Medical Assisting Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Medical Assisting is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational skills and knowledge necessary for a career as a medical assistant in healthcare settings. Students learn about clinical and administrative procedures including patient intake, vital sign measurement, medical record management, basic laboratory techniques, and the principles of medical ethics and communication. The course integrates hands-on practice with theoretical instruction, preparing students to support physicians and nurses in delivering patient care while maintaining high standards of professionalism and confidentiality.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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47 Chapters
1893 Verified Questions
1893 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your friend asks you what kind of "clinical" courses you are taking.Which of the following would NOT be included on that list?
A)Urine and blood testing in the laboratory
B)Anatomy and physiology
C)Pharmacology/administration of medications
D)Assisting with minor surgery
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following attributes of a medical assistant does NOT identify a true professional?
A)Dependability
B)Empathy
C)Ability to communicate
D)Inflexibility
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following does regulation NOT ensure?
A)Competence of health care providers
B)Minimum standard of skill
C)Limiting of performance of certain procedures to a specific occupation
D)Minimal standard of empathy and initiative
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) treats diseases of children and adolescents
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: E
Q2) Concierge care does not offer patients which of the following?
A)Free parking
B)Coordination of any specialist referrals
C)Hospitalization coverage when needed
D)Home or work visits as needed
Answer: C
Q3) Approximately what percentage of all osteopaths practice in primary care areas?
A)25% to 35%
B)45% to 55%
C)65%
D)75%
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a positive way to help cope with stress in the workplace?
A)Play loud music all day.
B)Encourage employees to work through lunch.
C)Decorate the office with bright, vivid colors.
D)Instead of working through lunch to solve problems, take a break.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes the order of occurrence in the GAS theory of adaptation?
A)Fight or flight, alarm, return to normal, exhaustion
B)Exhaustion, alarm, fight or flight, return to normal
C)Alarm, fight or flight, exhaustion, return to normal
D)Alarm, fight or flight, return to normal, exhaustion
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following goals are focused and have precise boundaries?
A)Specific goals
B)Attainable goals
C)Measured goals
D)Realistic goals
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facial expression is considered one of the most important and observed nonverbal communicators.Why is this?
A)Expressions vary by culture.
B)One knows when you do not agree.
C)People cannot hear if they cannot see your face.
D)Each facet of the face sends a nonverbal message.
Q2) You ask him, "Mr.Kind, how are you coming along on this new diet? " Which of the following best describes this form of communication?
A)Open-ended question
B)Compensation
C)Indirect statement
D)Expressing empathy
Q3) Which of the following is the type of question that is frequently asked by individuals seeking a new physician and clinic?
A)Does the doctor see patients on time?
B)Does the doctor give good injections?
C)Will the doctor prescribe what I want?
D)Will the doctor listen to what I have to say?
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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an expected patient response to the news of a life-threatening illness?
A)Acts as if the information has never been shared with them
B)Drastically changes priorities
C)Becomes happy and tells family and friends
D)Quietly continue their lives, changing little outwardly
Q2) Which of the following is a likely treatment for cancer?
A)Surgery
B)Radiation
C)Chemotherapy
D)b and c
E)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of Kübler-Ross's stages of grief?
A)Anger
B)Bargaining
C)Demanding
D)Denial
E)Acceptance
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Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the Good Samaritan law?
A)Removes legal liability from rescuers
B)Encourages health care professionals to help within their scope of training
C)Allows performance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation during rescues
D)Supplements the emergency medical services
Q2) Dr.King thinks a patient can no longer be effectively served by him and plans to dismiss the patient from her care.What are the legal charges Dr.King must be careful to avoid in doing this?
A)Criminal
B)Abandonment
C)Defamation of character
D)Uninformed consent
Q3) Any individual who administers, prescribes, or dispenses any controlled substance is required to register with which of the following?
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)Internal Revenue Service
C)Medicare Audit System
D)Drug Enforcement Administration
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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists have already cloned which of the following?
A)Mice
B)Rabbits
C)Dogs
D)Only a and b
E)a, b, and c
Q2) A patient's medical chart and the information in it are the property of which of the following?
A)State board of medical examiners
B)Patient and family
C)Physician and the patient
D)State drug enforcement agency regional office
Q3) Female Genital Mutilation
A)no longer occurs.
