Life Sciences Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers foundational topics such as cell biology, genetics, physiology, ecology, and evolution, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how living systems operate at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and real-world applications in areas such as medicine, biotechnology, and environmental science. Through laboratory work and case studies, students develop practical skills and a deeper appreciation for the role of life sciences in addressing global challenges.
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Biology Now Core 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Q1) ________ your hypothesis,predictions,or test according to the results.
A)tests
B)communicate
C)accept, reject, or modify
D)observe
E)analyze
F)hypothesis
G)predictions
Answer: C
Q2) A tissue is defined as
A)a group of cells that performs a unique set of tasks in the body.
B)two or more atoms held together by strong chemical bonds.
C)the basic unit of life.
D)a network of organs which perform a wide range of functions.
Answer: A
Q3) A direct and repeatable observation of any aspect of the natural world can be considered a scientific ________.
Answer: fact
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH scale measures
A)the amount of water in a solution.
B)the likelihood that a solution will evaporate.
C)the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
D)the number of atoms found within a molecule.
Answer: C
Q2) You are given an unknown substance and asked to determine whether it is polar or nonpolar.The easiest way to do this would be to
A)determine whether the compound is held together by hydrogen bonds.
B)determine the number of electrons in the compound's outer shell.
C)mix the compound with an ionic substance to see whether its bonds can withstand the pressure.
D)determine whether the compound dissolves in water.
Answer: D
Q3) An atom that becomes charged due to the gain or loss of an electron is called a(n)________.
Answer: ion
Q4) The positively charged subatomic particle is located in the ________. Answer: nucleus
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Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the compound light microscope in the lab room,you observe a wet mount slide preparation.You observe layers of cells that have a definite,rigid,rectangular shape;there appears to be a nucleus in all of the cells and there are many oval-shaped green structures that seem to be moving around inside of the cells in an orderly fashion.What general cell type are you most likely observing?
A)prokaryotic and plant
B)prokaryotic and animal
C)eukaryotic and plant
D)eukaryotic and animal
Answer: C
Q2) Living cells have an intact phospholipid bilayer that separates the cell from its external environment;this structure is commonly referred to as the A)nucleus.
B)mitochondria.
C)endoplasmic reticulum.
D)plasma membrane.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Q1) In a human cell,
A)one enzyme usually catalyzes no more than five different chemical reactions.
B)nearly all chemical reactions are catalyzed by enzymes.
C)enzymes have to be constantly replaced as they are used up in the reactions that they catalyze.
D)some enzymes are specialized to store activation energy.
Q2) A plant cell is mutated so ATP synthase no longer functions.Which process will be affected?
A)photosynthesis only
B)respiration only
C)both photosynthesis and respiration
D)neither photosynthesis nor respiration
Q3) Humans store sugars in the form of glycogen.Glycogen is made by linking many glucose molecules together.This process is ________.
Q4) Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only if
A)they encounter a molecule of ATP.
B)their active site is sufficiently oxidized.
C)they have both products in their active site at the same time.
D)they encounter a substrate that fits their active site.
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo,you notice a cell that seems to contain two nuclei.The middle of the cell is pinched inward.This cell must be in ________ of mitosis.
A)prophase
B)telophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
Q2) G phase
A)Duplicated chromosomes are separated during this phase.
B)Cells prepare to divide and check that the proper steps have occurred for division.
C)Phase in which cells duplicate the genetic material.
D)Resting stage assumed by cells that exit the cell cycle.
E)Two new daughter cells grow in preparation for division.
Q3) A cell containing 56 chromosomes is undergoing meiosis.Explain how chromosome number changes as the cells proceed through meiosis.
Q4) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ phase of the cell cycle.
Q5) Consider mitosis,meiosis,and binary fission.Which one of these three processes is the simplest for a cell to complete? Explain.
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between pleiotropy and polygenic traits.
Q2) In which of the following situations would it become nearly impossible to predict the phenotype of an individual with a known genotype?
A)The environment affects the phenotype.
B)The genotype of the parents is unknown.
C)The genotype of offspring is unknown.
D)You should always be able to predict the phenotype if you know the genotype.
Q3) ________ dominance is expressed in a genetic cross in which the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes.
Q4) Which of the following statements is true of Mendel's laws?
A)They are less accurate than Punnett square results.
B)They are useful only in unusual situations.
C)They correctly explain how genes are inherited.
D)They correctly predict the phenotype of an organism.
Q5) The observable physical characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
Q6) The genetic makeup of an organism,such as Gg,is its ________.
Q7) A Punnett square charts the separation of alleles into ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would looking at a pedigree be most useful?
A)An adopted boy is admitted to the hospital with recurrent vomiting.
B)A young girl is born with diminished hearing and a cleft palate.
C)Six unrelated individuals with similar symptoms are admitted to the hospital in a one-week period.
D)Three young boys who are first cousins show symptoms of a neurological disorder.
