C) Prostate
D) Seminal vesicle
E) Testis
Q3) Sperm move from the tubuli recti into the
A) Ductuli efferentes
B) Epididymidis
C) Rete testis
D) Seminiferous tubules
E) Vas deferens
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23
Chapter 22: Follicle Development and the Menstrual Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not occur as a result of the luteinizing hormone surge?
A) Formation of the corpus luteum
B) Increased estrogen secretion
C) Ovulation
D) Secondary oocyte completes meiosis I
E) Secretion of proteolytic enzymes from the mature follicle
Q2) Oocytes surrounded by granulosa cells are found in the
A) Corona radiata
B) Corpus luteum
C) Cumulus oophorus
D) Theca folliculus
E) Zona pellucida
Q3) Which of the following statements about the corpus luteum is incorrect?
A) It degenerates into the corpus albicans approximately 14 days following fertilization
B) It forms following ovulation
C) It has increased vascularization
D) Its folded structure is formed by the collapsing of the follicular wall
E) The theca interna and granulosa cells accumulate lutein
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Chapter 23: Fertilization, Placentation, and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the trophoblast is false?
A) It develops into the embryo proper
B) It helps form the placenta
C) It invades the endometrium during implantation
D) It is the outer layer of cells around the blastula
E) It secretes human chorionic gonadotropiin
Q2) Which part of the spermatozoa contains digestive enzymes that aid in fertilization?
A) Acrosome
B) Basal plate
C) End piece
D) Neck
E) Tail
Q3) The opening of the uterus into the vagina is the _____.
A) Cervix
B) Infundibulum
C) Ovary
D) Oviduct
E) Uterine tube
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