Life Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts in biology, biotechnology, genetics, ecology, and environmental science, emphasizing the molecular and cellular mechanisms that sustain life. Students will investigate the intricate relationships between various forms of life and their environments, as well as the latest advances in biomedical research and biotechnology. The course also fosters skills in scientific inquiry, laboratory techniques, and ethical considerations relevant to modern issues in health, agriculture, and conservation.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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55 Chapters
2000 Verified Questions
2000 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agrobacterium is a type of bacteria that infects plants and causes them to form tumors.You are asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to the bacteria to become infected.Which of the following experiments will provide the best data for that question?
A)determining the survival rate of Agrobacterium to different concentrations of an antibiotic
B)determining the number of tumors formed on a plant depending on the concentration of Agrobacterium applied
C)determining the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments
D)determining the number of tumors formed on a plant depending on how long it is exposed to Agrobacterium
Answer: D
Q2) What is the difference between experimental replicates and experimental controls?
A)Replicates are "repeat" samples under a given condition.
B)Replicates decrease sample size.
C)All replicates in an experiment are found under the control conditions.
D)All replicates differ from other replicates by a single factor.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You need to write down information about a molecule that gives the most accurate picture of the relative sizes of the atoms involved and their relationship in space.Which representation would work best?
A)molecular formula
B)structural formula
C)ball-and-stick model
D)space-filling model
Answer: D
Q2) Why would the spontaneous formation of formaldehyde and hydrogen cyanide not take place on Earth today as much as on the prebiotic Earth?
A)Microorganisms break these down immediately.
B)The Sun has changed its output.
C)Atmospheric conditions on Earth,such as the presence of oxygen,have changed. Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lock-and-key analogy for enzymes applies to the _____.
A)specificity of enzyme primary,secondary,and tertiary structure
B)specificity of enzyme tertiary subunits joining to form a quaternary structure
C)specificity of enzymes binding to their substrate
D)specificity of enzymes interacting with water
E)specificity of enzymes interacting with ions
Answer: C
Q2) What aspects of amino acid structure vary among different amino acids?
A)the long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule
B)the presence of a central C atom
C)the components of the R-group
D)the glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the amino acid
Answer: C
Q3) If you were reading off the sequence of amino acids in Figure 3.1 to a biologist friend,what should the first three letters be?
A)M-N-G
B)A-P-A
C)It doesn't matter,since the protein has no polarity or directionality.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Sample Questions
Q1) When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid _____.
A)a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second
B)a hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second
C)covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
D)hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides
Q2) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote?
A)peptide
B)glycosidic
C)phosphodiester
D)ionic
Q3) You isolate what you think is DNA from a tissue sample.Which of the following will verify that you do,indeed,have DNA (rather than some other type of molecule)?
A)You determine the molecule has carbon-carbon bonds.
B)You determine the molecule has primary and secondary structure.
C)You determine the molecule contains nitrogen and phosphorus.
D)None of answers A-C will verify that the isolated molecule is DNA.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) You isolate an organic molecule that contains C,H,O,N,and S.This molecule _____.
A)is definitely a sugar
B)could be a glycoprotein
C)is definitely a nucleic acid
D)is definitely a protein that is not glycosylated
Q2) Bacteria,insects,and plants use carbohydrates to build structures.Which of the following is true of structural carbohydrates?
A)Different types of pentose monomers form the basis of all carbohydrate-based structures.
B)Structural carbohydrates show a high degree of branching.
C)All structural carbohydrates are made from the same monomer,a-glucose.
D)Structural carbohydrates are long strands of monomers;the strands are chemically linked together to form a network.
E)None of A,B,C,or D is true.
Q3) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A)the number of carbons
B)the position of the hydroxyl groups
C)the position of the carbonyl group
D)one is a ring form,the other is a linear chain
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteorhodopsin consists of a single polypeptide chain.What is the highest level of structure found in this protein?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q2) Valine,a nonpolar amino acid,shows up in the wrong place in the hemoglobin of sickle-cell anemia,causing the disease.This is due to a genetic mutation.The result of this mutation is that hemoglobin molecules-which transport oxygen in red blood cells-stick together,causing the red blood cells to become distorted,but without having any significant effect on oxygen binding.Based on what you know about protein structure and the polarity of amino acids,predict where the mutated valine would most likely be found.
A)on the surface of hemoglobin
B)in the deep interior of hemoglobin
C)in the oxygen binding site of hemoglobin
D)along a nonpolar region of a -pleated sheet
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motor proteins require energy in the form of ATP.ATP hydrolysis results in a conformational change that allows the protein to move along microtubular tracks (pathways).What structural component of the motor protein contains the ATP binding site and,therefore,changes shape to enable movement?
