Life Sciences
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and interactions of living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts in biology, genetics, microbiology, ecology, and physiology, emphasizing the molecular and cellular processes that underpin life. Students will gain knowledge about the diversity of life forms, their adaptation to environments, and the scientific methods used to study living systems. The course also highlights the relevance of life sciences in addressing global challenges such as health, disease, environmental sustainability, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists employ __________________ reasoning when performing the scientific process.
A) inductive
B) deductive
C) reductive
D) adductive
Answer: A
Q2) Choose the property that is NOT common to all living things.
A) Thought
B) Homeostasis
C) Complexity
D) Metabolism
Answer: A
Q3) Explain the relationship between ozone depletion and rising incidence of skin cancer. Answer: The layer of ozone surrounding the earth shields us from the sun's harmful ultraviolet rays.The UV rays are mutagenic,triggering changes in the DNA of our skin cells,giving rise to cancer.With less ozone,more UV rays hit the earth.If we continue to sunbathe and expose our skin,cancer rates will continue climbing.
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What property of water is NOT attributable to hydrogen bonding between water molecules?
A) Heat storage
B) Ice formation
C) Polarity
D) Cohesion
Answer: C
Q2) Cells contain chemical substances called ____________ that minimize changes in concentrations of H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup>.
Answer: buffers
Q3) Atoms that have the same number of protons but differ in their number of neutrons are _________________.
Answer: isotopes
Q4) What is acid rain and how does it affect forests and lakes?
Answer: Will vary,but should include the emissions of coal-burning power plants and the effect of sulfuric acid on the pH of rain and snow.Also,answers should include acid rain's effect on biodiversity,forests,and lakes.
Q5) Atomic mass refers to the numbers of ___________ and __________ of an atom.
Answer: protons,neutrons
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals store energy in a polymer composed of many glucose molecules called:
A) starch
B) glycogen
C) cellulose
D) chitin
Answer: B
Q2) All enzymes are:
A) carbohydrates
B) nucleic acid
C) lipids
D) proteins
Answer: D
Q3) Describe five functions of proteins.
Answer: Proteins catalyze chemical reactions,transport other substances,act as chemical messengers,form structures such as nails and hair,aid in defense against invaders,and allow muscles to contract.
Q4) Nucleic acids are long polymers of repeating subunits called __________.
Answer: nucleotides
Q5) Many mammals supply energy to their young in the form of __________.
Answer: lactose
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following kingdoms are prokaryotes?
A) Fungi
B) Archaea
C) Plantae
D) Animalia
E) Protista
Q2) Choose the membrane molecule responsible for aiding passage of polar molecules into and out of the cell.
A) Phospholipids
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Transmembrane proteins
D) Carbohydrate chains
Q3) Cilia and flagella differ from each other primarily in:
A) function
B) length
C) internal structure
D) internal chemistry
Q4) Describe the path a protein destined for secretion takes from synthesis to when it leaves the cell.
Q5) A semi-fluid matrix called ____________ fills the inside of a cell.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors do NOT influence the action of enzymes?
A) Temperature of the cytoplasm
B) The amount of reactant in the cell
C) pH of the cytoplasm
D) Relative humidity
E) Presence of a repressor
Q2) A competitive inhibitor interferes with:
A) the active site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
B) the repressor site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
C) the allosteric site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
D) the oxidized site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
E) the reduced site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind
Q3) ATP is composed of a sugar,the organic base adenine,and:
A) three phosphate groups
B) two phosphate groups
C) three nitrate groups
D) phenylalanine
Q4) Do all cells contain the same enzymes? Support your answer.
Q5) Explain the components of an ATP molecule.
Q6) A measure of the degree of disorder in a system is called __________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thylakoids are stacked on top of one another into little piles called
Q2) Within chloroplasts,the fluid-like matrix in which the Calvin cycle occurs is called:
A) thylakoids
B) grana
C) stroma
D) mesophyll
Q3) Most of the atmospheric oxygen occurs as a result of photosynthesis.From which of the following molecules is the oxygen derived?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Water
C) Glucose
D) Chlorophyll
E) NADH
Q4) What are the three stages of photosynthesis? Which stages require light and which do not?
