Life Sciences
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Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, and evolution of living organisms. Covering areas such as biology, genetics, ecology, and physiology, this course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles that govern life at the molecular, cellular, and systemic levels. Emphasizing scientific inquiry and experimental methods, Life Sciences equips learners with the tools to analyze biological systems, understand the interrelationships among organisms, and appreciate the impact of life sciences research on healthcare, agriculture, and environmental sustainability.
Recommended Textbook LIFE 1st Edition by John H. Postlethwait
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Q1) List the units of the hierarchy of life in order from smallest to largest. Answer: biological molecules \(\rarr\) organelles \(\rarr\) cells \(\rarr\) tissues \(\rarr\) organs \(\rarr\)organ systems \(\rarr\) organism
Q2) In populations, adaptation usually arises through A)natural selection. B)heredity.
C)development. D)metabolism.
E)responsiveness.
Answer: A
Q3) Young multicelled organisms usually start out small, then grow in size and increase in complexity. This process is called A)reproduction. B)heredity.
C)development. D)evolution. E)metabolism.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells and the Chemistry of Life
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Q1) With few exceptions, organic compounds are those that contain A)nitrogen.
B)hydrogen.
C)carbon.
D)oxygen.
E)all of the above.
Answer: C
Q2) Although viruses exhibit some of the characteristics that define living organisms, they are considered nonliving. Explain why.
Answer: Viruses have a basic internal structure and order based on biological molecules. They have genetic material that can change over time, so they show evolution. Parts of the virus particle can move, showing motility. However, viruses cannot carry out their own metabolism, cannot respond to their environment, and do not exhibit true growth and development.
Q3) What differentiates various atoms?
Answer: Different atoms have differing numbers of subatomic particles. An oxygen atom, for example has 8 electrons and 8 protons, while a sodium atom has 11 electrons and 11 protons.
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4
Chapter 3: How Cells Take in and Use Energy
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Q1) What process occurs in both the aerobic and anaerobic pathways?
A)glycolysis
B)Krebs cycle
C)electron transport chain
D)fermentation
E)anaerobic processes
Answer: A
Q2) Substances that start chemical reactions are called
A)substrata.
B)starters.
C)promoters.
D)reactants.
E)products.
Answer: D
Q3) In addition to glucose, can a cell use lipids or proteins for energy?
Answer: Oxidative energy system is based on cellular respiration and includes the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. As the Krebs cycle converts pyruvate many intermediate compounds are formed. Fatty acids and amino acids can be converted to one or more of these intermediates and are then "fed" into the Krebs cycle and are metabolized.
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Chapter 4: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) How does a person with Basal Cell Nevus Syndrome differ genetically from a person who has developed basal cell carcinomas from too much exposure to sunlight?
Q2) All of the terms listed below occur during interphase except A)G<sub>1</sub> phase.
B)cytokinesis.
C)chromosome replication.
D)G<sub>2</sub> phase.
E)S phase.
Q3) Explain how sexual reproduction leads to genetic variation. What is the evolutionary significance of this variation?
Q4) Give a short, concise description of the difference between mitosis and meiosis.
Q5) If an organism's diploid chromosome number is 18, how many different possible combinations of homologous chromosomes lining up during meiosis exist for the eggs or sperm produced by that organism?
A)9
B)18
C)36
D)128
E)512
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Chapter 5: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Tall corn plants (T)are dominant to dwarf plants (tt). Solid green leaves (G)are dominant to leaves with a white tip (gg). A cross between two corn plants yielded the following phenotypes: 51 tall plants with a white tip on their leaves; 43 dwarf plants with solid leaves; 48 dwarf plants with white tips on their leaves; 45 tall plants with solid leaves. What are the genotypes of the parents that produced these plants?
A)TtGg x TtGg
B)TtGg x Ttgg
C)ttGG x TTgg
D)TtGg x ttgg
E)None of the above
Q2) Mendel determined that tall pea plants were dominant to short pea plants. Cross a homozygous short pea plant with a heterozygous tall pea plant. Which of the following is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
A)1:0
B)1:1
C)1:2:1
D)3:1
E)4:1
Q3) Compare and contrast the blending and particulate models of heredity.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: DNA: The Thread of Life
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Q1) The structure of DNA was determined primarily by A)Mendel.
B)Watson and Crick.
C)Pauling.
D)Hershey and Chase.
E)Griffith.