A)the portion of the molecule that binds to the vesicle being transported
B)the stalk
C)the portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the vesicle is being transported
D)a location midway between the vesicle binding site and the portion of the molecule that binds to microtubular tracks
Q2) Which of the following statements would be true about lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors?
A)They receive "modified" enzymes,so are unable to break down carbohydrates.
B)They do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus.
C)They have unstable membranes.
D)They stick to transport vesicles and impede the transfer of enzymes.
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9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following proteins may be found in the extracellular matrix of animal cells except _____.
A)collagen
B)fibronectin
C)actin
D)fibrillin
Q2) Blood sugar is regulated by two pancreatic hormones,insulin and glucagon.When blood sugar rises,insulin is released;it binds to receptors and,through signal transduction,results in an increase in glucose uptake by cells,which effectively lowers blood glucose levels.When blood sugar decreases,glucagon is released,binds to cell receptors,and causes glucose to be released into circulation,thereby increasing blood glucose levels.Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that results from excessively high levels of blood glucose.Type II diabetics have normal to elevated levels of insulin.What,then,might be causing their elevated blood glucose levels?
A)inadequate insulin production
B)defective receptors
C)defective second messenger
D)overproduction of glucagon
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were to add one of the eight Krebs cycle intermediates to the culture medium of yeast growing in the laboratory,what do you think would happen to their rates of ATP and carbon dioxide production?
A)There would be no change in ATP production,but we would observe an increased rate of carbon dioxide production.
B)The rates of ATP production and carbon dioxide production would both increase.
C)The rate of ATP production would decrease,but the rate of carbon dioxide production would increase.
D)Rates of ATP and carbon dioxide production would probably both decrease.
Q2) Why are fermentation reactions important for cells?
A)They produce alcohol which enhances the permeability of their mitochondrial membranes to proton translocation.
B)They regenerate NAD so that glycolysis can continue to operate.
C)They allow the cell to conserve oxygen for the Krebs cycle.
D)They generate oxygen.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Purple photosynthetic bacteria do not contain chloroplasts.They have an antenna system that includes two light-harvesting protein complexes,both of which are integral membrane proteins.The bacteriochlorophyll a molecules contain Mg² and absorb light at 800 nm.Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis in purple bacteria and plant chloroplasts is true?
A)Because purple bacteria do not have chloroplasts,there is no electron transport associated with photosynthesis.
B)Bacteriochlorophyll a is a molecule containing Mg² ,whereas chlorophyll a from chloroplasts contains Fe² .
C)Bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs light most efficiently in the ultraviolet range,at a significantly shorter wavelength than that for chlorophyll a of chloroplasts.
D)Plant chlorophyll a absorbs in the visible light range,whereas purple photosynthetic bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs light at a longer wavelength.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) In eukaryotic cells,chromosomes are composed of _____.
A)DNA and RNA
B)DNA only
C)DNA and proteins
D)DNA and phospholipids
Q2) Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrows involved in animal cell cytokinesis?
A)actin
B)dynein
C)tubulin
D)myosin
Q3) The first gap in the cell cycle (G )corresponds to _____.
A)normal growth and cell function
B)the phase in which DNA is being replicated
C)the beginning of mitosis
D)the phase between DNA replication and the M phase
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of reproduction is associated with using the most necessary resources (e.g. ,the most nutrients or most energy)?
A)binary fission
B)asexual reproduction
C)budding
D)sexual reproduction
Q2) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems for asexual reproduction.Sexual reproduction is not as common but when it does happen the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes.How many chromosomes are in the cells of the underground stems?
A)9
B)10
C)19
D)38
Q3) Adaptation to a changing environment occurs most efficiently through which of the following processes?
A)mutation
B)asexual reproduction and genetic recombination
C)sexual reproduction
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants,all the offspring were yellow seeded.When he took these F yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants,what genotypic ratio is expected?
A)1:2:1
B)3:1
C)9:3:3:1
D)1:1
E)1:1:1:1
Q2) A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to _____.
A)all of his daughters
B)half of his daughters
C)all of his sons
D)half of his sons
E)all of his children
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a healthy cell,the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of DNA mutation.When the rate of repair lags behind the rate of mutation,what is a possible fate of the cell?
A)The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.
B)RNA may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material.
C)It will become embryonic.
D)DNA synthesis will continue in an attempt to repair itself.
Q2) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)is an inherited disorder.The genetic defect identified is an error in the mismatch repair mechanism.Which of the following would be an expected result of this mutation?
A)increased rate of errors by wild-type DNA polymerase
B)increased rate of formation of pyrimidine dimers
C)increased rate of repair of pyrimidine dimers
D)decreased ability to repair certain DNA mutations
Q3) Semiconservative replication involves a template.What is the template?
