Lifespan Human Development Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Lifespan Human Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur from conception through late adulthood. The course examines key developmental theories and research findings, considering how biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors shape human growth across age periods. Students will gain an understanding of developmental milestones, individual differences, and the impact of family, peers, culture, and environment on development throughout the lifespan. Real-life applications and case studies are integrated to illustrate the relevance of developmental concepts to personal, educational, and societal contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Lifespan Development 6th Edition by Denise Boyd
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19 Chapters
2268 Verified Questions
2268 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Concepts and Methods
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Maple Leaf Elementary School counselor, social worker, and the parents of eight-year-old Jimmy Jackson are working as a cooperative team to determine why Jimmy exhibits a pattern of highly aggressive behavior toward his peers and teachers. Jimmy's behavior has been extensively observed, he has been subjected to a battery of psychological tests, and his parents have been interviewed. This in-depth examination of Jimmy Jackson is an example of A) an ethnograph.
B) naturalistic observation.
C) a correlational study.
D) a case study.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the term for changes that result from unique, unshared events?
A) Nonnormative change
B) General normative change
C) Normative age-graded change
D) Normative history-graded change
Answer: A
Q3) One major weakness of naturalistic observation is, according to your text,
Answer: observer bias
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Chapter 2: Theories of Development
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered a strength of social-learning theory?
A) It seems to give an accurate picture of the way in which many behaviors are learned.
B) It works well when trying to modify undesirable behaviors.
C) It explains unconscious, involuntary emotional responses.
D) It defines specific stages in which most humans pass through as they grow and develop.
Answer: A
Q2) According to Freud's model of personality, which of the following best demonstrates the functioning of the id?
A) "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you"
B) Restraining your desire to have a hot fudge sundae
C) Stealing a CD because you really want it
D) Planning to seduce a sexual partner
Answer: C
Q3) In operant conditioning, ________ always strengthens behavior; ________ always weakens behavior.
Answer: reinforcement; punishment
Q4) In operant conditioning terms, all behavior boils down to reaction to what?
Answer: external reinforcers and/or punishers
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ involves the insertion of a tiny camera into the uterus.
Answer: Fetoscopy
Q2) Which of these genetic disorders usually does not express symptoms until adulthood?
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Sickle-cell disease
C) Phenylketonuria
D) Huntington's disease
Answer: D
Q3) Identify three things that a pregnant mother is likely to experience during the second trimester of her pregnancy.
Answer: The three most common are disappearance of morning sickness, weight gain, and enlargement of the abdomen.
Q4) What is a trisomy?
A) Three copies of a specific autosome
B) Fragile-X syndrome
C) A sex-linked syndrome
D) A third pair of chromosomes
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Physical, Sensory, and Perceptual Development in Infancy
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants who show increasingly ________ sleep periods during the early months are at a lower risk of dying from SIDS.
Q2) Eight-month-old Darius has just started to crawl. When placed on the depth perception apparatus, what will he likely do when he comes to the "edge" of the apparatus if his dad is calling for him to cross over?
A) He will stand up and walk across the "cliff."
B) He will ignore his dad and turn around.
C) He will continue crawling across the "cliff" and go to his father.
D) He will stop just short of the "cliff" and stay there.
Q3) Preference technique is determined by measuring how ________ a baby looks at an object.
Q4) Kaye has just mastered sitting up without support. About how old would you expect Kaye to be?
A) 7 months old
B) 3 months old
C) 4 months old
D) 5 months old
Q5) Why do newborns recognize their mother's voice before anyone else's?
Q6) Define apnea and explain its relationship to SIDS.
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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119 Verified Questions
119 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age does the language explosion occur?
A) 7 months
B) 14 months
C) 21 months
D) 24 months
Q2) Who coined the term language acquisition device? What theory did this person adhere to?
Q3) Dominic is eight months old. He sees a toy that he wants to play with, but it is out of reach. He uses the toy in his hand to drag the out-of-reach toy closer. What is Dominic demonstrating?
A) Reflexive behavior
B) Coordination of secondary schemes
C) Mental representation
D) Means-end behavior
Q4) Novelty preference and visual recognition tests are measuring ________.
Q5) The primary technique of interacting with the world in the first substage of Piaget's sensorimotor stage is ________ .
Q6) What did Hespos' research find in regards to the development of thought and language in infants?
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Chapter 6: Social and Personality Development in Infancy
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following suggests that humans need and seek to form relationships early in life as a matter of genetics?
A) Psychosexual theory
B) Psychosocial theory
C) Symbiosis theory
D) Attachment theory
Q2) What effect do verbally aggressive arguments between parents have on six-month-old infants?
Q3) What is the term associated with expressions of discomfort, such as crying, when removed from an attachment figure?
A) Stranger anxiety
B) Separation anxiety
C) Insecure attachment
D) Avoidant attachment
Q4) On average, what are the differences between children in nonparental care and their home-reared peers?