B)has no side effects.
C)can cause infections and pregnancy complications.
D)is legal in the United States.
Q4) A provider charges a patient for multiple or complex insurance forms.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a condition that occurs as a result of an inability of the body to properly convert sugar from food into energy?
A)Insulin shock
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Diabetes
D)Acidosis
Q2) A patient calls and states her husband is having some loss of vision, confusion, slurred speech, and nausea.Which of the following might be the possible assessment?
A)Seizure
B)Heart attack
C)Stroke
D)Epistaxis
Q3) trauma to nervous system
A) neurogenic
B) cardiogenic
C) anaphylactic
D) metabolic
E) septic
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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Providers can give access to the health information of an elderly patient under the following condition.
A)The patient is 85 years of age or older
B)Only if the patient has signed a release
C)Only to immediate family members
D)In an ambulatory care setting
Q2) Who should be called when you are unsure about security measures, both during and after office hours?
A)Patients for their opinion
B)Local law enforcement
C)EMS services
D)Providers for their preferences
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate example of accessibility features for the physically challenged?
A)Hallways that accommodate wheelchairs
B)Step walkways with no ramps
C)Signage in Braille
D)Doors accommodating wheelchairs
E)Bathroom facilities for handicapped individuals
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Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computer ergonomics addresses safety issues and concerns specific to which of the following?
A)Eye strain
B)Posture
C)Cumulative trauma disorder
D)All of the above
Q2) What is the life span of stored data on a hard drive?
A)3-5 years
B)1-2 years
C)3 years
D)2-5 years
Q3) Which of the following refers to storage memory that is lost when the computer is turned off or experiences a power failure?
A)RAM
B)ROM
C)CPU
D)DVD
Q4) satellite
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a system that answers the call and provides the caller with a choice of departments or services that can be accessed by pressing a specified number on the touch-tone telephone?
A)Facsimile machine
B)Automated routing unit
C)Electronic mail
D)Answering service
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of the FAX machine in a clinic setting?
A)send reports
B)send referrals
C)send/receive insurance approval
D)send PHI without encryption and specified agreement between parties
Q3) Which of the following has a profound effect on how you sound to the person on the other end of the line?
A)Volume
B)Enunciation
C)Pronunciation
D)All of the above
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a reason why the medical office should retain all records for legal purposes?
A)Identify how many no-shows a patient has
B)Determine how many canceled appointments a patient has
C)Verify a patient has been seen
D)Keep track of how many patients are seen for a specific condition
Q2) Which of the following scheduling systems plans for two or more patients to be given a particular appointment time?
A)Double booking
B)Modified wave
C)Open hours
D)Stream
E)Clustering
Q3) Which of the following situations will require the most time for an appointment?
A)Minor illness
B)Routine checkup
C)Suspicious rash
D)Complete physical examination, first visit
E)Blood pressure check
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a type of color-coding system?
A)Tab-alpha
B)AlphaZ®
C)Customized color coding
D)Tab-beta-a
Q2) The management of the medical record must:
A)Provide easy retrieval
B)Have a format that is easily understood by all
C)Have all documentation complete and correct
D)All of the above
Q3) In President George Bush's 2004 Health Information Technology Plan, he included the goal that most Americans would have electronic health records by what year?
A)2020
B)2014
C)2012
D)2008
Q4) simplest filing method
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
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Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of good writing tips for business letters?
A)First paragraph should identify what the letter is about.
B)Use language that readers will understand.
C)Use a free-flow style.
D)Use short sentences.
Q2) Which of the following expedites delivery of mail and eliminates the need to be canceled or postmarked at the post office?
A)Electronic mail
B)ZIP code
C)Micro-encoding envelope
D)Postal meter
Q3) How many incorrect punctuation marks are in the letter?
A)None
B)Two
C)Five
D)Four
Q4) humerus
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is NOT considered an advantage of outsourcing medical transcription?
A)Frees administrative and support personnel to complete other tasks
B)Frees floor space used to support line-item expense
C)Outsourcing companies work 8 hours a day
D)Saves on costly employee benefit packages
Q2) Which of the following is a common characteristic of an MT?