Q5) Molecules capable of absorbing lots of light are _______________.
Q6) Explain the role that water plays in the light-dependent reactions.
Q7) How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration intimately related?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ATP is made during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle,it is by:
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) substrate-level phosphorylation
C) photophosphorylation
D) chemiosmosis
E) ATPase
Q2) During fermentation in yeast,acetaldehyde accepts a hydrogen atom from NADH and is converted to _______________.
Q3) When substrate level phosphorylation occurs it means that:
A) NAD is converted into NADH
B) ATP is converted into ADP plus a phosphate group
C) ADP is converted into ATP by addition of a phosphate group
D) AMP is converted into NAD by adding a phosphate group
E) NADH is converted into NAD + H
Q4) During fermentation,_______ is recycled by transferring its electrons to a molecule other than oxygen.
Q5) Explain which process evolved first-glycolysis or the Krebs cycle.
Q6) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.
Q7) When a high-energy phosphate group is transferred from a substrate to ADP it is called ____________.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The G<sub>1</sub>,S,and G<sub>2</sub> phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as:
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) mitosis
D) meiosis
E) metaphase
Q2) All of the following are correct about cancer except:
A) malignant tumors are invasive
B) malignant tumors are not encapsulated
C) cancer cells can sometimes spread into the bloodstream
D) benign cells are those that have metastasized
E) cancers are the direct result of mutations in growth-regulating genes
Q3) During which stage of the cell cycle does the synthesis of microtubules occur?
A) S phase
B) G<sub>2</sub>
C) G<sub>1</sub>
D) Telophase
E) Prophase
Q4) Explain how the new molecular therapies might stop the growth of cancer.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) In most respects,the second meiotic division is identical to a normal _________ division.
Q2) During metaphase I of meiosis,homologous chromosomes can orient themselves such that one or the other will by chance go to a particular daughter cell in a process known as ________________________________.
Q3) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.
Q4) Some organisms are able to reproduce both sexually and asexually.
A)True
B)False
Q5) After meiosis I,_______ cells are formed and after meiosis II,_____ cells result.
A) 2,3
B) 4,4
C) 2,4
D) 4,8
E) 2,8
Q6) What is the evolutionary significance of crossing over?
Q7) What is Muller's Ratchet theory?
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) Humans who have lost one copy of a chromosome are called ____________ and generally do not survive development.
A) monosomics
B) trisomics
C) eusomics
D) diploids
Q2) Gregor Mendel's work was different from that of other researchers working on inheritance in his day because he alone:
A) was a religious man
B) worked with pea plants
C) knew how to grow plants
D) actually counted the numbers and types of offspring
Q3) Whose work with fruit flies presented the first clear evidence that the genes determining Mendelian traits reside on chromosomes?
A) Karl Correns
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) Walter Sutton
Q4) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scientist's work first suggested that DNA had the shape of a helix?
A) Rosalind Franklin
B) James Watson
C) Martha Chase
D) Francis Crick
E) Rachel Carson
Q2) A base substitution will lead to a frame-shift mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA
Q4) In DNA,the amount of adenine always equals the amount of thymine,and the amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which scientists are credited for deducing the true structure of DNA?
A) Rosalind Franklin
B) Martha Chase and Frederick Griffith
C) James Watson and Francis Crick
D) Rachel Carson and Oswald Avery
Page 13
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) In eukaryotes,transcription takes place in the _________ and translation takes place in the ________.
A) cytoplasm,nucleus
B) nucleus,cytoplasm
C) cytoplasm,cytoplasm
D) nucleoid,cytoplasm
E) nucleus,nucleus
Q2) The use of DNA information to direct the production of particular proteins is called:
A) transcription
B) translation
C) gene expression
D) replication
E) polymerization
Q3) The bases of RNA are the same as those of DNA with the exception that RNA contains:
A) cysteine instead of cytosine
B) uracil instead of thymine
C) cytosine instead of guanine
D) uracil instead of adenine
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Q1) When genes are inserted into lung cells of cystic fibrosis patients,this kind of treatment is referred to as _______________.