A)single-stranded binding proteins
B)DNA polymerase contains the template needed.
C)one strand of the DNA molecule
D)an RNA molecule
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16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following observations may have resulted in the hypothesis that a codon is made up of three bases?
A)A codon of 2 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 16 different amino acids.
B)A codon of 3 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 12 different amino acids.
C)A codon of 4 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 24 different amino acids.
D)A codon of 3 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 64 different amino acids.
Q2) The original DNA has the base sequence AGCGTTACCGT;a mutation in the DNA strand results in the base sequence AGGCGTTACCGT.What does this tell you about the mutation?
A)It was a missense mutation.
B)It may result in a single amino acid change in the protein being coded for by this base sequence.
C)It was a silent mutation.
D)It is a frameshift mutation.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following,if missing,would prevent transcription from starting?
A)exon
B)5' cap
C)AUG codon
D)poly A tail
Q2) A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is _____ the functional mRNA,while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is _____ the functional mRNA. A)the same size as;the same size as B)larger than;the same size as C)larger than;smaller than D)the same size as;larger than
Q3) Refer to Figure 16.3.What is the function of the AGU on the loop of the tRNA?
A)It attaches to the amino acid.
B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The product of the lacI gene is _____.
A)an enzyme
B)a transport protein embedded within the membrane
C) -galactosidase
D)the repressor
Q2) The trp repressor blocks transcription of the trp operon when the repressor _____.
A)binds to inducer
B)is not bound to inducer
C)binds to tryptophan
D)is not bound to tryptophan
E)is not bound to the operator
Q3) Suppose several genes are grouped together in a genome and the group results in a single enzyme.If one of these genes is mutated and the enzyme is no longer produced,this gene must be part of _____.
A)an intron
B)an operon
C)a repressor
D)an activator
E)an inducer
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the experiment shown in the figure above,Tonegawa and his colleagues were able to express -globin in an antibody-producing cell that normally does not express -globin.They achieved this result by splicing an enhancer from an antibody-producing gene into the protein-coding portion of the -globin gene.They then introduced this recombinant gene into cultured antibody-producing cells.Why was the choice of antibody-producing cells rather than,say,muscle or skin cells critical for the success of this experiment?
A)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct regulatory transcription factors to bind to the enhancer.
B)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of enhancers.
C)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of promoter-proximal elements.
D)Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of enhancers,promoter-proximal elements,and promoters.
E)Only the antibody-producing cells are capable of expressing recombinant genes.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a single PCR cycle consisting of 15 seconds at 94°C,30 seconds at 50°C,and 1 min at 72°C,what is happening in the step run at 50°C?
A)The DNA to be amplified is being denatured.
B)Primers are being denatured.
C)DNA polymerase is extending new DNA from the primers.
D)Primers are annealing to the DNA to be amplified.
E)DNA polymerase is being inactivated.
Q2) Which of the following sequences is most likely to be cut by a restriction enzyme?
A)AATCGT TTACGA
B)AATTCT TTAAGA
C)AATATT TTATAA
D)AAAATT TTTTAA
E)ACTACT TGATGA
Q3) Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of
A)plasmid replication
B)bacterial cell replication
C)transformation
D)plasmid and bacterial cell replication
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine that you've sequenced the genome of a human pathogenic bacterium.In the early stages of analysis,you discover a stretch of DNA that has a significantly different GC content (the proportion of bases that are G and A)convergent evolution
B)both sequences are introns
C)a high rate of mutation
D)a low rate of mutation
E)lateral gene transfer
Q2) Which of the following makes it difficult to identify eukaryotic genes?
A)the proteins are larger in eukaryotes than prokaryotes
B)the coding portions of genes are longer in eukaryotes than prokaryotes
C)the lack of analogy between eukaryotic genes
D)the presence of many introns
Q3) In establishing paternity by DNA fingerprinting,what proportion of microsatellite repeat alleles in a child come from the father?
A)only ones on the X chromosome
B)1/4
C)1/2
D)3/4
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene expression in developing organisms is regulated on several different levels.In many developing animals,regulation of gene expression is influenced by the action of Hox genes.Which of the following regulatory elements is produced by many Hox genes?
A)transcriptional factors
B)cell-surface molecules for cell-cell interactions
C)signals from maternal cytoplasm,such as bicoid
D)mRNA processing factors
Q2) Cloning of plants from cuttings demonstrates that _____.
A)an individual plant cell cannot de-differentiate and then redifferentiate
B)differentiated plant cells may contain embryonic mRNAs
C)plants can reverse the differentiation process
D)mature plant cells retain genetic information
Q3) Which observation below provides evidence that differentiated cells retain all the genes of developing cells?
A)Developing cells have many mRNA transcripts that can hybridize with DNA from mature cells.
