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Marketing Research is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the systematic process of gathering, analyzing, and interpreting data relevant to marketing decision-making. The course covers essential topics such as research design, sampling methods, questionnaire development, data collection techniques, and both qualitative and quantitative data analysis. Emphasis is placed on how marketing research can be used to identify market opportunities, evaluate marketing actions, understand consumer behavior, and improve business strategies. Through case studies, practical exercises, and real-world projects, students gain hands-on experience in applying research methods to solve marketing problems and make informed business decisions.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Marketing Research 11th Edition by
Barry J. Babin
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Q1) Which step comes last in developing a marketing strategy?
A)analyzing firm performance
B)identifying and evaluating market opportunities
C)selecting target markets
D)planning and implementing a marketing mix
Answer: A
Q2) From a research standpoint,the ____________________ means that research studies often investigate effects of various combinations of marketing elements on important outcomes such as sales and image.
Answer: integrated marketing mix
Q3) The most common forms of performance-monitoring research are sales performance and profit analyses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Organizations conducting research in order to make a decision about a real situation faced in the marketplace are conducting ____________________ research.
Answer: applied
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Q1) When you visit Web sites,most likely,a small computer file that records your Web usage history is created.This small computer file is called a(n)____.
A)electronic data exchange
B)cookie
C)URL
D)intranet
Answer: B
Q2) One way to describe marketing research is to categorize it based on the four possible functions that it serves in business: foundational,testing,issues,and validation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Scanner data refers to the accumulated records resulting from point of sale data recordings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Exploratory research is typically conducted in the early stages of decision-making.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The initial stages of a research study that are intended to clarify the nature of the research problem are called ____________________ research.
Answer: exploratory
Q3) Absolute association means that any covariation between a cause and an effect is true and not simply due to some other variable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Concomitant variation is sufficient evidence to determine causality in experiments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Often the term "doer" is used by the research department to refer to line management for whom services are being performed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A potential advantage of using an outside research supplier over an in-house research department is that it may be possible for the outside supplier to conduct the project ____.
A)more objectively
B)at a lower cost
C)at a faster rate
D)with more secrecy
Q3) Which agency offers syndicated research services?
A)J.D.Power and Associates
B)Burke
C)Millward Brown
D)Nielson Holdings
Q4) Discuss the rights and obligations of the research participant.
Q5) Define marketing ethics and explain how it applies to marketing research.
Q6) Discuss the rights and obligations of the researcher.
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Q1) Ethnography is a qualitative research orientation originating in ____.
A)marketing
B)psychology
C)anthropology
D)sociology
Q2) Quantitative research uses empirical assessments that involve numerical measurement and analytical approaches.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Qualitative research is cheaper than quantitative research.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The focus of qualitative research is on producing "numbers" that can be used in statistical tests.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe a focus group interview and discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this technique.
Q6) The person who leads a focus group discussion is called a(n)____________________.
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Q1) Schematic networks are a form of artificial intelligence in which a computer is programmed to mimic the way that human brains process information.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One disadvantage of secondary data is that ____.
A)the user has no control over their reliability and validity
B)the data cannot be converted
C)it typically requires additional access to research respondents
D)it takes more time to collect than primary data
Q3) Reading The New York Times to study possible changes in consumer consumption patterns of specific products is an example of ____________________.
Q4) A credit card company uses information about each customer's age,gender,income,and past credit history to find patterns that make customers a poor credit risk.This company is using ____.
A)single-source data
B)data transformation
C)customer discovery
D)index of customer saturation
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of secondary data.
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Q1) Systematic errors are nonsampling errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of "no contacts" in survey research has been decreasing because of the increased use of telephone answering machines by consumers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are advantages of Internet surveys EXCEPT ____.
A)random sampling
B)speed
C)visual appeal
D)accurate real-time data capture
Q4) Define surveys and describe the type of information that may be gathered in a survey.
Q5) Systematic error is divided into ____.
A)respondent error and administrative error
B)random sampling error and administrative error
C)response bias and interview error
D)primary error and secondary error
Q6) Name and describe the types of response bias.
