Lifespan Development
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Lifespan Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social changes that occur throughout the human life from conception to death. The course examines major theories and research findings that inform our understanding of developmental processes, highlighting key milestones and challenges in infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and aging. Emphasis is placed on the interplay between genetics and environment, cultural influences, and individual differences, providing a holistic view of how people grow and adapt across different stages of life.
Recommended Textbook
Lifespan Development 6th Edition by Denise Boyd
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19 Chapters
2268 Verified Questions
2268 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basic Concepts and Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Periods of development describe which aspect of developmental theories?
A) Age-related changes
B) Domain-related changes
C) Biological changes
D) Prenatal changes
Answer: A
Q2) The two primary goals of cross-cultural research are to identify universal changes that cross cultures and to
A) demonstrate cultural diversity in the social sciences.
B) nurture more culturally sensitive attitudes.
C) gain information that will help improve people's lives.
D) determine the effects that one culture has upon another.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following assertions regarding lifespan development can be attributed to both G. Stanley Hall and Charles Darwin?
A) Humans evolved from other animals.
B) Biology dictates human personality.
C) Environment dictates healthy development.
D) Norms should be identified for each developmental stage.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Theories of Development
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Q1) Which of the following is true of Vygotsky's sociocultural theory?
A) Researchers have found that children of parents who provide scaffolding early on perform better in elementary school than children whose parents did not provide scaffolding.
B) Most current research supports Vygotsky's ideas.
C) Children who work collaboratively perform worse on sophisticated tasks than children who work alone.
D) Most of the current research contradicts Vygotsky's ideas.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following best defines the term conservation according to Piaget?
A) The child learns the importance of recycling.
B) The child learns to use the minimal number of words necessary to communicate an idea.
C) The child learns the importance of treating their environment with respect by keeping it clean and uncluttered.
D) The child learns that when an object changes shape, its quantity remains the same.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is associated with the second trimester of pregnancy?
A) Formation of a mucus "plug" to seal the entrance to the uterus
B) The zygote implants on the uterine wall
C) Movements of the fetus
D) Nausea
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is true of a trait controlled by a dominant gene?
A) The trait will be expressed even if the instructions of the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair are different.
B) The trait may or may not be expressed, depending upon whether environmental conditions facilitate or prevent the expression of the trait.
C) The trait will always be a positive, beneficial trait.
D) The trait will be expressed only if the instructions of the corresponding gene in the other half of the pair are the same.
Answer: A
Q3) An STD screen for ________ is likely to be positive in a mother who prematurely gives birth to a child with a small head circumference and visual abnormalities.
Answer: syphilis
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Chapter 4: Physical, Sensory, and Perceptual Development in Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the well-known research carried out by Gibson and Walk on depth perception?
A) It provided little information regarding depth perception in children under the age of six months.
B) Children who had developed depth perception would continue to crawl beyond the boundaries of the cliff.
C) Children use aesthetic cues to determine the depth of a cliff.
D) Flinching is observed in children as young as 3 months of age.
Q2) Explain how and why the size of an infant's brain increases so rapidly after birth. How much does the brain grow from infancy to four years of age?
Q3) Infants who show increasingly ________ sleep periods during the early months are at a lower risk of dying from SIDS.
Q4) The five basic flavors that humans register are
A) bitter, sweet, salty, spicy, umami.
B) sweet, sour, bitter, umami, salty.
C) salty, sweet, spicy, piquant, bittersweet.
D) bittersweet, sour, sweet, umami, spicy.
Q5) What is meant by brain plasticity?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy
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Q1) According to B.F. Skinner, how does babbling develop into language?
Q2) When Marta is holding her infant daughter, she speaks to her using a soft sing-song type of speech. This is referred to as ________ by developmentalists.
Q3) Around what age do we typically see the emergence of holophrases?
A) Two years
B) 12 -18 months
C) 6 months
D) 18 - 20 months
Q4) Your text refers to studies involving nursing mothers who were inadvertently smothering their infants a little by holding them improperly during feeding. The babies response was usually to resist nursing. This study was used to illustrate which of the following concepts at work in infant learning?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Deferred imitation
D) Limited reinforcement
Q5) According to Werker, what purpose does IDS serve?
Q6) According to Piaget, the first phase of intelligence occurs during the first ________ months of life.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Social and Personality Development in Infancy
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Q1) What is another term for subjective self?
A) Existential self
B) Objective self
C) Metacognitive self
D) Rational self
Q2) Chad cries and his mother responds immediately. When he coos at his mother, she smiles and cuddles him. Developmentalists would say that this is an example of which of the following?
A) Maternity
B) Synchrony
C) Multiplicity
D) Duplicity
Q3) List the three types of temperament that apply to about 75% of children. Give an example for each.
Q4) Which of the following countries has the greatest percentage of securely attached children?
A) Great Britain
B) Japan
C) United States
D) Germany
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Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Jona is taking a test which measures how efficiently he processes information. What type of scale is being used?
