Managing People in Organizations Mock Exam - 1980 Verified Questions

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Managing People in Organizations

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Managing People in Organizations explores the essential concepts, strategies, and skills necessary for effective people management within organizational settings. The course covers topics such as workforce motivation, performance management, team dynamics, leadership styles, communication, diversity and inclusion, conflict resolution, and organizational culture. Students will learn how to apply contemporary theories and practices to attract, retain, and develop talent, fostering a productive and positive work environment. Through case studies, discussions, and practical exercises, participants will develop the ability to address common challenges faced by managers and contribute to the overall success of organizations through effective people management.

Recommended Textbook

Human Resource Management 12th Edition by Gary Dessler

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18 Chapters

1980 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Resource Management

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Q1) How have technological trends changed the nature of businesses? In what way has technology changed human resources management?

Answer: Everyone knows that technology changed the nature of almost everything we do.We use PDAs to communicate with the office,and plan trips,manage money,and custom build new computers online.Similarly,technology changes what businesses do and how they do it.For example,Internet-based communications enables firms to offshore call center jobs to India,which has had a significant effect on HR management.Technological applications provide support to human resources.ASPs are used to process employment applications,Web portals are used to enable employees to manage their benefits packages,and data warehouses help HR managers monitor their HR systems.

Q2) Which of the following would provide the best solution for a global firm's HR department that needs to immediately provide employees with corporate information?

A) streaming desktop video

B) electronic outsourcing

C) productivity software

D) peripheral devices

E) network monitoring

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Equal Opportunity and the Law

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Q1) In which of the following situations does sexual harassment NOT violate Title VII?

A) if the conduct substantially interferes with a person's work performance

B) if the conduct creates an intimidating work environment

C) if the conduct creates a hostile work environment

D) if the conduct is motivated by both age and gender

E) if the conduct creates an offensive work environment

Answer: D

Q2) All of the following are principles established by Griggs v.Duke Power Company EXCEPT ________.

A) burden of proof is on the employer

B) performance standards should be unambiguous

C) business necessity is a defense for an existing program

D) employment selection practices must be job related

E) discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal

Answer: B

Q3) The 14th Amendment to the U.S.Constitution led to the establishment of the EEOC. A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: The Manager's Role in Strategic Human

Resource Management

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Q1) What are human resource metrics? Why are human resource metrics important in high-performance work systems?

Answer: A human resource metric is the quantitative measure of some human resource management yardstick such as employee turnover,hours of training per employee,or qualified applicants per position.You can use such metrics to assess your own company's HR performance,and to compare one company's with another's.Human resource metrics are critical in creating high performance human resource policies and practices.This is because they enable managers to benchmark.Benchmarking means comparing and analyzing the practices of high-performing companies to your own in order to understand what they do that makes them better.

Q2) The primary purpose of implementing high-performance practices such as recruiting,screening,and training is to ________.

A) foster a strong organizational culture

B) eliminate the tendency to hire interns for full-time positions

C) create management opportunities for new hires

D) develop a trained and self-motivated workforce

E) utilize benchmarks to compare personnel skills within an industry

Answer: D

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Chapter 4: Job Analysis

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Q1) According to the ________,an individual must have the requisite skills,educational background,and experience to perform a job's essential functions.

A) SOC

B) DOL

C) ADA

D) FCC

E) SIC

Q2) How does the ADA affect hiring practices? How does an HR manager determine whether or not a job description complies with the ADA?

Q3) Murray,Inc.emphasizes a desire for detail-oriented,motivated employees with strong social skills as indicated in the firm's job ________.

A) specifications

B) analysis

C) reports

D) descriptions

E) context

Q4) What is the difference between job enlargement,job rotation,and job enrichment?

Q5) In a brief essay,compare and contrast job descriptions and job specifications.

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Chapter 5: Personnel Planning and Recruiting

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Q1) SB&A Consulting plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management positions this year.Which of the following factors is most important for the firm to consider when deciding which colleges to visit?

A) location

B) reputation

C) tuition and fees

D) enrollment numbers

E) student-teacher ratio

Q2) Recruiting is necessary to ________.

A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates

B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates

C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm

D) create qualifications inventories

E) develop an applicant pool

Q3) Why do employers turn to private employment agencies for assistance in recruiting? Provide at least four reasons for the use of such employment agencies.

