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This course provides students with comprehensive training in laboratory procedures essential for medical assistants in healthcare settings. Topics include specimen collection and handling, basic laboratory safety, infection control protocols, and the use of common laboratory equipment. Students will learn to perform routine laboratory tests such as urinalysis, hematology, and microbiology procedures, as well as interpret basic test results under supervision. Emphasis is placed on accurate documentation, quality control, and adherence to regulatory standards to ensure safe and effective patient care. Hands-on practice and simulations are incorporated to build competency and confidence in real-world clinical laboratory environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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Sample Questions
Q1) What information is contained in the medical record?
A)Health history
B)Results of the physical examination
C)Laboratory reports
D)Progress notes
E)All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) What term is used to describe excessive perspiration?
A)Dehydration
B)Diaphoresis
C)Edema
D)Hyperemesis
Answer: B
Q3) All of the following are included in the medical history except A)accidents and injuries.
B)immunizations.
C)operations.
D)medications.
E)occupation.
Answer: E
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Sample Questions
Q1) Personal protective equipment must be used to
A)draw blood.
B)label a specimen container.
C)measure oral temperature.
D)perform a vision screening test.
E)do all of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) What is the purpose of the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act?
A)To ensure that an injection is administered correctly
B)To ensure the proper disposal of sharps
C)To reduce the chance of infection developing at the injection site
D)To reduce needlestick injuries among health care workers
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following used items is not an example of regulated medical waste?
A)Suture needle
B)Microbiologic collection device
C)Gauze saturated with blood
D)Urine testing strip
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period of time that a disinfecting solution is effective after it has been activated is known as its
A)reuse life.
B)shelf life.
C)use life.
D)expiration date.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following does OSHA recommend for the decontamination of a blood spill?
A)70% isopropyl alcohol
B)10% household bleach in water
C)2% glutaraldehyde
D)Lysol
Answer: B
Q3) The medical assistant should not set the timer on the autoclave until
A)the sterilization indicator changes color.
B)the gauge has reached the desired temperature.
C)the pressure reaches 15 pounds per square inch.
D)steam enters the inner sterilization chamber.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following may occur if the lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer is dirty?
A)The lens may break.
B)The reading may be falsely low.
C)The tympanic membrane may become irritated.
D)The reading may be falsely high.
Q2) Proper care of the pulse oximeter includes
A)cleaning the probe with a disinfectant cleaner.
B)autoclaving the probe for 20 minutes.
C)lifting the monitor by the cable.
D)cleaning the monitor with an abrasive cleaner.
E)all of the above.
Q3) One respiration consists of
A)one inhalation.
B)one exhalation.
C)one inhalation and one exhalation.
D)the opening and closing of the valves of the heart.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason for weighing a prenatal patient is to
A)detect the presence of twins.
B)determine if the fetus is growing.
C)determine the due date.
D)ensure the placenta is developing normally.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of auscultation?
A)Measuring body temperature
B)Measuring blood pressure
C)Urine testing
D)Testing pupillary reaction
Q3) The lower calibration bar of a balance-beam scale is divided into _____-lb increments.
A)1
B)2
C)25
D)50
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conjunctiva
A)lines the retina.
B)covers the front of the eye, including the cornea.
C)covers the iris.
D)covers the front of the eye, except for the cornea.
Q2) What is the function of the lens of the eye?
A)To permit the entrance of light rays into the eye
B)To control the size of the pupil
C)To focus light rays on the retina
D)To transmit light rays to the brain
Q3) The transparent part of the eye that covers the pupil and the iris is the A)sclera.
B)cornea.
C)choroid.
D)lens.
Q4) A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as A)hyperopia.
B)presbyopia.
C)myopia.
D)amblyopia.

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Sample Questions
Q1) A cane should be held
A)on the strong side of the body.
B)with the cane handle 2 inches above the greater trochanter.
C)on the weak side of the body.
D)with the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle.
