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Marketing Fundamentals introduces students to the core principles and practices of marketing in today's dynamic business environment. The course covers key concepts such as market research, consumer behavior, segmentation, targeting, positioning, and the marketing mix (product, price, place, and promotion). Through case studies and real-world examples, students learn how organizations create value for customers and develop marketing strategies that drive organizational success. Emphasis is placed on ethical decision-making and adapting to rapidly changing market landscapes. This foundational course equips learners with essential marketing knowledge useful for further study and practical application across various industries.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing the Core 4th Edition Canadian by Roger A. Kerin
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4898 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between a market and a target market.Provide a specific example of each.
Answer: Potential consumers make up a market, which is people with both the desire and the ability to buy a specific product.All markets ultimately are people.A target market is one or more specific groups of potential consumers toward which an organization directs its marketing program.
Q2) What is the marketing term for people, whether they are 80 years or 8 months old, who use goods and services purchased for a household?
A)Situational buyers
B)Primary buyers
C)Ultimate consumers
D)Purchasing agents
E)Buying groups
Answer: C
Q3) Define the marketing concept.
Answer: The marketing concept is the idea that an organization should strive to satisfy the needs of consumers, while also trying to achieve the organization's goals.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organization's foundation can be broken into three key elements.They are
A)organizational culture, production capabilities, market performance.
B)mission statement, financial capabilities, product potential.
C)corporate management, departmental teams, individual employees.
D)corporate strategies, departmental goals, and functional tactics.
E)core values, mission, and organizational culture.
Answer: E
Q2) A new company projects that its sales will be greater than its expenses within the first year of operation.This is an example of which type of goal?
A)profit
B)sales revenue
C)market share
D)unit sales
E)quality
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contracts that require a buyer to purchase all or part of their needs for a product from a particular seller for a period of time are called
A)exclusive deals.
B)tying arrangements.
C)requirement contracts.
D)territorial dealership contracts.
E)preferential promotions contracts.
Answer: C
Q2) A time of slow economic activity when businesses decrease production, unemployment rises, and many consumers have less money to spend is referred to as A)economic fluctuation.
B)inflation.
C)an escalation.
D)a recession.
E)a depression.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recently, six executives of Tyson Foods, one of the world's largest poultry, beef, and pork processors, were arrested for illegal smuggling of undocumented foreign workers into the U.S.to work at Tyson plants.Tyson's violations are the result of __________, one of the major reasons why some companies fail to establish ethical behavior.
A)too ambiguous a mission statement
B)the absence of an executive summary
C)the absence of whistle-blowing protocol
D)top management's behavior
E)the absence of an adequate employee compensation program
Q2) Economic espionage is most likely to occur in which types of industries?
A)fashion design and textiles
B)entertainment and television
C)high tech electronics and aerospace
D)intellectual property (print)
E)beverage industry (alcoholic and non-alcoholic)
Q3) Explain the difference between societal culture and business cultures.
Q4) What is the difference between standard charitable contributions and cause marketing?
Q5) Describe the difference between ethics and laws.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Express advertising claim that "membership has its privileges" creates which type of reference group?
A)aspiration group
B)dissociative group
C)assimilation group
D)integrated group
E)membership group
Q2) A(n) __________ in the consumer purchase decision process occurs when consumers scan their memory for previous experiences with products or brands.
A)problem recognition
B)internal search
C)external search
D)purchase task
E)antecedent state
Q3) Why is learning important to marketing?
Q4) What does lifestyle mean, and why is it important to marketers?
Q5) Define consumer socialization.
Q6) What is a subculture? What are some examples of products targeted at American subcultures?
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Q1) When Walmart jumps, the retail world shakes.So when Walmart says it's going to work with its suppliers partnerships to cut 20m tons of emissions from its supply chain, is it too far to say it's a leap in the __________?
A)ISO 9000 revolution
B)IXO 14000 revolution
C)sustainability revolution
D)compliancy revolution
E)consistency codes revolution
Q2) financial status.
A)information search
B)supplier search
C)alternative evaluation
D)purchase decision
E)problem recognition
Q3) The three types of organizational buy classes are
A)industrial, reseller, and government.
B)consumer goods, industrial goods, and services.
C)users, influencers, and deciders.
D)new buy, make-buy, and modified rebuy.
E)straight rebuy, new buy, and modified rebuy.