Q4) What are the pros and cons associated with using internal sources of job candidates? What are the pros and cons of using Internet recruiting to locate external sources of job candidates?

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Chapter 6: Employee Testing and Selection

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Q1) According to federal laws,the development,validation,and administration of selection tests must be conducted by a qualified psychologist or a firm may face defamation charges.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The unreliability of a test may be explained by all of the following EXCEPT

A) poor sampling of question material

B) lack of equivalence between tests

C) inconsistent testing conditions

D) failure to predict job performance

E) lack of internal consistency

Q3) Applicant tracking systems are used by employers to ________.

A) develop work samples

B) implement EEO laws

C) develop specific job descriptions

D) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship

E) screen and rank candidates based on skills

Q4) What are the recommended guidelines that employers should follow when managing a testing program?

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Chapter 7: Interviewing Candidates

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Q1) Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?

A) background question

B) behavioral question

C) situational question

D) job knowledge question

E) descriptive question

Q2) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries,it is called a(n)________ interview.

A) verbal

B) group

C) selection

D) benchmark

E) background

Q3) What three ways can selection interviews be classified? How does each classification affect an interview?

Q4) How do nonverbal behaviors and impression management affect an interview?

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Chapter 8: Training and Developing Employees

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Q1) All of the following are literacy training methods used by employers EXCEPT

A) testing the basic skills of employees

B) providing computerized simulations

C) assigning employees writing exercises

D) holding math and reading classes at work

E) sending employees to adult education classes

Q2) Which of the following should occur during the second step of the on-the-job training process?

A) The supervisor puts the learner at ease and explains the purpose of the training.

B) The trainee explains the steps as the supervisor performs the task at a slow pace.

C) The supervisor explains the whole job and relates it to the trainee's other tasks.

D) The supervisor asks the trainee about any relevant knowledge or skills.

E) The trainee performs the job several times slowly as the supervisor observes.

Q3) Lewin's change process consists of unfreezing,moving,and refreezing.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Performance Management and Appraisal

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Q1) Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists.Lately,productivity has been down,and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible.Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate,accuracy,and time spent entering data?

A) digital dashboard device

B) electronic performance monitoring system

C) Web-based management oversight device

D) electronic performance support system

E) computerized performance appraisal system

Q2) The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________.

A) develop performance dimensions

B) generate critical incidents

C) compare subordinates

D) reallocate incidents

E) scale incidents

Q3) The forced distribution method is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising performance.

A)True

B)False

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Coaching, Careers, and Talent Management

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Q1) How are firms using technology for career development programs?

A) using online testing systems to screen applicants

B) providing mentors and coaches with online training systems

C) monitoring employees' performance with electronic performance support systems

D) using software systems to integrate employees' appraisal and training information

E) developing performance appraisals and job descriptions with specialized software

Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a concern or value that a person will not give up if a career choice is necessary?

A) golden parachute

B) career anchor

C) career cycle

D) career plan

E) job aid

Q3) Most employees who continue working after retirement age must do so because of their financial instability.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Establishing Strategic Pay Plans

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Q1) What are the two primary ways to make direct financial payments to employees? How does compensation for managers or professionals differ from compensation for clerical or production workers at a firm?

Q2) According to the court system,the test that distinguishes an independent contractor from an employee is whether or not the firm provides the worker with health insurance benefits.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What are the five main elements of a competency-based pay plan?

Q4) Most expatriate salaries are set using the host-country base pay.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which of the following is NOT one of the forms of equity related to compensation issues?

A) group

B) internal

C) external

D) individual

E) procedural

Q6) Explain the equity theory of motivation.What are the four forms of equity?

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Chapter 12: Pay for Performance and Financial Incentives

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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to financial rewards paid to workers whose production exceeds some predetermined standard?

A) indirect financial payments

B) merit payments

C) hardship allowance

D) financial incentives

E) human capital

Q2) All of the following are disadvantages of straight commission plans EXCEPT

A) salespeople avoid pushing hard-to-sell items

B) salespeople fail to service small accounts

C) payments are complicated to calculate

D) significant variations in pay exist

E) pay depends on skill and economy

Q3) Vroom's expectancy theory observes that people will not pursue rewards that they find unattractive or where their chances of success are very low.