A) Processing-speed scale
B) Verbal scale
C) Working memory scale
D) Language scale
Q2) What is the major milestone in communication that occurs during Piaget's preoperational stage?
Q3) When the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex undergo functional specialization, it is called ________.
Q4) Define the concept of reaction range.
Q5) Evan is getting ready for bed. He knows that he must brush his teeth before putting on his pajamas. What is Evan demonstrating?
A) A script
B) Procedural memory
C) Short-term memory
D) Working memory
Q6) Define the terms short-term storage space and operational efficiency.
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Q7) ________ are the actual objects and events that we use words to represent.
Chapter 8: Social and Personality Development in Early Childhood
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Q1) Describe the nature of a young child's person perception in terms of stability. Apply your explanation to an example.
Q2) Which parenting style has the most consistently positive outcomes?
A) Permissive
B) Authoritative
C) Submissive
D) Authoritarian
Q3) The preschool years, from age two to age six, include which two of Erikson's stages of development?
A) Oral; phallic
B) Autonomy versus shame and doubt; initiative versus guilt
C) Trust versus mistrust; identity development versus confusion
D) Vertical relationships; naive psychological
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a social convention?
A) Holding a door open for a stranger
B) Pulling over when an ambulance with its sirens on is behind you
C) Not returning your neighbor's chain saw after you borrowed it
D) A child not stealing the neighbor's child's bicycle
Q6) List the four parenting styles outlined in your text. Page 10
Q5) What are the four aspects of family functioning according to Diana Baumrind?
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) What does your text suggest is the most significant physical development of middle childhood?
A) Boys overtake girls in height, weight, and motor skills.
B) Children experience an increased incidence of illnesses and a decreased risk of accidents.
C) Improvement in fine motor coordination that makes it possible to write, play a musical instrument, paint, and draw
D) Development of large motor skills that make possible activities such as running, kicking with alternating feet, balancing, and throwing
Q2) The MRI scans in the video are able to detect both brain ________ and
Q3) Summarize the characteristics of ADHD.
Q4) Robert Sternberg would say that a child who knows he is expected to shake hands with adults but not necessarily his peers has what type of intelligence?
A) Componential
B) Experiential
C) Contextual
D) Perceptual
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Q5) Concrete operations permit children to understand relations among ________.
Chapter 10: Social and Personality Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) Summarize the research findings discussed in the video "Why Are Young Girls Dressing so Sexily?" Apply at least one concept that you already know from your text.
Q2) The United States government defines poverty as which of the following income levels for a family with one child?
A) $10,448
B) $14,840
C) $18,440
D) $41,840
Q3) Which researcher(s) conducted the "Bobo doll" studies to evaluate the effects of observing aggressive behavior on children?
A) Howard Gardner
B) Albert Bandura
C) Calvert and Kotler
D) Cheryl Livingstone
Q4) Assume that you are the parent of a middle-aged child. Based on the reading and research presented in the text, what kinds of rules, if any, would you set around TV watching and internet usage for your child?
Q5) What is meant by the term behavioral comparison?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Q1) What percentage of high school students in the U.S. have seriously considered suicide?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 15%
D) 25%
Q2) Dawn has just turned thirteen years old, and she recently experienced menarche. If Dawn becomes sexually active, will she be at risk for pregnancy?
A) Possibly. Although irregular menstrual cycles are the norm for some time, pregnancy is still possible.
B) Not likely, as irregular menstrual cycles signal the absence of ovulation.
C) No. The irregularity of menstrual cycles after menarche means that it would be impossible to have intercourse during an ovulatory cycle.
D) Probably not. She would be too young to get pregnant.
Q3) How does parenting interact with the timing of puberty to influence sexual behavior?
Q4) The first major brain growth spurt in adolescence occurs between the ages of
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Chapter 12: Social and Personality Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Why are rites of passage important?
Q2) Juanita is planning to go to nursing school because her parents work at the local clinic. She has never even considered other options. Juanita is in which stage of identity development, according to James Marcia?
A) Achievement
B) Foreclosure
C) Moratorium
D) Diffusion
Q3) Which theorist saw the issues of identity and role confusion as critical to adolescent development?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Erik Erikson
C) Albert Bandura
D) Jean Piaget
Q4) The last of Freud's stages of psychosexual development is the ________ stage.
Q5) Identify James Marcia's four identity statuses. Explain how crisis and commitment work together to achieve identity achievement status.
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Q6) Erikson used the term ________ to refer to the period when an adolescent is troubled by a lack of identity.
Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following lifestyle or behavioral changes is least likely to moderate the effects of primary aging on the body?
A) exercise.
B) stop smoking.
C) attend religious services.
D) get sufficient dietary fiber or supplemental calcium.
Q2) Osteoporosis, or loss of calcium in the bones, is typically first seen in women in their _______.
A) 20s
B) 30s
C) 40s
D) 50s
Q3) Neuropsychologists believe that the brain development of early adulthood leads to increased capacities for which of the following?