Q2) The percentage of the human genome made up of structural DNA is _________.
Q3) Tandem clusters allow:
A) production of a huge amount of product in a very short time period
B) production of several transposable elements necessary for rRNA acquisition
C) production of multigene families in a small time frame,especially during early development
D) production of segmental duplications that are impossible with single-copy genes
Q4) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?
Q5) Which is incorrect about restriction enzymes?
A) They are key tools that make genetic engineering possible.
B) They are found in bacteria and eukaryotes.
C) They were discovered by Werner Arber and Hamilton Smith in 1960s.
D) A specific enzyme will always cut at the same sequence.
E) Bacteria may possess them naturally to rid themselves of viral DNA.
Q6) Heat is used in DNA sequencing to _________ the double strands of the molecule.
Q7) Explain how genomic imprinting works.
Q8) What is the correct order of events for sequencing DNA?
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over time,the same bones in different vertebrates were put to different uses.This falls under the category of:
A) heterologous structures
B) vestigial organs
C) analogous structures
D) homologous structures
Q2) Choose the phrase that best represents macroevolutionary change.
A) Darker skin after hours spent in a tanning booth
B) Changes in allele frequency in a population
C) New forms of animals replacing older ones
D) Major episodes of extinction
Q3) When only a very few individuals give rise to a new population in a new area of favorable habitat,they might differ in appearance from the other,larger population from which they separated.This effect is called the:
A) mutation effect
B) founder effect
C) inbreeding effect
D) outbreeding effect
Q4) A human example of stabilizing selection is _____________________.
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many different species of organisms do scientists believe exist on earth today?
A) 10,000
B) 1.5 million
C) 10 million
D) 1 billion
Q2) Molds and yeasts belong to which kingdom?
A) Fungi
B) Protista
C) Animalia
D) Archaea
E) Bacteria
Q3) To what class does the Eastern Gray Squirrel belong?
A) Chondrichthyes
B) Amphibia
C) Aves
D) Mammalia
Q4) A cladogram must contain an ____________ to serve as a baseline of comparison for the other groups.
Q5) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lysogenic conversion is responsible for all the following diseases except:
A) scarlet fever
B) plague
C) botulism
D) cholera
E) diphtheria
Q2) All viruses have an envelope around their capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When bacterial cell walls are covered with an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharide,they are:
A) gram-negative
B) gram-positive
C) encapsulated
D) polyencapsulated
Q4) The ________________ model proposes that when life originated,key chemical processes generating the building blocks of life were contained in a spherical structure.
Q5) Prokaryotes reproduce using a method called _________________.
Q6) Are viruses living or nonliving? Explain.
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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is believed to be ancestral to the plants?
A) Green algae
B) Brown algae
C) Red algae
D) Diatoms
Q2) Plants arose from green algae.Why are green algae and plants not classified under the same kingdom?
Q3) _____________ is a common name for green photosynthetic protists.
Q4) Protists move by:
A) cilia
B) flagella
C) pseudopods
D) gliding mechanisms
E) all of these.
Q5) These creatures are nonmotile,spore-forming,unicellular parasites of animals.
A) Amoeba
B) Sporozoans
C) Ciliates
D) Water molds
Q6) When conditions are inhospitable,some protists respond by forming ________.
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) The yeasts mostly belong to which group?
A) Ascomycetes
B) Basidiomycetes
C) Zygomycetes
D) Imperfect fungi
Q2) There are ____________ different described species of fungi.
A) 550
B) 4 million
C) 74,000
D) 2,000
Q3) The process by which a single cell differentiates into a specialized multicellular organism is:
A) development
B) heredity
C) multicellularity
D) coordination
Q4) The slender filaments that make up the body of a fungus are called ____________.