A)Detail-oriented
B)Independent
C)Self-disciplined
D)All of the above
Q3) In order to become a CMT, you must take a voluntary examination from the:
A)AAMA
B)AMT
C)AHDI
D)AMA
Q4) What type of report chronicles the details of a surgical procedure?
A)Radiology report
B)Pathology report
C)Autopsy report
D)Operative report
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is known as the fee system that defines allowable charges that will be accepted by insurance carriers?
A)VCR
B)FCR
C)UCR
D)TCR
Q2) Which of the following traditional types of insurance coverage covers specific dollar amounts for provider's fees, hospital care, and surgery?
A)Major medical
B)Individual
C)Group
D)Basic
E)Indemnity
Q3) capitation payment
A) managed care
B) traditional
Q4) usually must stay inside the provider network
A) managed care
B) traditional
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Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The new CMS-1500 form is distinguishable from the old form in that the 1500 symbol and date are located where?
A)Top right margin
B)Bottom right margin
C)Bottom left margin
D)Top left margin
Q2) Which of the following is a convention used when there is not enough information to find a more specific code?
A)NEC
B)NOS
C)V codes
D)E codes
Q3) Which of the following is completed using data from the patient's electronic health record in most offices today?
A)CMS 1490
B)UB92
C)CMS 1500
D)HCFA form
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Medical Assistant in regard to the discussion of fees?
A)Making sure providers receive education, training, and experience in diagnosis and treatment concerns
B)Informing the patient about provider charges
C)Collecting payments
D)Making credit arrangements if necessary
E)Making certain patients and their providers receive the full benefit of medical insurance
Q2) Which of the following accounts is debited when a check is written to pay invoices?
A)Accounts receivable
B)Accounts payable
C)Expenses
D)Checking
Q3) Which of the following is a primary advantage to accepting credit cards?
A)No fees are paid.
B)Confidentiality is not a problem.
C)Money is not a problem.
D)Money is available within 24 hours or so.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Which of the following questions would NOT be helpful in developing a credit and collection policy?
A)What kind of payment arrangements can be made if the patient does not pay at the time of service?
B)How would a reminder initially be managed: by telephone, by a note on the statement, or by letter?
C)At what point will a patient's bill be considered delinquent?
D)What is the most convenient time of the month for patients to make a payment?
Q2) Which of the following is a recommended method used to figure the accounts receivable ratio?
A)Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average monthly accounts payable.
B)Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average monthly gross charges.
C)Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average weekly charges.
D)Divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average daily gross charges.
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Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Q1) Which of the following is the recommended turnaround time of an efficient billing and collections policy?
A)1 month or less
B)2 months or less
C)1 week
D)6 months
Q2) employees' salaries
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
Q3) Which of the following best describes a type of accounting that helps to determine the finances necessary for the ambulatory care setting?
A)Cost
B)Financial
C)Managerial
D)Disbursement
Q4) insurance
A) fixed costs
B) variable costs
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an effect of inflammation?
A)Forming antigens
B)Destroying pathogens
C)Eliminating pathogen by-products
D)Restricting the amount of damage
Q2) Which of the following diseases does NOT need to be reported to the CDC's Notifiable Disease Surveillance System?
A)Salmonella
B)Lyme disease
C)Meningitis
D)Chickenpox
Q3) Which of the following diseases does NOT have an available vaccine?
A)Measles
B)Chickenpox
C)HCV
D)HBV
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Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Q1) Which of the following best describe the major components of the problem-oriented medical record?
A)Problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes
B)Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan
C)Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes
D)Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, laboratory reports
E)Problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes, laboratory reports
Q2) You have picked up your equipment and the supplies necessary to obtain a medical history from a new patient.You introduce yourself to the patient after confirming her identity.Then you attempt to put her at ease.What is the next thing you should do?
A)Wash your hands.
B)Begin to ask questions.
C)Explain the purpose and importance of information gathering.
D)Ask about allergies.
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Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following best describes how to prevent patient cross-contamination when using electronic thermometers?
A)Clean with cold water.
B)Soak in disinfectant for 20 minutes.
C)Use a disposable plastic sheath.
D)Store in a dry closed container.
E)Clean in soap and hot water.
Q2) Which of the following best describes a pulse rate with bradycardia?
A)120 beats per minute
B)100 beats per minute
C)40 beats per minute
D)72 beats per minute
E)200 beats per minute
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to denote the force exerted on the arterial walls during cardiac contraction?
