Life Sciences
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is a multidisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers fundamental biological concepts ranging from cell biology and genetics to ecology and physiology, emphasizing the interconnectedness of all life forms. Students will gain an understanding of how organisms interact with each other and their environments, the molecular and biochemical foundations of life, and the societal implications of advances in the life sciences, such as biotechnology and environmental conservation. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory skills, preparing students for further study and careers in biology, medicine, environmental science, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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3839 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the following is not a part of its paired term.Choose the exception.
A) atom; organism
B) community; ecosystem
C) population; cell
D) molecule; biosphere
E) species; community
Answer: C
Q2) On a very hot day in summer,you go outside and take your temperature,it is 37 degrees Celsius.On another day,this time a very cold day in winter,you go outside and take your temperature,again it is 37 degrees Celsius.This example illustrates A) adaptation.
B) cellular reproduction.
C) respiration.
D) homeostasis.
E) digestion.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of bonding allows the long,straight chains of cellulose to lock together tightly?
A) hydrogen
B) polar covalent
C) ionic
D) nonpolar covalent
E) mettalic
Answer: A
Q2) number of electrons in the first energy level
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)5
E)8
Answer: B
Q3) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct difference between rough endoplasmic reticula and smooth ER?
A) rough ER is an extension of the nuclear envelope; smooth ER is not
B) smooth ER has a double bilayer membrane; rough ER does not
C) smooth ER consists of flattened sacs and tubes; rough ER does not
D) rough ER has a surface studded with ribosomes; smooth ER does not
E) smooth ER synthesizes proteins: rough ER does not
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following lipids makes up most of a plasma membrane?
A) phospholipids
B) cholesterol
C) triglycerides
D) steroids
E) more than one of these
Answer: A
Q3) DNA
Answer: F
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Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy inputs and outputs in chemical reactions are explained by
A) the first law of thermodynamics.
B) the second law of thermodynamics.
C) the cell theory.
D) the theory of evolution.
E) the big bang theory.
Q2) Which of the following statements is CORRECT about energy?
A) Energy is the capacity to do work.
B) It can be created using nuclear reactors.
C) It can be created using a windmill.
D) It can be created using biofuels.
E) All of these are correct.
Q3) the main energy carrier between reaction sites in cells
Q4) lowers the activation energy of a reaction
Q5) The process by which a lysosome expels its contents into the extracellular environment.
Q6) process by which atoms from different molecules are recombined to form new molecules
Q7) molecule remaining at the end of a reaction
Q8) minimum amount of energy required to start a reaction
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from
A) carbon dioxide.
B) glucose.
C) water.
D) ATP.
E) NADPH.
Q2) Photosystems are mainly
A) a grouping of energy-trapping molecules.
B) enzymes for splitting water.
C) a cluster of ATP molecules.
D) a sugar assembly site.
E) assemblies of thylakoids.
Q3) Plant cells produce oxygen gas
A) by splitting carbon dioxide.
B) during respiration.
C) by splitting ribulose bisphosphates.
D) by splitting molecules of water.
E) by breaking down glucose.
Q4) glucose
Q5) Water is split in this process.
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) discovered that the amount of adenine in a DNA molecule was equal to the amount of thymine
Q2) DNA polymerase
A) is an enzyme.
B) adds new nucleotides to a strand.
C) proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct.
D) derives energy from free nucleotides for strand assembly.
E) is all of these.
Q3) What was the first animal cloned from an adult cell?
A) a sheep
B) a dog
C) a cow
D) a cat
E) a mouse
Q4) Before a cell divides it must ____ its genetic information.
A) duplicate
B) translate
C) isolate
D) protect
E) distribute
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene is a DNA sequence that codes for a protein or A) RNA.
B) DNA.
C) ribosomes.
D) a lipid.
E) more than one of these.
Q2) During elongation,ribosomes catalyze formation of ____ between the amino acid and the growing polypeptide.
A) a hydrogen bond
B) a peptide bond
C) a polar covalent bond
D) a non-polar covalent bond
E) a sulfur bond
Q3) tRNA is most like
A) a delivery truck
B) a garbage truck
C) a messenger
D) a carpenter
E) a physical therapist
Q4) sites for polypeptide assembly
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur in prophase I of meiosis?
A) cytoplasmic division
B) spindle attachment to chromosomes
C) pairing of homologous chromosomes
D) crossing over
E) condensation of chromosomes
Q2) Meiosis is the basis for
A) cellular division.
B) sexual reproduction.
C) asexual reproduction.
D) sexual and asexual reproduction.
E) distribution of cytoplasm.
Q3) If a eukaryotic cell divided by binary fission,
A) only one of its offspring would get the nucleus.
B) only one of its offspring would get a complete cytoplasm.
C) only sperm would be produced.
D) only eggs would be produced.
E) the chromosome number would be halved.