Q5) The symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi is called
Q6) There are _______________ species found in the basidiomycetes.
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular systematics based on ribosomal RNA sequences favors the _____ hypothesis for the origin of metazoans.
A) multinucleate
B) colonial flagellate
C) polyphyletic origin
D) parazoan
Q2) Chelicerates include the extinct trilobites,and modern-day horseshoe crab and:
A) lobsters
B) spiders and mites
C) nematodes
D) insects
Q3) Members of which group are NOT deuterostomes?
A) Chordates
B) Vertebrates
C) Echinoderms
D) Arthropods
Q4) The three distinct cell layers that form in an embryo are the ectoderm,_____________________ and ___________________.
Q5) An example of an echinoderm is a ______________________.
Q6) Evolution of a body cavity is important for several reasons.List three.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mammals that have live births but continue to incubate newborns in a pouch are:
A) monotremes
B) marsupials
C) primates
D) rodents
Q2) Whales and dolphins have a few hairs on their snouts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these is not a characteristic of fishes?
A) Gills
B) Nutritional deficiencies
C) Pulmonary veins
D) Single-loop blood circulation
Q4) Amphibians gave rise to the successful land dwellers,the _____________,about
300 million years ago.
Q5) The first mammals very likely arose from ________________.
A) amphibians
B) dinosaurs
C) thecodonts
D) therapsids
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Sample Questions
Q1) The very first primates were:
A) prosimians
B) monkeys
C) gibbons
D) apes
Q2) Of these fossil species,which one is thought most likely the ancestor of later species of Homo?
A) Homo habilis
B) Homo rudolfensis
C) Homo ergaster
D) Homo sapiens
Q3) Molecular evidence from ___________ indicates that Homo sapiens were present the longest in Africa.
Q4) Prosimians look like gorillas.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All New World monkeys are arboreal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The evolution of __________________ marks the beginning of the hominids.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Which body system transports extracellular fluid and fats to the circulatory system?
A) Lymphatic
B) Endocrine
C) Skeletal
D) Integumentary
E) Digestive
Q2) Sweat glands are part of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An advantage that deuterostomes have over protostomes is that each embryonic cell retains the capacity to develop into a complete individual.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An __________________ is a group of organs that work together in the body to perform a particular function.
Q5) Another name for red blood cells is ___________________.
Q6) Explain how calcium is needed for muscle contraction.
Q7) The type of cleavage seen in deuterostomes is called _____________ cleavage.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) What is the function of the lymphatic system?
A) To return protein to the circulation
B) To transport fats absorbed from the intestine
C) To aid in the body's defenses
D) To carry bacteria and dead blood cells to the lymph nodes and spleen
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) ________________ is caused by an interference with the blood supply to the brain.
A) Angina pectoris
B) A stroke
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q3) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
Q4) Blood plasma contains all of the following EXCEPT:
A) proteins
B) salts and ions
C) metabolites and wastes
D) hemoglobin
Q5) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
Q6) Once inside the lymphatic system,tissue fluid is called ______________.
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to the same sites on the hemoglobin molecule at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
A) The diaphragm
B) The pleural membrane
C) The trachea
D) The bronchus
Q3) Blood flow and blood pressure are regulated by the amount of _____ released into the bloodstream.
A) nitric oxide
B) carbon dioxide
C) oxygen
D) carbonic anhydrase
E) hemoglobin
Q4) The __________,which acts as a brake on cell division,was discovered in studying the eye cancer retinoblastoma.
Q5) Each lung is covered by a thin,smooth membrane called a ___________ membrane.
Q6) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Put the terms in the correct order for the path food takes in a ruminant.
A) rumen reticulum omasum abomasum
B) omasum reticulum abomasum rumen
C) reticulum abomasum rumen omasum
D) abomasum rumen omasum reticulum
Q2) Essential organic substances that are used in only tiny amounts by the body are called:
A) trace elements
B) hormones
C) vitamins
D) minerals
Q3) Humans excrete their excess nitrogenous wastes as:
A) uric acid crystals
B) compounds containing protein
C) very toxic ammonia
D) relatively nontoxic urea
Q4) Food moves through the digestive system with the aid of ______________,special muscular contractions of the food tube.