A)Diastole
B)Asystole
C)Systole
D)Hyperbole
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Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate position to be in to wait for a general physical examination?
A)In a sitting position at the end of the exam table.
B)Lying supine on the exam table.
C)Lying in the lithotomy position on the exam table.
D)Assuming the prone position.
Q2) feeling body parts or organs
A) inspection
B) palpation
C) percussion
D) auscultation
E) mensuration
Q3) Which of the following is the rationale for assisting the patient to a sitting position and having them remain positioned for a few minutes after the physical examination?
A)Only children and the elderly need help.
B)Patients are tired after examination.
C)Patients may need to recover from potential dizziness.
D)Patients may experience ringing in the ears from lying down.
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26
Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Q1) While taking a prenatal history, emphasis will be on what?
A)Checking the mother's blood type
B)Reviewing the family history
C)Determining whether twins run in the family
D)Identifying high-risk patients
Q2) Which of the following procedures would be used to treat cervical erosion?
A)Colposcopy
B)Punch biopsy
C)Acetic acid application
D)Cryosurgery
E)Cervicectomy
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT detected in a wet mount?
A)Yeast
B)Clue cells
C)Chlamydia
D)Trichomonas
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Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) When are rectal temperatures contraindicated?
A)Diarrhea
B)Colon condition
C)Abdominal surgery
D)Nausea and vomiting
Q2) At what age are most of the child's recommended vaccines administered?
A)12-15 months
B)15-18 months
C)20-18 months
D)24-28 months
Q3) The oral route for checking a child's temperature should be used on children of what age?
A)Birth to 2 years
B)2-5 years
C)> 5 years
D)> 10 years
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28
Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following types of cancer is most common in males between ages 15 and 40 years of age?
A)Lung
B)Prostate
C)Colon
D)Testicular
Q2) Which of the following words is incorrectly spelled?
A)Semen
B)Ejaculation
C)Orchidectomy
D)Cryptorchidism
Q3) Which of the following is caused by a spirochete?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Genital herpes
D)Chlamydia
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be an expected change due to aging?
A)Muscle gain
B)Decreased height
C)Decreased strength
D)Joint stiffness
Q2) neglect
A) psychological
B) physical
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a vision change that frequently occurs in the elderly?
A)Pupil size increases
B)Increased need for glasses
C)Retinal changes
D)Lens changes
Q4) new poverty
A) psychological
B) physical
Q5) anxiety
A) psychological
B) physical
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following digestive system disorders is misspelled?
A)Cholecystitis
B)Hepatitis
C)Diverticulitis
D)Chron's disease
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when performing a nasal irrigation?
A)Use 2 teaspoons of salt per 1 pint of water.
B)Use a cooled solution.
C)Use a medicine dropper.
D)Blow the nose immediately after.
Q3) Which of the following is the layer of the skin on which the muscles lie?
A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Subcutaneous
D)Fascia
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) All sterile items are to be at waist level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An acceptable border between a sterile and non-sterile area is 1 1/2 inches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when setting up and covering a sterile field?
A)Grasp the drape at the top cut corner.
B)Drag the non-sterile side carefully across the tray or table surface.
C)Consider all edges of the drape to be sterile.
D)Keep the drape below the waist and above the table.
Q4) Do not cough, talk, or sneeze over a sterile field.
A)True B)False
Q5) If a sterile field that is not poly-lined gets wet, it is still considered sterile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following must be of the highest resolution more than any other x-ray?
A)Ultrasound
B)Mammogram
C)Flat plate
D)CT scan
Q2) Which of the following is an imaging procedure requiring injection of charged particles?
A)PET scan
B)CT scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
E)Fluoroscopy
Q3) Which of the following procedures produces a series of cross-sectional images?
A)PET scan
B)CT scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
E)Fluoroscopy
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33
Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) cryotherapy
A) heat
B) cold
Q2) If you are soaking or immersing patients in water, the water temperature must NOT be greater than which of the following?
A)50°F
B)75°F
C)111°F
D)110°F
E)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is most appropriate when transferring a patient?
A)Lift the patient by the arms or armpits.
B)Use a gait belt around the patient's waist always.
C)Have the patient put her arms around your neck or on your shoulders.