A)True

B)False

Q4) List the basic steps in implementing a gainsharing plan.

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Chapter 13: Benefits and Services

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jenny must contribute at least 5% of her annual salary to her pension plan,and her employer contributes a set amount as well.She is given choices regarding how the money is invested.When she retires,the amount she has available will depend on how much she invested herself,and the rate of return on the investments she chose.This pension plan could be classified as ________.

A) qualified, defined benefit

B) non-contributory, defined benefit

C) contributory, defined contribution

D) contributory, non-qualified

E) contributory, defined benefit

Q2) Which of the following provides income and medical benefits to work-related accident victims or their dependents?

A) severance pay

B) sick leave

C) family and medical leave

D) workers' compensation

E) health insurance benefits

Q3) What are the three types of benefits provided by Social Security?

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Chapter 14: Ethics, Justice, and Fair Treatment in HR Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the process by which a decision is made. A)True

B)False

Q2) Employers can foster perceptions of fairness through all of the following methods EXCEPT ________.

A) distributing opinion surveys

B) establishing employee hotlines

C) focusing on two-way communication

D) addressing the big picture instead of specific details

E) involving employees in the decision-making process

Q3) Which of the following best describes a normative judgment?

A) assessment of whether something is good or bad

B) values, traditions, and behaviors a company's employees share

C) principles of conduct governing an individual or group

D) standards used by the organization to decide upon proper conduct

E) highest accepted standards of behavior in a society

Q4) What is an ethics code? What methods do firms use to monitor employees and ensure their compliance with ethics codes?

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Q5) Explain the meaning of the Evil Woman Thesis and its implications for managers.

Chapter 15: Labor Relations and Collective Bargaining

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Q1) Which of the following was the primary goal of the American Federation of Labor?

A) achieving political reform

B) gaining a higher social status

C) addressing immigrant labor

D) improving work conditions

E) creating labor legislation

Q2) Which of the following best describes the AFL-CIO?

A) voluntary federation of national and international labor unions

B) local union for automobile workers in Detroit, Michigan

C) political lobbying group for public school teachers

D) federation of firms that fight unionization in their plants

E) regional branch of the National Labor Relations Board

Q3) Union membership is exclusive to blue-collar workers,such as those in the construction,manufacturing,and printing industries.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Union activism and unclear job descriptions are often underlying causes for employee grievances.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Employee Safety and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act,it is unlawful to inquire about an applicant's workers' compensation injuries and claims.

A)True

B)False

Q2) New computers emit chemical fumes,which are linked to sick building syndrome symptoms like headaches and runny noses.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What is the primary motive for homicides that occur at work?

A) disgruntled employees

B) broken relationships

C) jealousy

D) robbery

E) drugs

Q4) Claims-tracking software is available for helping employees understand what's driving their workers' compensation claims.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What steps are involved in a basic industrial hygiene program?

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Chapter 17: Managing Global Human Resources

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Q1) Most North American companies use the ________ approach to formulating expatriate pay.

A) balance sheet

B) equitable wage rate

C) performance

D) host country

E) total package

Q2) Performance-based incentives are used more often by multinational employers in Europe than in other countries.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Explain the meaning of ethnocentrism,polycentrism,and geocentrism and how those values might affect a multinational company's staffing policy.

Q4) All of the following characterize European labor relations EXCEPT ________.

A) limited number of bargaining units

B) brevity of labor-management agreements

C) informal recognition of labor unions

D) bargaining through employer associations

E) industry-wide collective bargaining

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Chapter 18: Managing Human Resources in Entrepreneurial

Firms

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Q1) The Pension Protection Act of 2006 benefits small business employers by ________.

A) allowing them to defer tax payments

B) allowing employees to contribute online

C) eliminating fees linked to retirement plans

D) exempting employers from complex pension rules

E) making contributions for employers and employees into IRA plans

Q2) Which of the following is a recommended method for establishing fairness at a family business?

A) avoiding family confrontations

B) requiring family members to telecommute

C) avoiding the hiring of family members

D) eliminating privileges for family members

E) promoting only non-family members

Q3) Small businesses typically do not provide employee training that emphasizes long-term management skills because of concerns regarding employee turnover.

A)True

B)False

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