B)Differentiated cells generally synthesize a specific group of proteins.
C)Nuclei from mature cells can direct the development of an entire individual.
D)Not all mature cells are capable of differentiation.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many animal embryos,the eye develops very early.The Pax6 protein is important to eye development;its absence can prevent the formation of eyes in mice and humans.Thus,Pax6 probably acts as a(n)_____.
A)structural protein retinal and/or lens cells
B)intercellular signal transmitted between retinal and lens cells
C)transcriptional factor that regulates genes involving retinal and/or lens cells
D)extracellular matrix protein secreted by the retinal and/or lens cells
Q2) Spina bifida is one of the most prevalent of human birth defects.The defect usually involves the spinal cord or the spinal canal opening to the outside of the body.In severe cases,movement of the legs may be limited or entirely absent.At which stage of development is this defect likely to occur?
A)formation of the neural tube
B)formation of the gastrula
C)formation of the notochord
D)formation of the somites
E)formation of the lateral mesoderm
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ABC genes in Arabidopsis are considered homeotic genes.What could be a reason for this classification?
A)Each of the three genes codes for a different flower organ.
B)Each gene codes for regulatory transcription factors.
C)Each gene is similar in sequence to homeotic genes in Drosophila.
D)Each gene codes for proteins similar to Hox genes in mice.
E)Each gene directs different kinds of morphogenesis.
Q2) Organs in developing flowers include all of the following except _____.
A)whorls
B)sepals
C)petals
D)carpels
E)stamens
Q3) Auxin has an effect on plant embryos much like the Bicoid protein in Drosophila.If auxin were added to a culture of embryonic root cells,what would be the likely result?
A)Root cells would elongate and mature.
B)Root cells would change into meristem cells.
C)Root cells would halt their development.
D)Root cells would not respond to auxin.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasitic species tend to have simple morphologies.Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
A)Parasites are lower organisms,and this is why they have simple morphologies.
B)Parasites do not live long enough to inherit acquired characteristics.
C)Simple morphologies have been naturally selected for in most parasites.
D)Parasites have not yet had time to progress,because they are young evolutionarily.
Q2) Which of the following statements is an example of typological thinking?
A)The variety of dog shape and size is truly amazing.
B)Women are shorter than men,have longer hair and like to shop.
C)It is best to choose the seeds from the plants with the largest fruits to set aside for next year's plantings.
D)The type of beak that is most advantageous varies depending on how much rain falls in a given year.
Q3) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time:
artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,antibiotic resistance.
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Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on dark-eyed junco birds.Which of the following could explain why males display more often?
A)Many male juncos die without fathering any offspring.
B)Females have to expend energy competing for mates.
C)Males are more aggressive than females.
D)energy cost asymmetry in male and female parental investment
Q3) Refer to Figure 25.4.Male reproductive success,measured as the number of offspring surviving to adulthood (pupating),is found for two closely related beetle species and graphed above.Which of these statements would you expect to be true of sexual dimorphism in the two species?
A)Species A should have greater sexual dimorphism than species B.
B)Species B should have greater sexual dimorphism than species A.
C)Species A and B should have about equal amounts of sexual dimorphism.
D)Neither species should show any sexual dimorphism.
Q4) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What keeps the two populations separate?
A)temporal reproductive isolation
B)lack of hybrid viability
C)They are already separate species.
D)spatial reproductive isolation
E)behavioral reproductive isolation
Q2) Refer to Figure 26.1.Which of the following forms a monophyletic group?
A)A,B,C,D
B)C and D
C)D,E,and F
D)E,F,and G
E)all of the above
Q3) How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?
A)sympatrically,by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior
B)sympatrically,due to extensive inbreeding
C)allopatrically,due to extensive inbreeding
D)allopatrically,after the ancestral species has split into two populations
E)phylogenetically,due to heterozygote advantage in hybrids
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of homoplasy?
A)fur in bears and seals
B)cell walls in plants and fungi
C)chlorophyll in flowering plants and algae
D)scales in snakes and lizards
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about a phylogeny,as represented by a phylogenetic tree?
A)Descendant groups (branches)from the same node do not necessarily share any derived characters.
B)A monophyletic group can be properly based on convergent features in addition to synapomorphies.
C)The ancestral group often has all the synapomorphies of the descendant species.
D)All of the above answers is correct.
E)None of the above answers is correct.
Q3) Which of the following could be seen in the Mesozoic,but not the Paleozoic?
A)gymnosperms
B)a diversity of mushrooms
C)lots of flowering plants
D)high levels of photosynthesis
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following extremophiles might researchers most likely use as a model for the earliest organisms on Earth?