Q5) What is the purpose of the bicarbonate solution released by the pancreas into the small intestine?
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) All vertebrates other than mammals are ectothermic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a homeostatic system,the integrating system executes changes to compensate for deviances from the set point.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the waste product of fish?
A) Urea
B) Ammonia
C) Uric acid
D) Urine
Q4) The kidneys of the _____ are so efficient it never has to drink water.
A) frog
B) turtle
C) kangaroo rat
D) kangaroo
E) camel
Q5) ________________ is the final product to be expelled from the body after the kidney has reabsorbed needed nutrients and water.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) What immune response is present in vertebrates but absent in invertebrates?
A) Complement
B) Antibody-based humoral defense
C) Lymphocytes
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.
Q3) Which is incorrect about HIV/AIDS?
A) The fatality rate of AIDS is 100%.
B) The disease is highly contagious.
C) Symptoms of AIDS usually show up years after infection.
D) Death by cancer is likely.
E) The virus is spread through the transfer of internal body fluids.
Q4) Antigen-presenting cells are usually:
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) macrophages
D) neutrophils
E) natural killer cells
Q5) Modern pregnancy tests use ___________ antibodies produced against a pregnancy hormone as the antigen.
29
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q2) Describe the condition of a neuron when it is not transmitting a nervous impulse,that is,when it is at rest.
Q3) The interaction of excitatory and inhibitory effects at the cell body of a neuron is known as:
A) autonomic control
B) integration
C) sensory control
D) interpretation
Q4) The ____________ nervous system cannot be controlled by conscious thought.
A) motor
B) voluntary
C) autonomic
D) central
Q5) One hypothesis as to the cause of Alzheimer Disease maintains that an abnormal form of an internal protein forms _______________ which interfere with the normal function of the neuron.
Q6) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Q1) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
Q2) Otoliths are involved in:
A) hearing
B) balance
C) smell
D) taste
E) vision
Q3) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.
A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye
B) optic nerve
C) fovea
D) parallax
Q4) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the
Q5) All sensory receptors are able to initiate nerve impulses by opening or closing:
A) voltage-gated channels
B) exteroreceptors
C) interoreceptors
D) stimulus-gated channels
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) _______________ hormone is significant in the female menstrual cycle,causing ovaries to become ready for ovulation.
A) Follicle-stimulating
B) Adrenocorticotropic
C) Prolactin
D) Growth
Q2) Which of the following hormones is a steroid hormone?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Insulin
E) Follicle-stimulating hormone
Q3) ________________ hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary and stimulates growth of muscle and bone throughout the body.
A) Follicle-stimulating
B) Adrenocorticotropic
C) Prolactin
D) Growth
Q4) ____________________ are peptide hormones derived from tyrosine and tryptophan.
Page 32
Q5) _______________ hormone is produced by the four little parathyroid glands.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) During the stage called neurulation,a flexible rod,called a _______________,forms along the midline of the dorsal surface of the embryo.
A) dorsal nerve cord
B) neural groove
C) somite
D) notochord
Q2) Prior to ejaculation,mature sperm are stored where?
A) In the testes
B) In the epididymis
C) In the vas deferens
D) In the urethra
Q3) Which hormone,secreted by the embryo,is tested for in all pregnancy tests?
A) Luteinizing hormone
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogen
E) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q4) In the ________________ growth pattern,different parts of the body grow or cease growing at different times.
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) A seed has three parts: an embryo,a source of food for the developing embryo called __________,and a protective cover.
A) antheridium
B) endosperm
C) rhizoid
D) ovule
E) cone
Q2) Which of the following typically pollinates red flowers?