Q2) All of the following help prevent low back pain except
A)sleeping on a firm mattress.
B)having good posture.
C)maintaining a healthy body weight.
D)bending from the waist when lifting an object.
Q3) The most frequent reason for applying a cast is to A)support and stabilize a dislocated joint.
B)align a fracture until proper healing occurs.
C)promote healing after a surgical correction.
D)aid in the nonsurgical correction of a deformity.
Q4) Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause
A)carpal tunnel syndrome.
B)sciatic nerve damage.
C)crutch palsy.
D)tendinitis.

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Q1) What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy?
A)Hypertension
B)Thrombophlebitis
C)Uterine bleeding
D)Gestational diabetes
Q2) What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate?
A)80 to 120 beats/min
B)100 to 140 beats/min
C)120 to 160 beats/min
D)140 to 180 beats/min
Q3) The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends that a woman perform a breast self-examination
A)once each week.
B)once each month.
C)every 2 months.
D)twice each year.
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Q1) All of the following are reasons for obtaining a urine specimen from a pediatric patient except to
A)diagnose a pathologic condition.
B)screen for the presence of disease.
C)evaluate the effectiveness of therapy.
D)prevent urinary tract infections.
Q2) The most important use of growth charts is to
A)assess the child's individual growth pattern.
B)compare the child's growth with that of other children of the same age.
C)identify children with prehypertension.
D)identify children with type 2 diabetes.
E)complete all of the above.
Q3) The first pediatric well-child visit is usually scheduled at A)3 to 5 days.
B)1 month.
C)2 months.
D)4 months.
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Q1) Which of the following bandage turns is used to anchor a bandage?
A)Recurrent turn
B)Spiral reverse turn
C)Spiral turn
D)Circular turn
Q2) What patient position is used to perform a colposcopy?
A)Lithotomy
B)Supine
C)Sims
D)Knee-chest
Q3) Which of the following types of suture needles requires the use of a needle holder?
A)Straight
B)Noncutting
C)Curved
D)Swaged
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Q1) Which of the following is assigned by the pharmaceutical company that first develops a drug?
A)Chemical name
B)Official name
C)Generic name
D)Brand name
Q2) A prescription for a schedule III drug expires _____ from the date of issue.
A)7 days
B)2 months
C)6 months
D)1 year
Q3) What does it mean if both tests in a two-step TB test are negative?
A)Further diagnostic procedures must be performed.
B)The patient is considered infected with tuberculosis.
C)It is considered a boosted reaction.
D)The patient is classified as noninfected.
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Q1) An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to
A)facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart.
B)reduce the amount of dryness of the skin.
C)protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph.
D)amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart.
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of a low oxygen level in the body except
A)cyanosis of the lips and fingernails.
B)erythema and hives.
C)drowsiness and confusion.
D)difficult or irregular breathing.
Q3) All of the following are examples of pulmonary function tests except A)coronary angiography.
B)diffusion capacity.
C)arterial blood gas studies.
D)pulse oximetry.
Q4) In spirometry,the predicted value means
A)what the results should be if the patient's lungs are healthy.
B)what the results should be for a patient with COPD.
C)the amount of air that can be pushed out of the lungs in 1 second.
D)how much damage has been done to the lungs.
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Q1) Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as
A)positive.
B)negative.
C)no reaction.
D)invalid.
Q2) Which of the following increases the PSA level?
A)Fasting
B)Smoking
C)Vigorous exercise
D)Alcohol consumption
Q3) Which of the following positions is used for flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy?
A)Sims
B)Lithotomy
C)Prone
D)Supine
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Q1) Magnetic resonance imaging is used to assist in the diagnosis of A)spinal lesions.
B)cardiovascular abnormalities.
C)herniated disks.
D)joint diseases.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The purpose of contrast medium is to
A)prevent the radiographic film from becoming blurred.
B)decrease the amount of time needed to develop radiographic film.
C)make a structure visible on a radiograph.
D)allow direct visualization of internal organs and structures.