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Q1) Clara is a market researcher who records shoppers' movement through a grocery store.What method of research is Clara using?
A)survey
B)assessment
C)immersion
D)observation
Q2) The distortion of measurement resulting from the cognitive behavior or actions of a witnessing observer is referred to as ____________________ bias.
Q3) All of the following are directly observable phenomena EXCEPT ____.
A)attitudes
B)verbal behavior
C)spatial relations and locations
D)neurological activity
Q4) Physiological observation techniques,such as pupilometers,psychogalvanometers,and voice-pitch analysis,precisely measure levels of arousal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast direct observation and contrived observation.
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Q1) Test-market sabotage involves intentional attempts to disrupt the results of a test-market being conducted by another firm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an experiment,the researcher manipulates the dependent variable and measures its effect on the independent variable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a certain study,different interviewers are used in a pretest from those used in the posttest and this produces different results in the study.This is an example of a(n)____.
A)history effect
B)mortality effect
C)instrumentation effect
D)cohort effect
Q4) Experimental treatments are administered to the control group.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the four important elements in experimental design.
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Q1) All of the following can be measured using ratio scales EXCEPT ____.
A)gender
B)income
C)temperature
D)weight
Q2) Ranking asks the respondent to estimate the magnitude or the extent to which some characteristic exists.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interval scales are considered continuous when three or more categories are used.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____ definitions translate conceptual definitions into measurement scales.
A)Summation
B)Operational
C)Assessment
D)Matching
Q5) A generalized idea that represents something of meaning is called a(n)____________________.
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Q1) The cost of administering open-ended questions is much lower than that of administering fixed-alternative questions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In political elections involving candidates who are not well-known by many voters,the candidate who is listed first on the ballot often receives the most votes.This is an example of a(n)____.
A)Hawthorne effect
B)self-fulfilling prophecy
C)order bias
D)split-ballot technique
Q3) For a questionnaire to fulfill a researcher's purposes,the questions must meet the basic criteria of relevance and accuracy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The anchoring technique involves asking general questions before specific questions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Sampling frames are consistent available around the world.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The difference between the results of a sample and the results of a census that is conducted with identical procedures is called ____________________ error.
Q3) Which technique uses nonprobability sampling,in which an experienced individual selects the sample based on his or her judgment about some appropriate characteristics required of the sample member?
A)area sample
B)subjective sample
C)stratified sample
D)judgment sample
Q4) When a researcher uses students to participate in a study because he has easy access to them,what type of sampling procedure is being used?
A)judgment sampling
B)systematic sampling
C)snowball sampling
D)convenience sampling
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Q1) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution is called the ____________________ of the mean.
Q2) The idea that as sample size increases,the distribution of sample means of samples of size n,when randomly selected,approaches a normal distribution is known as the ____________________.
Q3) The value of Z is computed by the formula: Z = (X - µ)/ . A)True B)False
Q4) List the characteristics of the standardized normal distribution and explain why it is a useful distribution in inferential statistics.
Q5) Explain the central-limit theorem and discuss why it is useful to marketing researchers.
Q6) The confidence interval increases as the sample size,n,increases. A)True B)False
Q7) The ____________________ distribution is bell shaped.
Q9) Discuss the three factors required to specify sample size. Page 15
Q8) The middle score in a set of rank ordered scores is called the ____________________ score.
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Q1) A Type II error occurs when the researcher rejects the null hypothesis when,in fact,it is true.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nature of the problem the researcher wishes to answer will determine which ____ will serve as a base for computing percentages.
A)independent variable
B)marginal total
C)dependent variable
D)column mean
Q3) If a researcher wants to summarize the responses of subjects by gender and awareness of a particular brand ("Yes" or "No"),he or she should use a ____ contingency table.
A)1 x 2
B)2 x 2
C)2 x 3
D)normal
Q4) A value that lies far beyond the range of the rest of the data set is called a(n)____________________.
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Q1) Mulitvariate dependence techniques are variants of the general linear model (GLM).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sum of differences between the group mean and the grand mean summed over all groups for a given set of observations is called ____________________.
Q3) A Z-test for differences of proportions requires a sample size greater than 100.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which analysis is portrayed by the equation: Y = b + X + X + X ...+ nXn?