A)a bacterium capable of living at extremely high salinity
B)a bacterium found on another planet or moon
C)an archaean capable of surviving in the polar ice caps
D)an anaerobic archaean species
E)a bacterium that thrives in a highly acidic environment
Q2) What do Bacteria have in common with Archaea but not with Eukarya?
A)unicellular structure
B)peptidoglycan cell walls
C)transcription mechanism begins with formylmethionine
D)absence of nucleus
E)DNA associated with histone proteins
Q3) What is the right progression of steps for a direct-sequencing experiment?
A)Lyse cells,purify DNA,amplify genes by PCR,and insert genes into plasmid.
B)Lyse cells,insert genes into plasmid,purify DNA,and amplify genes by PCR.
C)Lyse cells,insert genes into plasmid,amplify genes by PCR,and purify DNA.
D)Purify DNA,amplify genes by PCR,lyse cells,and insert genes into plasmid.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists?
A)contain a nucleus
B)smaller than animal cells
C)unicellular
D)have a cell wall
E)photosynthetic
Q2) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al.and Figure 29.3.The data graphed in Figure 29.3 could be an artifact if latrunculin A kills this species of diatoms (i.e. ,that may be why the cells are not moving).Which of the following would be the best evidence that latrunculin
A is not killing the cells?
A)When the toxin was washed off the culture,the cells began to move again.
B)There were still a small percentage of motile cells in the culture treated with the toxin.
C)Most of the cells in the control were moving,indicating that they were alive.
D)When the toxin was applied to another species of diatom,25% of them continued to move.
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31
Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,liverworts have a cuticle and pores.However,some species do not have pores.What would you predict concerning the cuticle of these species and why?
A)The cuticle would be the same as in those species with pores.
B)The cuticle would be thicker than in those species with pores.
C)The cuticle would be thinner than in those species with pores.
D)There is not enough information to make a prediction.
Q2) Most moss gametophytes do not have a cuticle and are one to two cells thick.What does this imply about moss gametophytes and their structure?
A)They use stomata for gas exchange regulation.
B)They can easily lose water to,and absorb water from,the atmosphere.
C)Photosynthesis occurs throughout the entire gametophyte surface.
D)They have branching veins in their leaves.
Q3) Which group of seedless vascular plants was the first to develop roots?
A)club mosses
B)horsetails
C)ferns
D)whisk ferns
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host.What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?
A)parasitic
B)mutualistic
C)commensal
D)predatory
Q2) Many amphibian populations have been decimated by a parasitic fungi belonging to which lineage?
A)Chytridiomycota
B)Ascomycota
C)Basidiomycota
D)Zygomycota
E)Glomeromycota
Q3) Based on the graphs in Figure 31.4,which of the following plant species is most likely not to form mycorrhizal associations?
A)Carex flacca (graph a)
B)Lotus corniculatus (graph b)
C)Sanguisorba officinalis (graph c)
D)Centaurium erythrea (graph d)
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) From the information provided in the figure above,how would you classify the feeding strategy of organism C?
A)suspension feeding
B)predation
C)parasitism
D)suspension feeding and predation
E)predation and parasitism
Q2) All of the following are true about choanoflagellates except _____.
A)they are suspension feeders
B)they are sessile as adults
C)they live in aquatic habitats
D)they are animals
E)they reproduce asexually
Q3) What do biologists cite as the primary benefit of the evolution of a coelom in animals?
A)the hydrostatic skeleton,allowing greater range of motion
B)a more efficient digestive system,in the form of a tube-within-a-tube
C)cephalization and the formation of a cerebral ganglion
D)the subsequent evolution of segmentation
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) What would be the most direct effect of removing or damaging an insect's antennae?
A)It would have trouble hearing.
B)It would have trouble mating.
C)It would have trouble eating.
D)It would have trouble seeing.
E)It would have trouble smelling.
Q2) The presence of a lophophore in a newly discovered species would suggest which of the following?
A)This species has an exoskeleton.
B)This species grows by shedding its external covering.
C)This species is more closely related to an arthropod than a mollusk.
D)This species is motile.
E)This species is a suspension feeder.
Q3) The major evolutionary split of protostome animals was based on _____.
A)nature of the body cavity
B)presence or degree of segmentation
C)number of germ layers present in embryonic development
D)method of feeding
E)way that the organism grows
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following is consistent with the out-of-Africa hypothesis?
A)Modern Homo sapiens can trace their origin back to Neanderthals.
B)Modern Homo sapiens can trace their origin back to Homo erectus.
C)Interbreeding between early hominin species in Europe and Asia lead to the distinctive features of modern Homo sapiens.
D)Homo sapiens have a common ancestor with Neanderthal and Homo erectus from Africa but did not interbreed with them.
E)Modern Homo sapiens and Neanderthals have no common ancestor more recent than the first mammals.