A) Bees
B) Moths
C) Butterflies
D) Water
E) Hummingbirds
Q3) The symbiotic relationship with fungi called mycorrhizae:
A) allow plants to take up minerals such as phosphorus
B) cause disease in the infected plant
C) only benefit the fungus
D) existed only millions of years ago
Q4) The _________ are the most abundant type of seedless vascular plant.
Q5) How do the seeds of angiosperms differ from those of gymnosperms?
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Leaf blades grow larger as a result of cell division in the:
A) apical meristems
B) marginal meristems
C) lateral meristems
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) The two principal types of conducting cells in the xylem are _________ and ________.
A) tracheids;vessel elements
B) sieve tubes;companion cells
C) sieve cells;sieve tube members
D) guard cells;tracheids
E) protoderm cells;pericycle cells
Q3) __________________ cells lack cytoplasm at maturity,are tough and thick-walled,and serve to strengthen tissues.
A) Parenchyma
B) Collenchyma
C) Sclerenchyma
D) Meristem
Q4) The ___________ is a type of vascular tissue that conducts water.
Q5) ____________ tissue is the outer protective covering of the plant.
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Within the embryo sac of the angiosperm,______ nuclei are arranged in precise positions.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Q2) When applied to underripe fruit,the hormone _____________ hastens ripening.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) ethylene
D) abscisic acid
Q3) Once a pollen grain reaches the stigma of a flower,it begins to grow a _____________ that pierces the style.
Q4) When plants reproduce asexually,the offspring are called:
A) embryos
B) seeds
C) clones
D) carpels
Q5) The response of plants to touch is called _______________________.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) All of the following are characteristics of an r-selected population except:
A) short life span
B) no parental care
C) extensive homeostatic capacity
D) early age of reproduction
E) many offspring produced
Q2) After much study,ecologists have come to the conclusion that competitive exclusion:
A) occurs rather frequently in nature
B) occurs more frequently on islands than on the mainland
C) occurs more frequently in tropical habitats than temperate ones
D) occurs very rarely in nature
Q3) Succession that occurs on abandoned agricultural fields is best described as:
A) primary succession
B) secondary succession
C) biome succession
D) prairie succession
Q4) The number of different kinds of species inhabiting an ecosystem is called
Q5) ______________ occurs when one organism physically resembles another.
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) When you eat a hamburger,you are the:
A) decomposer
B) producer
C) primary consumer
D) secondary consumer
E) tertiary consumer
Q2) The British Isles experience warmer weather than other areas of the same latitude because of:
A) the vast forests that shelter the islands from winds
B) the warm,moist Gulf Stream
C) mountain ranges protecting the islands
D) industry causing a localized greenhouse effect
Q3) If forests are cut down,semiarid deserts could result.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Microscopic organisms floating on the surface of the ocean make up the ___________________.
Q5) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four links?
Q6) ____________ is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the eastern Pacific.
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) Elevated levels of testosterone in male birds cause them to sing during the breeding season.The elevated hormone is considered a(n)______ cause of this behavior.
A) proximate
B) ultimate
C) behavioral
D) environmental
Q2) Habituation and sensitization are simple forms of learning in which there is NOT an association between:
A) the stimulus and the response
B) the fixed action pattern and the sign stimulus
C) imprinting and classical conditioning
D) operant conditioning and cognitive behavior
Q3) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Q4) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
Q5) Selection that favors altruism directed towards relatives is referred to as
Q6) Behavior can be defined as the way an animal responds to a ________ in its environment.
Q7) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) Which factor is contributing to the worldwide decline in amphibians?
A) Habitat deterioration
B) Fatal infections
C) Introduction of exotic species
D) Chemical pollutants that are toxic
E) All of these are contributing factors.
Q2) The greenhouse effect will probably have both positive and negative effects on agriculture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pH of rain and snow in the eastern United States is now:
A) 10
B) 7
C) 2
D) 4.2
Q4) Widespread effects on the worldwide ecosystem are called __________________.
Q5) Water deep within underground aquifers is called ______________.
Q6) When populations become very small,their genetic diversity is increased.
A)True
B)False
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