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Management of Technology explores the strategies, tools, and processes required to effectively oversee technological resources within an organization. The course examines the integration of technology with business objectives, the evaluation and selection of emerging technologies, and the impact of technological innovation on competitive advantage. Students learn about technology lifecycle management, intellectual property, R&D management, and change management in technology-driven environments. Through case studies and practical applications, the course equips students with the analytical and leadership skills needed to guide organizations through technological transformation and foster sustainable growth.
Recommended Textbook
Project Management Achieving Competitive Advantage 5th Edition by Jeffrey K. Pinto
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14 Chapters
1457 Verified Questions
1457 Flashcards
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most recent addition to the four criteria of project success is:
A)Time.
B)Cost.
C)Performance.
D)Client acceptance.
Answer: D
Q2) One of the things that the technical side of project management emphasizes is:
A)Team building.
B)Conflict management.
C)Negotiation.
D)Budgeting.
Answer: D
Q3) The degree of risk associated with the project is typically at its highest during the: A)Conceptualization phase.
B)Planning phase.
C)Execution phase.
D)Termination phase.
Answer: A
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105 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ form of PMO has a high level of control in managing organizational projects.
A)Directive
B)Controlling
C)Supportive
D)Authoritative
Answer: A
Q2) The weather station model of the project management office (PMO)uses the PMO as only a tracking and monitoring device.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is strategic management and what role do projects play in it?
Answer: Strategic management is the science of formulating,implementing,and evaluating cross-functional decisions that enable an organization to achieve its objectives.Projects have been called "stepping stones" of corporate strategy because an organization's overall strategic vision is the driving force behind its project development.Many firms apply their vision statement or mission to evaluating new project opportunities as a first screening device.
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quality risk refers to the chance that:
A)The project relies on developing new or untested technologies.
B)The firm's reputation may suffer when the product becomes available.
C)The well-being of the users or developers may decline dramatically.
D)The firm may face a lawsuit.
Answer: B
Q2) The ________ step in the process phase for project selection involves ensuring that projects fit in the company's broader strategic goals.
A)individual project analysis
B)screening
C)prescreening
D)portfolio selection
Answer: C
Q3) The efficient frontier in a profile model is the set of options that offers a maximum return for a given level of risk or a minimum risk for every level of return.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to distinguish the two roles is to realize that leaders aim for efficiency while managers aim for effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Outgoing,people-oriented individuals have a better likelihood of performing well on project work than quieter,more introverted people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Providing the needed motivation for the project team is a nontraditional duty of a project champion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The new leader must make a conscious effort to distance himself from the people being led.
A)True B)False
Q5) Describe the four things that are necessary to promote the partnership idea between the project manager and the team.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cat-skinning project management team considers the many ways to accomplish their objective before settling on one technique as part of their:
A)Information gathering step.
B)Need statement step.
C)Project objectives step.
D)Alternative analysis step.
Q2) Scope management is the function controlling a project in terms of its goals and objectives during the execution phase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Procedures that monitor emerging project scope against the original baseline scope are called:
A)Configuration control.
B)Design control.
C)Trend monitoring.
D)Document control.
Q4) Develop a statement of work (SOW)for a spectacular project of your choosing.Include all of the key elements for a SOW as detailed in your book.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the characteristics of effective project teams?
Q2) Which of the following phenomena would be most likely to occur if the project team did NOT have clear and commonly understood project goals?
A)The motivation level of team members would increase.
B)Conflict among team members would increase.
C)The level of trust among team members would increase.
D)The interdependency among team members would increase.
Q3) Sketch the two-stage model of cross-functional cooperation and describe all of the elements.
Q4) What are the steps in assembling a project team? Which is most critical? Why?
Q5) You have assembled your project team,and as luck would have it,you added every person to your team that you wanted.Your team has a diverse set of skills,and each member has at least one skill that another doesn't have.This is why you chose each one;otherwise you couldn't hope to deliver the project.What is wrong with segmenting the team in terms of their specific duties?
Q6) Choose an example project from the current or very recent business literature.Sketch a graphical version of Gersick's model of punctuated equilibrium and label the curve and both axes.
Q7) Explain Gersick's model of punctuated equilibrium. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the PRAM methodology and what are its salient features?
Q2) PRAM (project risk analysis and management)should be conducted as a "one-shot" activity during the project planning phase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Responding to an unforeseen threat that you either did not have a planned response for or has not been dealt with effectively by implementing your planned response is best described as a(n)
A)Mitigation plan.
B)Contingency.
C)Workaround.
D)Transference.