D)Tell the patient not to try to help you.
Q4) The instrument used to measure joint motion is called?
A)ROM
B)Goniometry
C)Goniometer
D)Jointmeter
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Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Southeast Asian
A) Rice is the primary energy food; vegetables are lightly cooked.
B) Spices, especially curry, are popular.
C) Dark breads and fewer green vegetable salads are consumed.
D) Combinations of Spanish and Native American foods are popular.
E) Fish, vegetables, and rice often served fried.
Q2) Which of the following best describes a stage of life in which individuals experience the greatest levels of growth and the need for total nutrients is greater at this stage?
A)Pregnancy
B)Infancy
C)Adolescence
D)Elderly
Q3) Which of the following do you tell Mrs.Martin to avoid in her dietary treatment of diabetes?
A)Vitamins
B)Minerals
C)Simple sugars
D)Amino acids
E)Polysaccharides
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computerized software can do all of the following EXCEPT what?
A)Keep track of the DEA renewal date
B)Keep track of expiration dates
C)Keep inventories of all drugs
D)Keep track of the number of drugs prescribed
Q2) The physician wants to prescribe an agent that relieves convulsions.Which of the following best describes the class of this type of drug and an example?
A)Antidepressant, Prozac
B)Anticonvulsant, Dramamine
C)Anticonvulsant, Dilantin
D)Antidepressant, Dilantin
E)Hypnotic, Secobarbital
Q3) The physician wants to prescribe an agent that causes sleep.Which of the following best describes the class of this type of drug and an example?
A)Sedative, phenobarbital
B)Tranquilizer, Haldol
C)Sedative, Haldol
D)Narcotic, codeine
E)Hypnotic, Seconal
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Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following injections does NOT require massage after administration?
A)Intramuscular
B)Subcutaneous
C)Intradermal
D)Z-track
Q2) Which of the following is the correct interpretation of a prescription that reads Penicillin V 500 mg po qid #50?
A)Dispense 500 tablets of penicillin and have the patient take one tablet four times a day.
B)Take one tablet of penicillin three times a day for 16 days.
C)Dispense 50 tablets of penicillin 500 mg each and have the patient take one tablet four times a day.
D)This is not a valid order because there is no time.
Q3) Which of the following injections does NOT require stretching the skin taut?
A)Intramuscular
B)Subcutaneous
C)Intradermal
D)None of the above
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Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes when the myocardial cells recovers electrically?
A)Repolarization
B)Negative deflection
C)Depolarization
D)Polarization
Q2) Which of the following best describes the function of standardization of the EKG machine?
A)To set machine timing
B)To determine whether the machine is set and working properly
C)To check for artifacts
D)To determine the correct placement of chest electrodes
Q3) Which of the following is a reason to have an EKG?
A)Detects myocardial ischemia
B)Estimates damage from MI
C)Evaluates arrhythmia
D)Assesses cardiac medication on the heart
E)All the above
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) lab meets CLIA regulations after inspection
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
Q2) The only health care professionals trained specifically for the ambulatory setting, including the POL procedure, would be which of the following?
A)Physicians
B)Medical assistants
C)Registered nurses
D)Dentists
Q3) labs who only perform waived tests
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when using a microscope?
A)Lower the oculars toward the slide while looking through the oculars.
B)View the field first using low power.
C)Focus first using 40x.
D)Adjust the fine adjustment before adjusting the coarse adjustment.
Q2) Which of the following is a range of values considered normal because they include 95% of test results for a normal healthy population?
A)Test results
B)Reference values
C)Diagnosis
D)Panic values
Q3) Which of the following best describes the purpose of using oil immersion?
A)Decrease magnification
B)Scatter light rays throughout the field
C)Multiply ocular lens magnification
D)Visualize all objects in the field
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor that can affect laboratory values?
A)Fasting
B)Heparin
C)Tourniquet on 1 minute or less
D)Exercise
Q2) Pull gently with plunger.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Q3) What happens during the clotting process of blood?
A)Buffy coat is formed
B)Formation of plasma
C)Converts fibrinogen to fibrin
D)Plasma degradation
Q4) Which of the following is NOT one of the arteries of the arm?
A)Radial
B)Brachial
C)Femoral
D)Ulnar
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygenated hemoglobin is what color?