Q2) Describe how the discovery of the structure of DNA is an example of the fact that science is a process that always builds on previous work.
Q3) Why is it important that DNA replication be so accurate but not perfect?
Q4) The two strands of DNA in a DNA double helix
A)are identical to each other.
B)are connected to each other by covalent chemical bonds.
C)both contain nucleotides, but the order of the nucleotides on the two strands is not related.
D)are oriented in the same direction.
E)are antiparallel to each other.
Q5) What was the significance of Griffith's and Avery's "transformed" cells?
Q6) DNA evidence is sometimes used to address what legal issues? How reliable is DNA evidence in a court of law?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genes, Proteins, and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) In recombinant DNA technology, enzymes used to precisely cut DNA are called
A)DNA ligases.
B)restriction enzymes.
C)DNA polymerases.
D)RNA polymerases.
E)vectors.
Q2) What form of RNA carries instructions from the nucleus to the ribosome?
A)tRNA
B)mRNA
C)sRNA
D)rRNA
E)bRNA
Q3) We refer to the DNA code as being redundant or repetitive. This means that
A)each triplet codes for one amino acid.
B)some codons code for the same amino acid.
C)one codon codes for one amino acid.
D)each triplet codes for a different amino acid.
E)a single triplet may code for more than one amino acid.
Q4) Explain the concept "the genetic code is almost universal." Why is it important?
Q5) What is the importance of a cell being able to regulate gene expression?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Chemical compounds secreted by mammals and insects to communicate sexual readiness are called
A)pheromones.
B)developers.
C)hormones.
D)testosterones.
E)estrogens.
Q2) In most male mammals, the testes are present
A)within the abdomen.
B)close to the body to maintain body temperature.
C)from puberty on.
D)in the scrotum.
E)for part of their lives.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the blastula?
A)It is the earliest stage of embryonic development.
B)Three cell layers are evident.
C)The neural tube forms.
D)Limb buds may be seen.
E)It is haploid.
Q4) Describe the primary membranes surrounding the human fetus.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) This type of selection favors both extremes of the phenotype spectrum within a population.
A)directional
B)stabilizing
C)disruptive
D)natural
E)neutral
Q2) Darwin's ideas on evolution were based on a number of observations. Among the most important observation was that
A)all the types of organisms that have lived on Earth are present today.
B)individuals within a population are all virtually identical to each other.
C)there is usually ample food and water for all populations.
D)when natural resources become scarce, competition occurs between members of the same species.
E)populations will only produce as many offspring as can be accommodated by the environment.
Q3) Which of the three modes of selection would be most likely to result in speciation? Why?
Q4) What can we learn about evolution of the vertebrates by examination of embryos?
Q5) Define and give examples of several homologous structures.
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Chapter 10: Lifes Origins and Biodiversity
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Q1) Which of the following is not a kingdom in the Eucarya?
A)Archaea
B)Plantae
C)Fungi
D)Protista
E)Animalia
Q2) Many biologists feel that the first self-replicating organic systems were A)types of RNA.
B)forms of DNA.
C)based on proteins.
D)formed in space.
E)plants.
Q3) Biologists think that the first photosynthetic cells
A)used water as an electron donor.
B)were the first living cells to develop.
C)lived more than 2.8 billion years ago.
D)released hydrogen into the atmosphere.
E)required oxygen rather than carbon dioxide.
Q4) How do we know that the atmosphere of the earth experienced an increase in O<sub>2</sub> and became oxidizing between 2.5 and 2 billion years ago?
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Chapter 11: Single-Celled Life
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Q1) Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in that they
A)have flagella.
B)lack DNA.
C)have chloroplasts and mitochondria.
D)lack a nuclear envelope.
E)have cell walls.
Q2) Which form of bacterial cells is rod shaped?
A)spirilla
B)cocci
C)vibrios
D)bacilli
E)rhodius
Q3) Which of the following is not true of mycoplasmas?
A)They are the smallest truly living organisms.
B)They are members of the domain Bacteria.
C)They only inhabit multicelled organisms.
D)Although classified as gram-positive, they lack cell wall.
E)They can be pathogenic, causing pneumonia and urinary tract infections.
Q4) Discuss how the world might be different without bacteria.
Q5) Organisms are included in the Protists (or Protoctista)based on what features?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Fungi and Plants: Decomposers and Producers
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Q1) What reproductive advantage do flowers give a flowering plant?