Q2) _____ led to mammals and birds having similar insulating skin coverings such as fur,hair,and feathers.
A)Shared ancestry
B)Convergent evolution
C)Homology
D)Synapomorphy
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) It is believed that HIV has passed from chimps to humans more than once.This is very telling since it suggests that animal-to-human viral transmissions may be more common than previously thought.What is the best evidence in support of the conclusion that HIV made the chimp-to-human leap more than once?
A)HIV has multiple strains,and the virus does not appear to be able to leap from humans back to chimps.
B)HIV has appeared on multiple continents.
C)Human-to-human transmission of HIV requires direct personal contact that simply could not have resulted in the widespread outbreak we see today.
D)Several species are known to have similar viruses resulting in immunodeficiency diseases.
Q2) To make a vaccine against mumps,measles,or rabies,which type of viruses would be useful?
A)dsDNA viruses
B)negative-sense ssRNA viruses
C)retroviruses
D)positive-sense ssRNA viruses
E)dsRNA viruses
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem.This means that _____.
A)monocots are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars
B)monocots have very thin stems
C)monocots do not produce wood in annual rings
D)all of the above answers apply
Q2) Which of the following cannot grow indeterminately?
A)shoots
B)adventitious roots
C)stems
D)leaves
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of these is not an example of a parenchyma cell?
A)stem cells that form a callus in the making of cuttings
B)cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants
C)support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems
D)edible cells in fruits and vegetables
E)tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) In the pressure-flow mechanism,loading of sucrose from companion cells to sieve-tube elements takes place through _____.
A)plasmodesmata
B)facilitated diffusion
C)sucrose-H symporters
D)sucrose-H antiporters
E)carriers
Q2) Irrigation reduces soil quality and rains usually don't.Why?
A)Rains deliver less water to soil than irrigation does.
B)Water used for irrigation contains fertilizer and pesticides that affect soil quality.
C)Rainwater contains less inorganic material.
D)The fast water flow during irrigation removes organic material from soil.
E)The fast water flow during rains is able to remove toxic materials from topsoil.
Q3) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?
A)Flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.
B)Flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.
C)Flaccid cell has higher solute potential.
D)Flaccid cell has lower solute potential.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells?
A)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient,but ion channels cannot.
B)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the concentration gradient,but ion channels cannot.
C)Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the proton gradient,but ion channels cannot.
D)Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels.
Q2) What is phytoremediation?
A)use of plants to remove heavy metals from soils
B)use of plants to remove excess CO from the atmosphere and reduce global warming
C)use of plants to conserve soil nutrients
D)use of plants to prevent soil loss due to water and wind
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
Q4) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lettuce seeds need full sunlight to germinate;therefore,germination is inhibited when their phytochrome molecules are in the Pf conformation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells.Suppose you took a cutting from a plant and treated it with an antisense gene that would block the transcription of an enzyme involved in auxin production.What would happen to your cutting?
A)Photosynthesis would decrease.
B)It would grow to be very tall and thin.
C)Adventitious root growth would be greatly reduced.
D)It would not be able to initiate a hypersensitive response.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which of the following cannot be sensed by plants?
A)gravity
B)pathogens
C)wind
D)light
E)none of the above
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is not true about the carpel of a flower?
A)The stigma receives the pollen.
B)The style provides the pathway for the growth of the pollen tube.
C)Meiosis of the megaspore forms the eight nuclei of the embryo sac.
D)The ovary encloses one or more ovules,which contain the embryo sac.
Q2) While looking at a flower in your garden,you notice that it has carpels with very long styles and stamens with very short filaments.This plant most likely to reproduce by
A)cross-pollination
B)selfing
C)asexual reproduction
Q3) It is estimated that animal- or insect-pollinated plants produce 1000 pollen grains for each ovule;wind-pollinated plants produce 1,000,000 pollen grains for each ovule.What does that indicate about pollination systems?
A)Wind-pollinated plants rarely produce seeds.
B)Wind pollination is more efficient than animal-assisted pollination.
C)Wind pollination is less efficient than animal-assisted pollination.
D)Wind pollination is costlier to the plant than animal-assisted pollination.
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structural features of epithelial tissues are related to the function of these cells?
A)They have polarity.
B)They have a long life span.
C)low rates of mitosis and cytokinesis
D)The cells are loosely packed.
Q2) A behavioral physiologist is studying the homeostatic control of blood pH.In a trial a lizard runs on a treadmill for a set amount of time and the blood pH is measured.The blood pH drops as carbon dioxide is released into the bloodstream.Which component of the homeostatic feedback system is responsible for deciding if the blood pH is far enough from normal that a response is necessary?