Q3) Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding an upper GI radiographic examination?
A)Perform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination.
B)Take a laxative the evening before the examination.
C)Do not eat or drink after midnight on the day before the examination.
D)Take dye tablets with the evening meal.
E)All of the above are appropriate instructions.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis?
A)Laboratory test results are above the reference range.
B)An imbalance exists in the body.
C)Laboratory test results fall within the reference range.
D)Laboratory test results are invalid.
Q2) All of the following are included in a lipid profile except A)glucose.
B)total cholesterol.
C)HDL cholesterol.
D)triglycerides.
Q3) A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test)is allowed to consume A)baked chicken.
B)water.
C)diet soda.
D)orange juice.
E)none of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a microscopic examination of urine,the presence of how many white blood cells/HPF is considered normal?
A)0 to 8
B)0 to 15
C)0 to 20
D)2 to 6
Q2) What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman?
A)Estrogen
B)Progesterone
C)HCGH
D)Human chorionic gonadotropin
E)Testosterone
Q3) Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip?
A)Using a freshly voided urine specimen
B)Touching the reagent areas with the fingers
C)Completely immersing the reagent areas in the urine specimen
D)Holding the reagent strip in a horizontal position when reading results
E)None of the above
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Q1) You need to collect a venous blood specimen from a patient to run an FBG.Which of the following would be an inappropriate statement to make to the patient during this procedure?
A)"Which arm was used in the past to draw blood from you?"
B)"Please do not move during this procedure."
C)"This procedure will not hurt."
D)"When did you last eat or drink?"
Q2) An individual who collects blood specimens is known as a(n) A)vampire.
B)venipuncturist.
C)optometrist.
D)phlebotomist.
Q3) Whole blood is obtained by
A)using a tube containing an anticoagulant.
B)centrifuging a clotted blood specimen.
C)using a red-stoppered tube.
D)using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant.
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Q1) The plasma functions in
A)transporting electrolytes needed by the cells.
B)transporting nutrients to the tissues.
C)picking up wastes from the tissues.
D)transporting antibodies, enzymes, and hormones.
E)all of the above ways.
Q2) Which of the following results in leukopenia?
A)Appendicitis
B)Chickenpox
C)Chemotherapy
D)Rheumatic fever
Q3) The function of hemoglobin is to
A)defend the body against infection.
B)transport oxygen in the body.
C)assist in blood clotting.
D)transport electrolytes in the body.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A total cholesterol reading of 250 is considered A)high.
B)borderline high.
C)desirable.
D)low.
Q2) In vivo means in A)glass.
B)the living body.
C)test tubes.
D)the uterus.
Q3) The recommended A c level for an individual with diabetes is A)4% to 6%.
B)less than 6%.
C)less than 7%.
D)greater than 8%.
Q4) What is the name of the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis?
A)Epstein-Barr
B)Varicella
C)Treponema pallidum
D)HIV
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Q1) The causative agent of gonorrhea is a gramA)negative Diplococcus.
B)positive rod.
C)positive Diplococcus.
D)negative Coccus.
Q2) Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen?
A)Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen
B)Licking a label for a specimen container
C)Having an open sore on the hand
D)Drinking coffee in the office laboratory
E)All of the above
Q3) Escherichia coli normally reside in the A)vagina.
B)urinary tract.
C)large intestine.
D)stomach.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A)Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B)Chest pain
C)Shortness of breath
D)Nausea
Q2) Which of the following spiders can cause a serious or life-threatening reaction?
A)Wolfe spider
B)Daddy long legs
C)Brown recluse spider
D)The itsy-bitsy spider that went up the water spout
Q3) Which of the following may result in insulin shock?
A)Forgetting to administer an insulin injection
B)Skipping meals
C)Overeating
D)Not administering enough insulin
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a partial-thickness burn?
A)It extends into the dermis.
B)The burned area appears red and mottled.
C)There is little pain involved.
D)Blistering occurs.

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