Q2) Which of the following are adaptations to land of both gymnosperms and angiosperms but are lacking in ferns and mosses?
A)pollen and seeds
B)fruits and flowers
C)vascular system
D)true roots, stems, and leaves
E)spores
Q3) Compare and contrast the life cycles of mosses and ferns. Include the elements of alternation of generation they hold in common and differences in the forms of the two generations and their relative independence and dominance.
Q4) Green algae such as Ulva demonstrate an alteration of generations. The diploid phase is called the
A)gametophyte generation.
B)embryo.
C)sporophyte generation.
D)diploid generation.
E)zygote.
Q5) How can lichens serve as an early indicator of air pollution?
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Chapter 13: The Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) Which is true about the invertebrates?
A)They are all deuterostomes.
B)Among these animals, the initial indentation in the embryonic ball always becomes the anus.
C)All invertebrates share bilateral symmetry.
D)They include the simplest living animals.
E)Invertebrates only have a simple backbone.
Q2) The closest living protistan relatives to animals are A)poriferans.
B)dinoflagellates.
C)cyanobacteria.
D)archaeabacteria.
E)choanoflagellates.
Q3) Birds are able to maintain relatively constant body temperature regardless of external temperature. Therefore, birds are A)homeopathic.
B)homeothermic.
C)ecdysozoans.
D)apodans.
E)amniotes.
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Chapter 14: Ecology of Populations and Communities
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Q1) In the history of human population growth, the earliest stage is referred to as the A)agricultural phase.
B)technological phase.
C)hunting and gathering phase.
D)industrial phase.
E)prehistoric phase.
Q2) When two species have overlapping niches and one species is excluded by the other, it is an example of
A)a fundamental niche.
B)competitive inclusion.
C)a realized habitat.
D)intraspecific competition.
E)competitive exclusion.
Q3) The demographic transition is typically seen
A)when a country moves from an industrial phase into a more agricultural phase.
B)as developed countries use more resources.
C)when agriculture becomes more efficient.
D)when epidemics lead to high death rates.
E)as a country moves toward a more industrial phase.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Ecosystems and the Biosphere
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Q1) The term biome refers to
A)the animals present in a given area.
B)the interaction of living organisms and the physical environment in a region.
C)large regions with distinctive plant communities.
D)all the living organisms in an area.
E)only the bacteria in a region.
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of decomposition?
A)breaking down inorganic molecules such as carbon dioxide and water into organic molecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
B) building organic molecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins from inorganic molecules such as carbon dioxide, water, and nitrogen-containing compounds
C)building macromolecules from smaller organic molecules
D)breaking down organic molecules into inorganic molecules
E)a process undertaken by producers in an ecosystem
Q3) The state of Iowa is in the temperate grassland (prairie)while much of the neighboring state of Wisconsin is in the deciduous forest. Why are these two states in different biomes?
Q4) Why are food chains limited to a small number of links?
Q5) Compare the movement of energy and materials through an ecosystem.
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Chapter 16: Body Function, Survival, and the Steady State
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Q1) If a person drinks a large quantity of water, he would _______ production of ADH, which would ______ the permeability of the collecting duct.
A)not affect; leave unchanged
B)increase; increase C)increase; decrease D)decrease; increase E)decrease; decrease
Q2) If someone experiences damage to the hypothalamus and no longer produces ADH, what effect will this have on kidney function?
Q3) Define and put these terms in order from smallest to largest (in size): organ, tissue, cell, organ system.
Q4) Which of the following have body fluids with the same overall salt concentration as that of their environment?
A)oysters and sea stars
B)whales and sea lions
C)freshwater fish
D)freshwater amphibians
E)cats and dogs
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Chapter 17: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of the human circulatory system over the circulatory system of tarantulas?
A)The human system functions under lower pressure.
B)The human system requires less energy to operate.
C)The human system allows direct contact between tissues and blood.
D)The human system can direct the relative amount of flow of blood to different organs.
E)The human system permits more rapid exchange of gases between respiratory pigment and tissues.
Q2) If a physician hears abnormal heart sounds while examining a patient with a stethoscope, this would most likely indicate a problem with
A)the firing of the sinoatrial node.
B)the contraction of the heart muscle.
C)the function of the heart valves.
D)the electrical signal from the muscles of the ventricles.
E)the flow of blood into the atria.
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