A)effector
B)sensor
C)integrator
D)assimilator
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 42.1:
Because the shark rectal gland functions only when ATP molecules are present,what can you infer about the movement of Na ,K ,and Cl ?
A)Movement of these ions from circulation into the rectal gland is an active process.
B)Movement of these ions takes place from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
C)These ions move into the rectal gland with their osmotic gradient.
D)The rectal gland is unable to concentrate these ions.
Q2) Sharks live in seawater.Their tissues are isotonic to seawater,but their concentrations of sodium ions,potassium ions,and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes.How is that possible?
A)Urea and trimethylamine oxide contribute to intra- and extracellular osmolarity in shark tissues.
B)Metabolic intermediates of sharks tie up intracellular chloride and potassium ions.
C)Their blood is hypotonic to their tissues.
D)They excrete large quantities of electrolytes.
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the symptoms of cystic fibrosis is the increased production of mucus.Which of the following cell types is likely to show an increase in numbers in a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A)chief cells
B)epithelial cells
C)parietal cells
D)goblet cells
Q2) The chemical digestion of proteins begins where?
A)in the mouth
B)in the stomach
C)in the small intestine
D)in the bloodstream
Q3) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
Q4) A major enzyme involved in protein digestion is _____.
A)pancreatic lipase
B)amylase
C)pepsin
D)lingual lipase
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) An animal has a cardiac output of 40 mL/min and a stroke volume of 5 mL.What is its heart rate?
A)8 beats/minute
B)200 beats/minute
C)12.5 beats/minute
D)Heart rate cannot be determined with only these two variables.
Q2) Which of the following conditions would be the most likely result of an abnormally high blood pressure in an animal like a reptile possessing a closed circulatory system?
A)hemorrhage in the capillary beds
B)hemorrhage in the aorta
C)reversal of normal blood flow direction in the veins
D)all of the above
Q3) How has the avian lung adapted to the metabolic demands of flight?
A)Airflow through the avian lung is bidirectional.
B)There is more dead space within the avian lung so that oxygen can be stored for future use.
C)Countercurrent circulation is present in the avian lung.
D)Gas exchange occurs during both inhalation and exhalation.
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46
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most synapses found so far in the mammalian central nervous system (CNS)are classified as chemical rather than electrical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The depolarization phase of an action potential requires _____.
A)opening of K channels in the membrane
B)opening of Na channels in the membrane
C)opening of Ca² channels in the membrane
D)a K concentration gradient across the membrane
E)a Ca² concentration gradient across the membrane
Q3) If the activity of the sodium-potassium pump were changed by palytoxin (a toxin derived from coral)what would happen to the neuron's membrane potential?
A)immediate loss of resting potential
B)immediate loss of action potentials
C)slow decrease of resting potential
D)no effect
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Bat echolocation (sonar)is most closely related to which human sensory system?
A)hearing
B)smell
C)taste
D)touch
E)vision
Q2) When an action potential from a motor neuron arrives at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ),a series of events occurs that leads to muscle contraction.Which of the following events will occur last (i.e. ,after all of the others)?
A)ACh release
B)action potential propagation down the T-tubules
C)conformational change in troponin
D)depolarization of the muscle cell
E)release of Ca² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q3) What causes rigor mortis?
A)exhaustion of Ca² from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)lack of ATP in dead tissue
C)lack of acetylcholine (ACh)in dead tissue
D)cessation of action potentials after death
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) When partially digested food enters the small intestine from the stomach,several events must occur to protect the intestine and allow for the continued digestion of the food.One hormone in particular performs two of these functions.What intestinal hormone is responsible for causing the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gallbladder to release bile salts into the intestine?
A)secretin
B)cholecystokinin
C)insulin
D)epinephrine
E)corticosterone
Q2) Which of the following hormone does not act via a second messenger system?
A)insulin
B)norepinephrine
C)growth hormone
D)estrogen
E)ACTH
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents?
A)genetic recombination during meiosis
B)genetic recombination during mitosis
C)crossing over during mitosis
D)Sexual reproduction does not produce genetically different offspring.
Q2) A physician finds that a 9-year-old male patient is entering precocial puberty.What is a potential cause for such a condition?
A)a tumor in the hypothalamus producing elevated levels of testosterone
B)a tumor in the anterior pituitary producing elevated levels of testosterone
C)a tumor in the testes producing elevated levels of estrogen
D)a tumor in the anterior pituitary producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E)a tumor in the hypothalamus producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
Q3) What are the primary functions of gonadal steroids in humans?
A)Gonadal steroids are important in the production of glucocorticoids.
B)Gonadal steroids are important in the maturation of the reproductive tract.
C)Gonadal steroids are important in the production of pheromones.
D)Gonadal steroids are important in the onset of puberty.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of proteins shares the most overall similarity in structure?