A)simple regression
B)multiple regression
C)chi-square
D)factor analysis
Q5) In multiple regression,dummy variables are those that have no effect on the dependent variable.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An oral or written statement of the results of the research study,its strategic recommendations,and its other conclusions presented to a specific audience is known as the ____________________.
Q2) Tables are most useful for presenting ____ information.
A)symbolic
B)verbal
C)pictorial
D)numerical
Q3) All of the following are elements of a research report EXCEPT for the ____.
A)title page
B)executive summary
C)body
D)feedback notes
Q4) The most common independent variable for line charts is time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the purpose of the oral presentation and list suggestions for effective presentations.
Q6) List the seven major elements of a formal research report.
Q7) Discuss what is included in the body of a research report.
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Q1) A balanced experimental design is one in which random numbers of subjects are exposed to each combination of treatment levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The SST is computed by squaring the deviation of each observed value from the grand mean and summing these values.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The combination of individual or group means representing a planned comparison is called a ____.
A)difference
B)differential
C)contrast
D)divergence
Q4) Even an incomplete experimental design requires that observations be made on all combinations of treatments.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the total sum of squares and its components.
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Q1) The Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient ranges between:
A)zero and +1.0
B)-1.0 and zero
C)-1.0 and +1.0
D)-2.0 and +2.0
Q2) Which correlation coefficient indicates a moderate positive relationship?
A)-1.0
B)-0.5
C)+0.5
D)+1.0
Q3) The ordinary least-squares method of regression analysis is based on the logic of how much better a regression line can predict values of Y compared to simply using the mean as a prediction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Underspecification leads to a pattern in ____________________.
Q5) If r = -.88,this indicates a weak relationship between the two variables under study. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which condition is created when the relationship of X on Y is entirely indirect?
A)tautology
B)partial mediation
C)indirect effect
D)complete mediation
Q2) Which technique might a researcher employ when using continuous variable interactions?
A)logistic regression
B)bootstrapping
C)hierarchical regression
D)slopes testing
Q3) Which technique is a work-around for the bias problem with mediation?
A)moderation
B)bootstrapping
C)hierarchical regression
D)slopes testing
Q4) A hypothesis represents a much more comprehensive explanation than does a theory.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The two types of multivariate techniques are ____________________ methods and ____________________ methods.
Q2) Multivariate dependence techniques are variants of the ____,which is a way of modeling some process based on how different variables cause fluctuations from the average dependent variable.
A)ordinary linear model (OLM)
B)weighted average model (WAM)
C)general linear model (GLM)
D)metric scaling model (MSM)
Q3) In logistic regression,the dependent variable takes on a value of one to indicate
A)non-instance
B)success
C)failure
D)frequency
Q4) Interval and ratio scales are referred to as nonmetric scales.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the steps in multivariate dependent analyses.
Q6) Explain how MANOVA models are similar to and differ from ANOVA models.
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Q1) Which type of variance is unique to each individual variable?
A)common variance
B)specific variance
C)error variance
D)systematic variance
Q2) Promax is a rotation technique that produces factors that represent the degree of correlation among factors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cluster analysis seeks to put observations with low distance scores into the ____________________ group.
Q4) The mathematical way of further simplifying factor results that involves new reference axes for a set of variables is called ____.
A)factor loading
B)factor reduction
C)factor rotation
D)factor analysis
Q5) What are the two important pieces of information that exploratory factor analysis provides?
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Q1) Structural equation modeling (SEM)is unique in that it is purely an interdependence technique.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Structural equations modeling (SEM)allows a researcher to build and test a theory by assessing its fit with reality.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which formula correctly represents unique moments?
A)unique moments = m(m + 1)/ 2
B)unique moments = m(m + 1)* 2
C)unique moments = m(m + 1)2
D)unique moments = m/1 * 2
Q4) Explain the comparative fit index (CFI)and how it is used to determine fit.
Q5) The comparative fit index (CFI)can range from -1 to +1. A)True
B)False
Q6) A fixed parameter is one that has been correctly estimated.
A)True
B)False
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