Q2) What information in a pedigree would indicate a condition is likely dominant?
A)Twenty-five percent of the individuals in the pedigree have the condition.
B)Two-thirds of the affected individuals are females.
C)None of the affected individuals have unaffected parents.
D)Most of the affected individuals are males.
Q3) Which of the following genotypes represents a human male?
A)XY
B)YY
C)XX
D)XO
Q4) Except for the sex chromosomes,all the chromosomes shown in a karyotype are numbered and are called ________.
Q5) Why are dominant genetic disorders more rare than recessive disorders?
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Sample Questions
Q1) When looking at a single-stranded piece of DNA,
A)G will always be next to C.
B)G will always be next to G.
C)G will sometimes be next to T.
D)G will never be next to A.
Q2) DNA replication
A)involves the copying of only the parts of a chromosome that encode protein.
B)occurs before mitosis in the cell cycle.
C)is constantly occurring in all the cells in your body.
D)converts the double helix to two single helices.
Q3) Are mutations always harmful? Justify your answer and give an example to support your answer.
Q4) Which of the following must occur for a mismatch error to be repaired?
A)DNA repair proteins identify damaged DNA.
B)The sequence of nucleotides in the damaged DNA sequence guides the synthesis of the correct DNA sequence.
C)DNA-eating enzymes within the nucleus destroy entire strands of damaged DNA.
D)The damaged DNA undergoes DNA replication one more time.
Q5) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) During translation,
A)many mRNA molecules work with one tRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
B)one tRNA molecule works with paired mRNA molecules and many rRNA molecules to produce a protein.
C)strings of bonded tRNA molecules work with one mRNA molecule and one rRNA molecule to produce a protein.
D)one mRNA molecule works with several rRNA molecules and many tRNA molecules to produce a protein.
Q2) The expression of most genes is regulated by
A)internal signals only.
B)external signals only.
C)both internal and external signals.
D)neither internal nor external signals.
Q3) Which of the following is true of rRNA?
A)It is made up of base pairs.
B)It carries amino acids.
C)It is not translated.
D)It helps transcribe DNA.
Q4) The genetic code is ________,which means that all cells use the same code.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The freshwater lungfish Neoceratodus fosteri is found on every continent except Antarctica.
A)comparative embryology
B)fossil evidence
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative DNA
E)biogeographic evidence
Q2) Dolphins develop hind limb buds,but these structures disappear before adulthood.
A)comparative embryology
B)fossil evidence
C)comparative anatomy
D)comparative DNA
E)biogeographic evidence
Q3) Two different species may have similar features because of A)continental drift.
B)the fossil record.
C)artificial selection.
D)descent from a common ancestor.
Q4) The study of organisms prior to birth or hatching is called ________.
Q5) The human appendix is an example of a(n)________ structure.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Evaluate the accuracy of the following statement: The natural selection of a prey species can be altered if a new predator is introduced.Explain how you reached your conclusion.
Q2) Two unrelated species evolving to look more similar due to environmental pressures is called
A)gene flow.
B)genetic drift.
C)convergent evolution.
D)divergent evolution.
Q3) Evolution can be described as
A)predesigned change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time.
B)sudden shifts in the genetic characteristics of an individual in a population.
C)a change in the genetic characteristics of a population of organisms over time.
D)isolation of populations due to geologic forces.
Q4) Compare and contrast bottleneck and founder effect.
Q5) The only mechanism of evolutionary change that is not influenced by chance events is ________.
Q6) The result of convergent evolution is ________ traits.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Using reproductive isolation as a method of defining a species is NOT useful for A)species whose ranges overlap.
B)species that cannot produce hybrids.
C)organisms known only from fossils.
D)organisms that reproduce sexually.
Q2) Bacteria reproduce asexually,so scientists classify them based on
A)the morphological species concept.
B)reproductive isolation.
C)the biological species concept.
D)the idea that they are all strains of the same species.
Q3) Some freshwater snail eggs are accidentally introduced into a new habitat that is geographically isolated from the original population.Which of the following must occur before these snails are described as two separate species?
A)gene flow
B)sympatric speciation
C)adaptation
D)genetic divergence
Q4) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by the formation of new species in a process known as ________.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Q1) Although it is costly to produce fruit,the large number of fruit-producing plant species attests to its success as an evolutionary adaptation.In what way is fruit production helpful to plants?
A)Fruits attract pollinators like insects and birds to move pollen between different plants.
B)Fruit toxins can discourage potential consumers from eating the plant.
C)Plants can store energy in fruits during summer and then later recover the energy during winter,when the fruit decomposes.
D)Consumers eating fruits also eat seeds that,when not digested,can be deposited far from the parent plant and increase the range of that plant species.
Q2) Briefly explain how new scientific findings may change the arrangement of an evolutionary tree while enhancing our understanding of evolution.