A)B-cell receptors and T-cell receptors
B)B-cell receptors and antibodies
C)T-cell receptors and antibodies
D)antibodies and antigens
Q2) You cut your finger,and after putting pressure on the wound for several minutes,you notice that it is still bleeding profusely.What may be the problem?
A)Platelets are not functioning properly,or there are too few to be effective.
B)Mast cells are not releasing their chemical messengers.
C)There are too many antigens to allow clotting.
D)Hemoglobin levels are too high to allow clotting.
Q3) Which of the following components of the immune system destroys bacteria in a way similar to an antitank weapon destroying armored military tanks by punching holes in the wall of the bacteria?
A)complement protein
B)macrophages
C)plasma cells
D)major histocompatibility complex proteins
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Based on Figure 50.4,and knowing what you know about cattle,what is the most logical conclusion?
A)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by temperature.
B)Tsetse flies somehow negatively affect cattle.
C)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by grass distribution.
D)Cattle somehow affect the reproduction of the tsetse fly.
Q2) In which terrestrial area is global warming most likely to allow coniferous trees to encroach?
A)tropical wet forests
B)arctic tundra
C)temperate forests
D)boreal forests
Q3) A fish species known for its success in the aphotic zone would likely not have which of the following characteristics?
A)symbioses with photosynthetic organisms
B)highly developed chemoreception
C)adaptations for burrowing
D)adaptations for sit-and-wait predation
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) How would you classify the genetic basis for most behavioral traits in the animal kingdom?
A)One gene typically codes for one behavior.
B)One gene typically codes for many behaviors.
C)Many genes typically code for one behavior.
D)Behaviors are learned,not coded by genes.
Q2) What is the primary mode of communication used by humpback whales?
A)the visual mode,because males display to females visually during complex courtship interactions
B)the auditory mode,because long-distance communication is important,and sound travels much further than light in aquatic environments
C)the olfactory mode,because in an aquatic medium chemicals diffuse rapidly and are easy to localize
D)the tactile mode,because males must touch the female with their flippers during courtship
Q3) In Figure 51.2,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) Figure 52.9 shows the age structure of Common Primrose populations as they change over time.One of the populations is growing under high light conditions and the other under low light.Based on the graphs in Figure 52.9,which graph,(a)or (b),represents a population growing in high light availability?
A)(a)
B)(b)
C)cannot tell with this information
Q2) In Figure 52.1,which of the following survivorship curves applies to most plant species?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)none of the above
Q3) A model that estimates the likelihood that a population will avoid extinction for a given period of time is called a(n)_____.
A)metapopulation
B)population viability analysis
C)age pyramid
D)life table
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) Looking at the results in Figure 53.8,which hypothesis (by Clements or Gleason)is supported by the data?
A)Clements
B)Gleason
C)both
D)neither
Q2) What does the graph in Figure 53.7 tell you about the definition of a keystone species?
A)A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment.
B)Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity.
C)Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more robust.
D)A keystone species added to the community can make it more robust.
E)Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the invasion of a new species.
Q3) In Figure 53.9,which community has the highest species diversity?
A)Community 1
B)Community 2
C)Community 1 and community 3 have the highest species diversity.
D)Community 4
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which of the following human activities is impacting the water cycle the least?
A)increase in asphalt and concrete surfaces
B)conversion of grasslands and forests into agricultural fields
C)increased processing of salt water to freshwater
D)increases in irrigated agriculture
Q2) Regarding soil and organic matter in humus,which of the following statements is true?
A)Humus is composed of inorganic nutrients,and organic matter is composed only of organic matter.
B)Soil organic matter is completely decayed.
C)Completely decayed soil organic matter is called humus.
D)Eventually,the nutrients in soil organic matter are converted to organic form.
Q3) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue,this is _____.
A)net primary productivity
B)the amount of energy available to consumers
C)maintenance costs
D)net primary productivity and the amount of energy available to consumers
E)maintenance costs and the amount of energy available to consumers
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on how you would go about measuring biodiversity,which of the following is true?
A)Bacteria are among the easiest to count regarding numbers of different species.
B)Species in the tropics are much easier to study than species in other biomes.
C)The easiest animals to study are the insects.
D)The most intensively studied lineages are vertebrates.
Q2) In looking at Figure 55.6,what can be said about edge effects?
A)Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments.
B)Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.
C)Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.
D)Fragmentation does not affect biomass.
Q3) In a debate about the destruction of tropical wet forests,the arguments keep focusing on biodiversity and how this affects the animals themselves,as well as the ecosystem.What is one direct benefit of biodiversity to humans that you can argue to help people understand why these forests need to be preserved?
A)This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.
B)The areas could be visited by tourists for profit.
C)The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.
D)The diversity could contain a new crop plant for agriculture.
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