Q5) Based on the video BLANK, explain why it is important that children learn to regulate emotions.
Q6) What is Freud's view of the relationship between a mother and young infant?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of IQ testing.
Q2) Holding a pencil to write or draw requires which of the following?
A) Gross motor skills
B) Locomotion
C) Grappling skills
D) Fine motor skills
Q3) When Simon says, "My hamster runned away," he is using
A) extended word meaning.
B) overregularization.
C) overextension of class.
D) dialogic meaning.
Q4) Jona is taking a test which measures how efficiently he processes information. What type of scale is being used?
A) Processing-speed scale
B) Verbal scale
C) Working memory scale
D) Language scale
Q5) According to your text, despite strong genetic influences, an individual's IQ score can vary within its ________, depending on environmental influences.
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Chapter 8: Social and Personality Development in Early Childhood
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118 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an accurate statement about attachment relationships of children in early childhood?
A) Four- and five-year-olds who are securely attached to their parents are more likely than insecurely attached children to have positive relationships with their preschool teachers.
B) A preschooler does not yet understand that relationships continue to exist in the absence of the attachment figure.
C) The nature of the attachment relationship does not change until about puberty.
D) The child's internal model of attachment appears to generalize and become a property of all the child's social relationships at around age 18 months.
Q2) Children with parents who have high maturity demands tend to exhibit which of the following personality traits?
A) Higher self-esteem
B) More noncompliance
C) Less generosity toward peers
D) More demanding of their parents
Q3) List all four stages of Hoffman's theory of empathy development.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Micah knows the difference between cedar and juniper trees. According to Gardner, what type of intelligence is Micah displaying?
A) Naturalist
B) Spatial
C) Logical
D) Inductive
Q2) Define and differentiate between deductive and inductive logic. Give an example of each. At what age are children capable of each?
Q3) Define the concept of stereotype threats. Summarize the research findings on the effects of stereotype threats.
Q4) Which of the following best defines deductive logic?
A) Reasoning based on hypothetical premises that requires the ability to use a general principle to predict a specific outcome
B) The enhanced ability to see another's perspective or point of view
C) The ability to analyze one's memory skills and develop a strategy to remember more facts or dates
D) Understanding that both physical actions and mental operations can be reversed
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Chapter 10: Social and Personality Development in Middle Childhood
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following seems to be the most important factor in selection of friends among 6 - 12 year olds?
A) Age
B) Socio-economic similarity
C) Race
D) Gender
Q2) Which of the following is one of the factors listed in your text which can help protect a child from the effects of a stressful environment?
A) Average IQ
B) Passive parenting
C) Strong sense of ethnic identity
D) Authoritarian parenting
Q3) Which of the following is one of the authors' suggestions to encourage moral reasoning?
A) Discourage playing games and encouraging reading important literary works
B) Help and encourage them to base obedience on fear rather than development
C) Include them in charitable projects
D) Punish them immediately after they have done something wrong
Q4) Define self-esteem. Identify and describe two primary influences on self-esteem.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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120 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correlates with dropping out of high school?
A) Child's height and weight
B) Risk-taking behavior
C) Being an only child
D) Gender
Q2) According to your textbook, among teenagers, sensation seeking appears to be LEAST associated with which of the following?
A) Automobile accidents and injuries
B) Tobacco use
C) Drug use
D) Alcohol use
Q3) Approximately ____ of female 15- to 19-year-olds in 2008 reported being on the pill.
A) 10%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 70%
Q4) Why does your text say that risky behaviors are more common in adolescence than other developmental periods?
Page 13
Q5) Piaget's concept of ________ enables teens to understand metaphors and symbols.
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Chapter 12: Social and Personality Development in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Bem, someone who is low in masculinity and femininity would be considered to be ________ in their gender-role identity.
Q2) According to Erikson, what is missing from many industrialized societies that makes adolescents more vulnerable to risky behaviors?
Q3) According to your text, which of the following is NOT one of the contributors to interpersonal loyalty, intimacy, and faithfulness within friendships during adolescence?
A) Hormonal changes
B) Temperament
C) Relationships with parents
D) Differences in personality
Q4) Which of the following is considered to be the least important characteristic of teenagers' friendships?
A) shared activities.
B) sexual attractiveness.
C) loyalty and faithfulness.
D) stability.
Q5) Why does Erikson say that a child's early sense of identity comes partly "unglued" during adolescence?
14
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name three medical tests that women should have beginning at age 21. Name the ages at which they should include these in their annual physical exams.
Q2) Diana kept failing her exams even though she found that she knew all the correct answers when she went back and checked to see what she missed. Her teacher suggested that she needs to slow down and read each choice before she makes a selection. Diana started do much better on her exams. Her ability to resist writing down the first answer she thought of is what your text refers to as
A) choice-regulation.
B) response inhibition.
C) prudence.
D) wisdom.
Q3) Explain the nature of personality disorders. Name two personality disorders and describe their symptoms.
Q4) Which of the following is associated with binge drinking?