A) Sexual expression; procreation
B) Abstract reasoning; response inhibition
C) Intelligence; emotional expression
D) Egocentrism; perception-bound reasoning
Q4) HIV stands for ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Social and Personality Development in Early
Adulthood
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Q1) What are the characteristics of Holland's realistic personality type?
Q2) Which of the following theories ascribes to the view that sex differences in relationships are adaptations to gender roles that result from external realities such as interactions with others?
A) Evolutionary role theory
B) Homogamy theory
C) Gender selection theory
D) Social role theory
Q3) Which parts of the brain finish maturing during emerging adulthood?
Q4) Which of the following is an aspect of love, according to Sternberg?
A) Lust
B) Habituation
C) Infatuation
D) Novelty
Q5) Which of the following prompts the creation of a new life structure, according to Levinson's theory of adult development?
A) marrying.
B) buying a new house.
C) selling a new house.
D) working at a part-time job.
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Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) What are the diagnostic criteria for internet addictive disorder? In your opinion, is IAD a legitimate disorder, or do you agree with what the text says?
Q2) What do the most recent studies show regarding the negative emotions that increase the risk for CVD?
Q3) Which of the following is a dietary factor which contributes to the risk of osteoporosis?
A) Excessive calcium intake in adolescence and young adulthood
B) Excessive meat consumption
C) Excessive sugar consumption
D) Excessive caffeine consumption
Q4) What is happening to the rates of diabetes in the U.S.? How is this distributed among ethnic groups?
Q5) HRT stands for ________.
Q6) The personality characteristic which seems to be the biggest contributor to cardiovascular disease is ________.
Q7) ________ memory is recollection of specific events; ________ memory is the recollection of general knowledge and facts.
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Q8) The loss of bone mass is called ________ and begins at around age ________.
Chapter 16: Social and Personality Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Q1) Which of the following reflects the findings of Ken Dychtwald in a survey of more than 3,000 baby boomers?
A) Most plan to retire in their 40s or 50s.
B) Most are financially prepared for retirement.
C) Baby Boomers have more anxiety about retirement than previous generations.
D) Most plan to work into retirement, but to combine paid work with other pursuits.
Q2) Georgina is a middle-aged woman who volunteers as a tour guide at the local art museum and at the Museum of Asian Culture. She does this because she believes that the arts are an important part of culture and must be preserved and passed on to future generations. What term would Vaillant apply to Georgina?
A) Keeper of the meaning
B) Career committed
C) Generatively enabled
D) Caregiver of future generations
Q3) What are the three types of relationships that grandparents may have with their grandchildren, according to the research from Cherlin & Furstenberg?
Q4) What does research say about developmental data during later years?
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Chapter 17: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) What causes the loss of "computational power" and the appearance of symptoms of old age to occur?
A) It is age related - beginning when an individual is approximately 60 years old.
B) When unused or redundant neural pathways are pruned
C) Significant loss of dendritic interconnectivity
D) When neuron loss reaches the peak of 25,000 eliminated neurons daily
Q2) What is the single largest factor that determines the trajectory of an adult's physical or mental status beyond age 65?
A) Health
B) Marital status
C) Social support system
D) Socio-economic status
Q3) Which of the following has been linked to minimized atrophy of the cerebral cortex of the brain?
A) Education
B) A flexible personality
C) A social support system
D) Socio-economic status
Q4) Identify the four most common vision problems of old age.
20
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Chapter 18: Social and Personality Development in Late
Adulthood
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Q1) About 65% of the elderly in the United States live ________ of at least one of their children.
A) within 50 miles
B) within about an hour
C) within walking distance
D) within 15 minutes
Q2) When you visit a former co-worker who recently retired, you are astonished at his list of activities and projects, and he says, "Staying busy keeps me young!" Your former co-worker's philosophy is most consistent with which of the following perspectives on aging?
A) Activity theory
B) Adaptation theory
C) Ego integrity
D) Delimited senescence theory
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding elder abuse in the United States?
A) Abuse by spouses is half as likely as abuse by children.
B) Physical abuse is most least to be directed at elders who have some type of dementia.
C) Abuse of elders is a common family interaction pattern in the United States.
Page 21
D) Financial dependency of the abuser on the victim is a risk factor for abuse.
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Chapter 19: Death Dying and Bereavement
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Q1) Summarize the history and philosophy of hospice care.
Q2) According to the research conducted by Greer, which of the following groups had the longest survival rates from a terminal illness?
A) Those whose attitude was stoic acceptance
B) Those whose attitude was denial or a fighting spirit
C) Those whose attitude was quiet resignation
D) Those whose attitude was anger
Q3) The purpose of a ________ is to make one's wishes about dying known should one become unable to communicate those wishes themselves.
Q4) Which of the following is a condition that can occur if a grieving individual experiences depression-like symptoms, such as loss of appetite, for more than two months following the loss of a loved one?
A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Geriatric dysthymia
C) Pathological grief
D) Post-traumatic stress disorder
Q5) The young adult equivalent of adolescent personal fables is ________.
Q6) How does the loss of a parent affect middle-aged adults?
Q7) Sanders' label for Bowlby's reorganization stage of grief is ________.
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