Q3) Evolutionary trees are based on
A)the principle of convergent evolution.
B)a set of shared characteristics believed to have arisen in a common ancestor.
C)similarities in the function of a characteristic or trait.
D)consensus among biologists regarding the usefulness of particular traits.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Q1) Fossil evidence indicates that the first members of the genus Homo arose approximately ________ years ago.
A)2 million
B)200,000
C)500,000
D)1 million
Q2) Eggs provide
A)both nuclear and mitochondrial DNA to the offspring cell.
B)only nuclear DNA to the offspring cell.
C)only mitochondrial DNA to the offspring cell.
D)no DNA to the offspring cell.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of bipedalism in hominins?
A)The hands would be free to carry food,tools,and weapons.
B)Standing on two feet elevates the head making it easier to see over obstacles and to see farther allowing earlier detection of predators.
C)Walking on two feet requires fewer muscle groups and less energy than walking on all fours.
D)Standing on two feet makes it easier to climb trees.
Q4) Briefly explain the difference between hominids and hominins.
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Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Humans are
A)biotic factors within the biosphere.
B)biotic factors outside the biosphere.
C)abiotic factors within the biosphere.
D)abiotic factors outside the biosphere.
Q2) Which of the following activities would have the greatest effect in decreasing greenhouse gases?
A)decreasing logging
B)decreasing burning of forests
C)decreasing construction in cities
D)decreasing fossil fuel consumption
Q3) As a group,the ________ gases allow light energy to pass through the atmosphere but absorb heat energy as it passes through the atmosphere to outer space.
Q4) Global warming
A)occurs mainly at the equator.
B)occurs mainly at the north pole.
C)occurs mainly at the south pole.
D)occurs equally at both the equator and the poles.
Q5) Describe how a decrease in plant populations can affect the water cycle.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Explain whether a death rate increase from influenza is an example of a density-dependent population change or a density-independent population change.
Q2) At room temperature,a population of dangerous bacteria on a piece of raw chicken increases from 100,000 to 400,000 in 40 minutes.Its doubling time is ________ minutes.
Q3) Explain why logistic growth curves have an "S" shape.
Q4) When an isolated population reaches its carrying capacity
A)the birth rate > the death rate.
B)the birth rate = the death rate.
C)the birth rate < the death rate.
D)It is not possible to generalize these values.
Q5) Which of the following statements about carrying capacity is true?
A)An S-shaped curve represents a population's ability to increase its numbers above the carrying capacity of its habitat.
B)J-shaped curves show the immediate limiting effect of carrying capacity on a newly introduced organism.
C)The carrying capacity is the same for all organisms in the same area.
D)The carrying capacity is established by the factor with the most limited availability.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Antibiotic therapy sometimes reduces the population of gut-inhabiting microorganisms.Bloating and diarrhea often follow until the populations reestablish themselves.This observation suggests that these microorganisms participate in a(n)________ relationship with humans.
A)competitive
B)exploitative
C)mutualistic
D)pathogenic
Q2) Which of the following could represent the linear flow of energy within a food web?
A)wolves,lions,and cheetahs
B)grass,bushes,and trees
C)lettuce,rabbits,and foxes
D)sheep,cows,and horses
Q3) Into which category would a human be assigned when eating pepperoni pizza?
A)producers and primary consumers
B)primary and secondary consumers
C)secondary and tertiary consumers
D)producers and primary consumers.
Q4) Compare and contrast exploitative and interference competition.
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Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) All of the living organisms present in an ecosystem comprise the ________ or biotic portion of the ecosystem.
A)community
B)abiotic
C)population
D)biome
Q2) The primary contribution of decomposers to an ecosystem occurs when they
A)capture solar energy.
B)recycle nutrients sequestered in organisms back to the physical environment.
C)regulate the number of producers.
D)prevent consumer overpopulation.
Q3) The chemical and physical components of an ecosystem are considered to be ________ or nonliving.
A)abiotic
B)biota
C)biotic
D)abalone
Q4) Producers capture energy from the ________ and transform it into fuel energy that passes up the food chain as one organism eats another.
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Chapter 19: Applying the Science
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Q1) When individuals use the scientific process to question information and make informed decisions about the world around them,they are acting in a(n)________ literate manner.
Q2) Claims that are characterized by scientific-sounding statements,beliefs,or practices but are not actually based on the scientific method are properly viewed as ________.
Q3) You are reading a paper in the journal Vaccine that analyzed and combined the results from five observational studies involving over one million children and another five studies that compared children with autism to children without autism (a total of nearly 10,000 children).The paper you are reading is best recognized as a
A)secondary literature source.
B)meta-analysis and primary literature source.
C)cohort study.
D)case-control study.
Q4) review articles found in peer-reviewed scientific journals
A)primary
B)secondary
Q5) A statement about how the world works that can be supported,or not,by using the scientific method is a(n)________ claim.
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