A) Fewer negative interactions with police
B) More frequent protected sex
C) Driving while intoxicated
D) Mental illness
Q5) How likely is a nontraditional college student to obtain a degree?
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Chapter 14: Social and Personality Development in Early
Adulthood
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define what is meant by the term kin-keeper.
Q2) The important event(s) during the Intimacy versus Isolation stage for young adults is/are ________.
Q3) Which of the following individuals is most likely to choose a non-gender-stereotypical job?
A) Joel, who is homosexual and whose father works as a nurse.
B) Michael, who is very masculine and secure in his sexual orientation.
C) Laura, who considers herself a tomboy and whose mother works in construction.
D) Suzanne, who is lesbian and comes from a traditional family.
Q4) List and define the three components of love according to Sternberg's theory.
Q5) Which of the following personality characteristics is identified by your text as a major contributor to dissatisfaction and instability in a marriage relationship?
A) Depression
B) External locus of control
C) A high degree of neuroticism
D) A low degree of self-confidence
Q6) Summarize Holland's typology of personality/work types. Which personality type are you and how does this type match with the college major or career you have chosen (or are considering)?
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the correlation between exercise and mortality rates in middle-adulthood?
Q2) Which of the following is likely to contribute to a male's problems with sexual functioning?
A) an increase in testosterone levels.
B) use of blood pressure medication.
C) smoking cessation.
D) a high-fiber diet.
Q3) Why do we understand relatively little about the normal, undamaged brains of middle-aged adults?
Q4) What is sildenafil?
A) A bacterial infection associated with prostate cancer
B) A medication used to treat erectile dysfunction
C) The seminal fluid that contains viable sperm
D) A natural supplement used to minimize hot flashes
Q5) There seems to be a positive correlation between ________ and good health among Latinos.
Q6) What is the most common cause of vision changes in middle adulthood? What is the name of this condition?
Page 17
Q7) HRT stands for ________.
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Chapter 16: Social and Personality Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best summarizes the stability of personality over time?
A) For most people, personality changes greatly over time, especially during mid-life.
B) Personality is stable across all people in all cultures.
C) For most people, personality traits tend to be stable over time, but within some individuals there may be relatively large changes.
D) Personality characteristics are subject to a great deal of change depending on environmental stressors.
Q2) Why might a voluntary career change create as much stress as an involuntary career change?
Q3) Which of the following is LEAST likely to prompt the mid-life crisis described by Daniel Levinson?
A) Awareness of health risks
B) Accepting one's own mortality
C) Purchasing a new home
D) Recognizing new physical limitations
Q4) Briefly explain how a person develops a sense of generativity.
Q5) In the Big Five traits, extraversion is synonymous with ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most serious consequence stemming from the loss of balance among older adults?
A) A reduction in dexterity when attempting to perform household tasks
B) An increase in depressed mood as a result of impaired mobility
C) Reduced stamina
D) An increase in falls
Q2) Which of the following activities would most likely help an older person sustain their sense of balance?
A) Playing chess
B) Taking a psychology class
C) Tai Chi
D) Playing cards
Q3) The ________ are a group of neurological disorders that includes problems with memory and thinking that affect an individual's emotional, social, and physical functioning.
Q4) Explain the Hayflick limit.
Q5) Give examples to illustrate the concepts of activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living. What do the statistics say about the realities of these abilities in older adulthood?
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Chapter 18: Social and Personality Development in Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professor Smith is 70 years old. She is considering retirement, but has decided instead to move to Hawaii and teach one on-line class per semester. This is an example of which of the following?
A) Social retirement
B) Practical retirement
C) A bridge job
D) A transitional job
Q2) Which of the following best represents the attitudes expressed by the older man being interviewed in the vide?
A) While he describes a sense of ego integrity, there is some incongruity between what he says and his affect.
B) He seems happy and satisfied with his life in general and has no regrets.
C) While he seems to be gruff and unhappy, as he describes his life he seems to be happy.
D) He believes in the importance of developing one's own philosophy of life rather than relying on religion.
Q3) How does the financial status of single older adults compare to that of their married counterparts?
Q4) What is filial piety?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Death Dying and Bereavement
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are typical aspects of preparation for death in late adulthood EXCEPT
A) taking practical steps, such as making a will or preparations for burial.
B) reminiscence.
C) making arrangements for assisted suicide or other forms of euthanasia.
D) an accentuation of personality characteristics such as conventionality, dependency, and warmth.
Q2) Following the loss of his life partner, Joel has decided to move to Florida and pursue a graduate degree. According to the dual-process model in which emotional state is Joel?
A) Confrontation
B) Absent
C) Restoration
D) Denial
Q3) Sanders' label for Bowlby's reorganization stage of grief is ________.
Q4) Summarize the history and philosophy of hospice care.
Q5) List, in order, the five stages of dying proposed by Kübler-Ross.
Q6) What sort of life experiences will increase a young child's (between the ages of 6 and 9 years) understanding of death?
Page 21
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