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Q1) , that makes it a crime for U.S.corporations to bribe an official of a foreign government or political party to obtain or retain business in a foreign country is referred to as the
A)International Law for Egalitarian Ethics.
B)International Fair Practices Act.
C)Law of International Equity.
D)International Law of Ethical Business Practices.
E)Foreign Corrupt Practices Act.
Q2) Four trends have significantly affected world trade and global marketing.The use of __________ as a tool for exchanging goods, services, and information on a global scale is the fourth trend affecting world trade.
A)telephone communications
B)Internet technology
C)language translators
D)tariff and quota policies
E)multinational marketing strategies
Q3) Discuss this statement."A signal that the world's trading nations are committed to open markets-and will resist protectionism-would inject confidence and energy into our markets," says the U.S.Trade Representative.
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Q1) The primary purpose of a "sneak preview" of a film prior to its release, is to
A)rate the performances of the individual actors and actresses for possible Emmy nominations.
B)rate the work of the director and producer for possible Emmy nominations.
C)evaluate the success of pre-release promotion and effectiveness of product placement within the film itself.
D)compare the final film with the original screenplay.
E)identify specific changes that may need to be made prior to final editing and release, to increase the film's likelihood of success.
Q2) Question 5 in the Wendy's Survey in Figure 8-15 above, best illustrates which type of question format?
A)dichotomous
B)open-ended
C)Likert
D)attitudinal
E)semantic differential
Q3) Briefly explain the best-known statistical method used by marketers to develop a company's sales forecasts.In your explanation explain the strengths and weaknesses of using this statistical method.
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Q1) In the sneaker market, Reebok and Nike practice __________ positioning since both manufacturers compete in the same target market with similar product attributes.
A)parallel market
B)distinction
C)differentiation
D)head-to-head
E)confrontational
Q2) A national car rental firm targets 50 percent of its advertising to salespeople who rent a car over 40 weeks per year.Its market is likely segmented by A)usage.
B)benefits offered.
C)demographics.
D)geography.
E)lifestyle.
Q3) Why would an organization produce multiple products or services and then attempt to sell them to two or more market segments?
Q4) Explain what a market-product grid is and how it is used.
Q5) What are the segmentation bases for U.S.organizational markets?
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Q1) Lufthansa and Singapore Airlines ads show travelers in the airlines' new seats and also emphasize broadband Internet connections and other benefits to overcome the __________ of their services.
A)inseparability
B)inconsistency
C)intangibility
D)incongruity
E)inaptness
Q2) The stage of the new-product process that involves developing a pool of concepts to serve as candidates for new-products is referred to as __________.
A)idea generation
B)product development
C)innovation assessment
D)screening and evaluation
E)new-product strategy development
Q3) As shown in Figure 10-7 above, identify and describe each of the seven stages in the new-product process.List each stage in its proper order.
Q4) Define derived demand and provide an example not included in the text.
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Sample Questions
Q1) For consumers, the primary benefit of branding is
A)products tend to be higher in quality.
B)it helps consumers become more efficient shoppers.
C)brand items are more readily available.
D)brand items are usually more expensive initially but cheaper in the long run.
E)they are often rewarded with buyer loyalty incentives.
Q2) Four key challenges for package and label designers include (1) cost reduction, (2) environmental concerns, (3) health, safety, and security issues, and (4) _________.
A)governmental regulations
B)social and societal issues
C)competition from global markets
D)a continuing need to connect with customers
E)diminishing color, symbol, and trademark selections
Q3) Another name for product manager is
A)product supervisor.
B)brand manager.
C)marketing manager.
D)advertising and promotion manager.
E)sales manager.

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Q1) Figure 12-1 above, indicates that there are four common approaches for selecting an approximate price level.List and provide a brief description for each one.
Q2) The ratio of perceived benefits to __________ is referred to as value.
A)price
B)prestige value
C)value-added pricing
D)value analysis
E)perceived costs
Q3) A hardware store advertises a 3/8" Black and Decker Power Drill for $29.95.You enter the store intending to purchase the drill.The salesperson informs you that they are all sold out.She tells you that the "sale" drills were factory seconds and that if you are going to be doing any kind of serious woodworking, you should buy the Model 3309, which sells for $49.99.This scenario has elements of which type of deceptive pricing?
A)comparable value comparisons
B)former price comparisons
C)comparisons with suggested prices
D)conditional bargains
E)bait and switch
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Q1) Industrial distributor refers to
A)an intermediary that maintain their own salesforce and perform all channel functions.