Q4) this is the last stage of interphase
Q5) when DNA is replicated
10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When two alleles of the same gene are different,the individual carrying those alleles is said to be
A) recessive.
B) heterozygous.
C) phenotypic.
D) somatic.
E) homozygous.
Q2) The process by which chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis is called A) aneuploidy.
B) trisomy.
C) monosomy.
D) nondisjunction.
E) polyploidy.
Q3) The most common type of mutation that cause cystic fibrosis is a A) deletion.
B) insertion.
C) base-pair substitution.
D) gene duplication.
E) transformation.
Q4) a range of small differences in a shared trait
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques reveals differences in the number of tandem repeats among individuals?
A) PCR
B) DNA amplification
C) DNA hybridization
D) DNA profiling
E) DNA probe analysis
Q2) Once a probe has hybridized with a gene of interest in a DNA library,how is the hybrid identified?
A) by its sticky tail
B) by its radioactive phosphate group
C) by using restriction enzymes
D) by centrifugation
E) by vector analysis
Q3) What is the most assured method of identifying an individual?
A) full genome sequencing
B) short tandem repeat analysis
C) SNP-chip analysis
D) DNA-DNA hybridization
E) PCR amplification
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms is most likely to become fossilized?
A) a lake trout
B) a mountain goat
C) a tulip
D) a mushroom
E) all of these organisms are equally likely to fossilize
Q2) The theory of continental movement is called
A) plate tectonics.
B) plate drift.
C) seismology.
D) fault line movement.
E) sea floor spreading.
Q3) Similar structures that have evolved independently in different lineages that do not share common ancestry are called
A) analogous structures.
B) homologous structures.
C) vestigial structures.
D) repeating structures.
E) heterozygous structures.
Q4) Cuvier
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of reproductive isolation mechanism is most closely related to allopatric speciation?
A) temporal
B) mechanical
C) behavioral
D) ecological
E) genetic
Q2) Genetic divergences may ultimately lead to
A) new variations.
B) new species.
C) new gene frequencies.
D) new competition.
E) new alleles.
Q3) What event will increase the frequency of a mutation in a population over time?
A) fitness
B) natural selection
C) artificial selection
D) adaptive radiation
E) none of these
Q4) quantifiable,heritable characteristics
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) These have no cell wall,shell,or constrictive pellicle to prevent a change in shape.
Q2) Which of the following obtain both energy and carbon from organic compounds?
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) photoheterotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
E) more than one of these
Q3) Where does sexual reproduction of malaria-causing Plasmodium take place?
A) in the gut of a female mosquito
B) in the liver
C) in the mosquito salivary glands
D) inside white blood cells
E) inside red blood cells
Q4) The earliest known fossil cells date to ___ years ago.
A) 3.4 hundred
B) 3.4 thousand
C) 3.4 million
D) 3.4 billion
E) 3.4 trillion
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) In flowering plants,pollen grains form in the flower's male parts called
A) stamens.
B) anthers.
C) carpels.
D) megaspores.
E) endosperms.
Q2) Which of the following structures in the life cycle of a plant are diploid?
A) spores
B) gametophytes
C) gametes
D) sporophytes
E) all of these are diploid
Q3) The United States devotes more acerage to ___ than any other plant.
A) wheat
B) corn
C) rice
D) potatoes
E) legumes
Q4) Lycopodium; cone-bearing sporophytes; free-living gametophytes
Q5) sporophyte is the dominant part of the life cycle
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many primate adaptations are a response to living in
A) warm climates.
B) trees.
C) underground burrows.
D) deserts.
E) grasslands.
Q2) This animal has a coelom,a closed circulatory system,and a clitellum.This animal is ___.
A) an earthworm
B) a leech
C) a roundworm
D) a planarian
E) more than one of these
Q3) Which of the following primates is a hominin?
A) bonobos
B) gorillas
C) humans
D) gibbons
E) more than one of these
Q4) the most apelike of the listed species
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Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a density-dependent limiting factor?
A) disease
B) parasitism
C) lack of living space
D) dramatic change in climate
E) all of these are density-dependent limiting factors
Q2) Clams,insects,many fish species fit into this model
Q3) the United States has the biggest one of these
Q4) Short life span,many offspring,minimal care of young
Q5) If reproduction occurs early in the life cycle,what occurs?
A) Population growth rate increases.
B) Population size declines.
C) Population size is not affected.
D) Generation time increases.
E) Growth rate remains unchanged.
Q6) Death rate drops fast; birth rate declines slowly
Q7) This describes a population that grows slowly at first then increases rapidly until it reaches carrying capacity.
Q9) the number of individuals a given area can sustain Page 18
Q8) the number of organisms of a particular population in a given area
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The warming action on earth's atmosphere is referred to as
A) respiration accumulation.
B) the greenhouse effect.
C) the smog problem.
D) the blanket phenomenon.
E) ozone depletion.
Q2) The nitrogen cycle on land begins with
A) nitrification.