Q4) Workarounds are a response to project risk by recognizing an unforeseen threat and creatively manufacturing a viable solution to the problem.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sketch a 2 × 2 risk management assessment matrix and discuss the impact of each quadrant.
Q6) How do mentoring and cross-training mitigate risk?
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Q1) Activity-based costing is based on the notion that projects consume activities and activities consume resources.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The 1974 model Eldorado is a three-ton behemoth with a 500-cubic-inch engine that is long on style but short on gas mileage.During its five-year development process no one could possibly have anticipated that gas prices would go through the roof in 1973,making it far more expensive to operate and subsequently less attractive to a gas-price-conscious public.Design engineers scrambled to change the car in the last few months leading up to its debut,adding a slimmed down version with a smaller engine.All of the design overtime meant that the project budget took a big hit though,thanks to:
A)The initial low estimate.
B)The unexpected technical difficulties.
C)This external factor.
D)The lack of definition.
Q3) The term expedited cost has the same meaning as crashing cost in the project management milieu.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Activity float is the difference between the late finish and early finish for the activity in question.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At a burst point in a backward pass,the largest succeeding late start becomes the late finish for that node.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which technique would accelerate the completion of a project?
A)Hammocking
B)Bursting
C)Laddering
D)Passing
Q4) What is laddering and what advantages can be gained from its use in project management?
Q5) A backward pass is performed when it is necessary to undo some work that has been performed in order to complete it properly.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brook's Law states that the typical crashing decision to add more resources to an activity only delays the activity further.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An activity on an arrow network:
A)Cannot have more arrows than nodes.
B)Cannot have more nodes than arrows.
C)Has one more node than arrows.
D)Has one more arrow than nodes.
Q3) Sketch a network and use it as an example as you discuss the four different logical relationships between activities.
Q4) Which of these approaches will NOT accelerate the completion of a project?
A)Improve the productivity of existing project resources.
B)Increase the bureaucratic oversight.
C)Improve the working method.
D)Increase the quantity of personnel and equipment.
Q5) What are the three principal methods for accelerating a project and under what circumstances might these methods yield little gain?
Q6) What are the strengths and weaknesses of AOA and AON techniques?
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Q1) Drum buffers are:
A)A safety margin separating different projects scheduled to use the same resource.
B)Extra safety that is applied to a project immediately after the use of the constrained resource.
C)A constraint separating different projects that requires a common buffer.
D)Extra safety that is applied to a project immediately before the use of the constrained resource.
Q2) Which of these numerical (quantity)comparisons is CORRECT?
A)Scrum meeting > Sprint
B)Scrum master > Development team
C)Sprint time box > Project duration
D)Daily scrum duration < Development work duration
Q3) Traditional,highly structured approaches to planning and managing projects are recognized as being less effective for ________ than Agile Project Management.
A)construction projects
B)software development
C)wedding planning
D)university baccalaureate degrees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive in-process inventory is often caused by:
A)Schedule slippage.
B)Over-ordering supplies.
C)Lack of available resources.
D)Too much labor.
Q2) The idea behind resource leveling is to avoid huge swings in utilization of labor and equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All that is needed to create a resource loading calendar is the work breakdown structure and the activity network.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are any four heuristics for prioritizing resource allocation to activities? Why would a project manager choose one above another?
Q5) In-process inventory represents the amount of work waiting to be completed but delayed due to unavailable resources.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these tools allows a project team to make future projections of project status based on its current state?
A)Tracking Gantt chart
B)Milestone chart
C)S-curve
D)Budgeting
Q2) The project implementation profile assesses the performance of the project team with respect to 10 critical success factors and can be used on an ongoing project.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The flow of the Earned Value Management system at Northrop Grumman begins with the ________ stage.
A)contract award
B)proposal
C)baseline
D)maintenance phase
Q4) What are the inputs and the steps in applying earned value management as a project management tool?
Q5) What are the problems with milestones as a project control mechanism?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sketch the Seven Elements of Project Closeout Management model and discuss what takes place at each step.
Q2) The rapid evolution of technology and the need to freeze a project's scope can combine to render a project:
A)Too costly to complete.
B)Obsolete before it can be finished.
C)A poor fit with current company strategy.
D)So complex that it will take too long to complete.
Q3) Construction of the largest egg in the world seemed like a good idea when the Pixley city council awarded Halliburton the construction contract,but as the weeks turned into months the idea had lost much of its charm.What emotional issues might the project team be facing?
A)Availability of key personnel
B)Loss of project-derived motivation
C)Disposal of unused material
D)Communicating closure
Q4) What are the six major categories of factors that may influence the decision to terminate a project early? Provide examples of each.
Q5) How do the four types of project termination differ?
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