B)an intermediary that deals exclusively with the selling, stocking, and delivery of raw materials used by manufacturers in the production of its products.
C)an intermediary that deals with a single product line within a single industry.
D)an intermediary that performs a variety of marketing channel functions involving selling, stocking, and delivering a full product assortment, and financing.
E)an intermediary that performs functions involving selling, stocking, and deliver of industrial goods but is unable to provide financing due to the normally large expenditures.
Q2) What is a channel captain? What is its function when there is channel conflict?
Q3) What are the three basic functions performed by intermediaries?
Q4) List and briefly describe the four customer service factors that must be balanced in a logistics system.
Q5) What are the key differences between a direct and an indirect channel?
Q6) What are some specific cost trade-offs that can be made in a logistics system?
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Q1) Describe the retail life cycle.
Q2) A drug store that sells pharmaceuticals, beauty aids, camera equipment, nonperishable grocery items, and automobile motor oil is an example of a retailer using
A)cross-docking.
B)full-service.
C)scrambled merchandising.
D)disintermediation.
E)dual channel marketing.
Q3) The difference between the final selling price and the retailer's cost is referred to as
A)original markup
B)maintained markup
C)markdown
D)off-price
E)discount price
Q4) Name each of the four utilities offered by retailing and with each, identify a retailer that does a good job of providing that utility.
Q5) What is category management and when is it used?
Q6) Identify and describe the functions of agents and brokers.
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Q1) Amazon.com, a successful online retailer, manages an extensive database, which includes customers' names and their tastes in books and music.This information is used to determine which products are suggested to each customer.This is an example of how Amazon.com uses
A)publicity.
B)advertising.
C)sales promotion.
D)personal selling.
E)direct marketing
Q2) Which of the following promotional elements requires expensive database management and is experiencing a declining response rate?
A)advertising
B)personal selling
C)sales promotion
D)publicity
E)direct marketing
Q3) What is the promotional mix? Briefly describe each of the five promotional alternatives.
Q4) List the key elements of the promotional mix.Why are they used?
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Q1) The purpose of competitive institutional advertisements is to
A)promote a specific brand's features and benefits.
B)tell people what a company is, what it can do, and where it is located.
C)state the position of a company on an issue.
D)reinforce previous knowledge of a product.
E)promote the advantages of one product class over another.
Q2) An ad for an international consulting firm was intended to communicate the company philosophy-that you can be big and nimble at the same time-rather than sell any one particular service provided by the company.The ad is an example of __________ advertising.
A)pioneering institutional
B)competitive institutional
C)reminder institutional
D)advocacy
E)political
Q3) Differentiate among full-service advertising agencies, limited-service advertising agencies, and in-house agencies as to services provided and composition.
Q4) Identify the three different approaches used to schedule advertising.
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Q5) Describe the three forms of product advertisements.What are their objectives?

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Q1) In Figure 17-1 above, a Dorito's salesperson, an __________ is taking inventory of available product at a supermarket.This information will be given to the store manager who will most likely use it to make a __________.
A)inside order taker; straight rebuy
B)inside order taker; new buy
C)outside order taker; straight rebuy
D)outside order taker; modified rebuy
E)order getter; new buy
Q2) Quantitative assessments of sales performance may be based on input-related objectives set forth in the sales plan, such as those involving
A)new sales, new lead generation, and customer billing.
B)sales calls, selling expenses, and account management policies.
C)selling expenses, profits generated, and account management policies.
D)new lead generation, sales quotas, sales increases over the previous evaluation period.
E)recruitment of new sales representatives, performance recognition, and personal sales.
Q3) Explain the selling model that Xerox uses.
Q4) Explain the difference between personal selling and sales management.
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Q1) According to Arthur R.Kydd CEO of St.Croix Venture Partners, what sets a potential successful idea, product, or technology apart from all the rest is __________ and
A)time; money
B)markets; marketing
C)creativity; hard work
D)originality; financial backing
E)a good team; hard work
Q2) The Paradise Kitchens Inc.'s model for its Organization section reflects the bare-bones organization structure of successful small businesses.The four key positions below the president and CEO, include Director of Finance and Administration, Director of Sales, Vice President of Marketing, and __________.
A)Director of Advertising and Promotions
B)Director of Operations
C)Director of Research and Development
D)Director of Human Resources
E)Senior Distribution Manager
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