A)Dark red
B)Bright red
C)Blue
D)Yellow
Q2) Which of the following is the normal value for a platelet count?
A)20,000-50,000
B)50,000-100,000
C)150,000-450,000
D)400,000-600,000
Q3) Which of the following is the reference range of a leukocyte count for adults?
A)4,500-11,000
B)5,000-12,000
C)6,000-14,000
D)10,000-30,000
Q4) Which of the following best defines hematology?
A)Study of blood chemistry
B)Study of blood proteins
C)Study of blood plasma
D)Study of blood cells
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Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major kidney function?
A)Secretion
B)Reabsorption
C)Diffusion
D)Filtration
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the examination of urine?
A)Urine should be examined within 24 hours of voiding.
B)Urine should be refrigerated for at least 1 hour before examination.
C)Urine should be examined within 2 hours of voiding.
D)Urine should never be refrigerated.
Q3) Which of the following is a normal substance found in the urine
A)Bile
B)Fat
C)Creatinine
D)Blood
Q4) Which of the following best describes the color of normal urine?
A)Clear
B)Straw
C)Amber
D)Smoky
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes placing a sample of body secretions on a special medium to allow bacteria to grow?
A)Sensitivity test
B)Culture
C)Holding media
D)Mordant
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of a quality control program in microbiology?
A)Monitor all equipment with temperature controls daily.
B)Do not use media past the shelf life.
C)Update the laboratory manual daily.
D)Make the SDS available to reference.
Q3) Which of the following is true when collecting stool for O & P identification?
A)Do not contaminate the stool specimen with urine.
B)Use special vials.
C)Collect the stool in wide-mouth containers.
D)All the above.
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin is secreted by pancreatic cells in response to ____ glucose levels, and glucagon is secreted in response to ____ glucose levels.
A)Increased, decreased
B)Increased, increased
C)Decreased, increased
D)Decreased, decreased
Q2) Which of the following does NOT refer to Prothrombin time?
A)INR
B)Protime
C)PT
D)PTT
Q3) The pregnancy hormone can be detected in the urine of a pregnant woman as early as:
A)8 days after conception
B)11 days after conception
C)2 days after conception
D)14 days after conception
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) negotiating maintenance contracts
A) personnel data
B) medical records
C) employee time sheets
D) financial and billing reports
E) equipment and supplies requests and inventory data
F) staffing requirements and appointment schedules
Q2) authorizing payroll
A) personnel data
B) medical records
C) employee time sheets
D) financial and billing reports
E) equipment and supplies requests and inventory data
F) staffing requirements and appointment schedules
Q3) Social networking should NOT be used in which of the following ways?
A)To criticize the competition
B)To recruit new employees
C)To build community
D)To engage customers
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should an employer ideally pay for an employee's continuing education?
A)When the cost is inexpensive.
B)When the employer is afraid the employee is thinking of quitting.
C)When it benefits the employee on the job.
D)When the employee is really interested in the topic.
Q2) Encourage participation by paying employees for time.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q3) According to the U.S.Department of Labor, Bureau of Labor Statistics, medical assistants are listed in the top ten occupations with the employment growth much faster than average through which of the following years?
A)2010
B)2024
C)2009
D)2020
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) New industry standards require that each NHA-certified health care professional complete at least how many CE credits every 2 years to keep certification current?
A)6.0 credits
B)3.0 credits
C)4.0 credits
D)10 credits
Q2) The National Healthcareer Association (NHA) offers and is dedicated to which of the following?
A)National certification exams for health care professionals
B)Guidelines for national certification competencies/standards
C)Continuing education program
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is the name of the National Healthcareer Association (NHA) newsletter?
A)The NHA today
B)CMA today
C)Professional Medical Assistant
D)Journal of Continuing Education Topics & Issues
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Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your self-assessment will require obtaining the opinions of all of the following except::
A)Peers
B)Instrctors
C)Friends
D)Parents
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a part of vital résumé information?
A)Name and address
B)Current telephone
C)Birth date
D)Education
Q3) Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding a resume?
A)A long detailed resume is best.
B)References should be listed on the same sheet as the resume.
C)Style is more important than accuracy.
D)Accomplishment statements begin with power verbs.
Q4) helped
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
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Page 49