B) denitrification.
C) decomposition.
D) uptake by producers.
E) nitrogen fixation.
Q3) Competitive exclusion is based upon the idea that
A) one species will voluntarily allow the other to survive.
B) no two species can completely occupy the same niche.
C) the larger species will dominate the smaller.
D) competition is overrated as a factor in species survival.
E) two species can live together, if they share the same niche but only at alternate times.
Q4) organism situated at the base of the energy pyramid
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main factor that drives ozone formation?
A) cloud cover
B) rainfall
C) time of day
D) sunlight
E) season
Q2) Much of the Pacific Northwest's species rich Old Growth Forests have been clear cut.The only possible way to reclaim those forests that have been clear cut is through A) biological magnification.
B) establishing the clear cut areas as hot spots.
C) ecological restoration.
D) promoting sustainability.
E) reducing our ecological footprint.
Q3) The surface ocean currents will circulate __________ in the Northern Hemisphere and __________ in the Southern Hemisphere.
Q4) when newly formed,it is deep,clear,few nutrients,and low primary productivity
Q5) primary producers are chemosynthetic bacteria and archaea
Q6) most extensive biome
Q7) youngest biome on the earth
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is released by an endocrine gland?
A) mucus
B) hormones
C) saliva
D) milk
E) tears
Q2) detects stimuli
Q3) Keeping internal conditions within tolerable limits is called
A) maintenance.
B) anatomy.
C) physiology.
D) homeostasis.
E) equilibrium.
Q4) cells contain branching fibers
Q5) a voluntary type of muscle fiber
Q6) Keeping the body's internal systems working within tolerable limits is called
Q7) primarily made up of keratinocytes
Q9) tissue that contains endocrine glands Page 22
Q8) cells contain the greatest number of mitochondria among the muscle cells
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Page 23
Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) has sheath of dense connective tissue
Q2) Bone mass typically increases until we turn
A) 10.
B) 15.
C) 25.
D) 35.
E) 45.
Q3) What type of skeleton do earthworms have?
A) exoskeleton
B) endoskeleton
C) hydrostatic skeleton
D) segmental skeleton
E) none of these
Q4) What kind of skeletons do arthropods have?
A) exoskeletons
B) endoskeletons
C) hydrostatic skeletons
D) segmental skeletons
E) none of these
Q5) protein that makes up the thick filaments of muscles
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with alveolus structure?
A) stratified squamous epithelium
B) secretory cells
C) pulmonary capillaries
D) basement membrane
E) all of these are associated with alveolus structure
Q2) Which of the following are symptoms of sudden cardiac arrest?
A) burning chest pain
B) blurred vision
C) loss of pulse
D) arrested breathing
E) all of these are symptoms of sudden cardiac arrest
Q3) A large respiratory surface
A) results in a slow rate of gas exchange.
B) results in a faster rate of gas exchange.
C) has no effect on the rate of gas exchange.
D) is important to support the respiratory needs of large animals.
E) results in a faster rate of gas exchange, and is important to support the respiratory needs of large animals.
Q4) the windpipe
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gardasil HPV vaccine consists of
A) viral capsid proteins that assemble into virus like particles (VLPs).
B) inactivated HPV.
C) synthetic HPV.
D) antibodies from infected patients.
E) none of these.
Q2) Why do immunizations require two doses?
A) The first dose stimulates the effector cells only, and the second dose stimulates the memory cells only.
B) The first dose stimulates the primary immune response, and the second dose stimulates the secondary immune response.
C) In case the first dose isn't enough to induce immunity, a second dose is given.
D) It is a way for doctors to make more money.
E) Both c and d are correct.
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many teeth does the average adult human have?
A) 24
B) 32
C) 38
D) 42
E) 20
Q2) If the first sphincter of the digestive tube does not operate properly,what condition could result?
A) stomach ulcers
B) small intestine ulcers
C) tooth decay
D) heartburn
E) constipation
Q3) Tubular secretion is essential for ___ homeostasis.
A) pH
B) water
C) solute
D) temperature
E) sugar
Q4) the process that occurs in the nephron
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are neurotransmitters stored?
A) axon terminals
B) dendrites
C) neuron cell bodies
D) axon cytoplasm
E) all of these store neurotransmitters
Q2) All of the following drugs are stimulants EXCEPT
A) nicotine.
B) cocaine.
C) caffeine.
D) ecstasy.
E) alcohol.
Q3) morhphin,codeine,and heroin mimic this neurotransmitter
Q4) Which of the following does NOT give rise to brain tumors?
A) neurons
B) neuroglia
C) epithelial cells in the meninges
D) epithelial cells in the pituitary glands
E) all of these can give rise to brain tumors
Q5) blurry vision caused by a cloudy lens
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoporosis sometimes results from
A) excessive PTH secretion.
B) insufficient PTH secretion.
C) excessive intake of vitamin D.
D) excessive intake of iodine.
E) insufficient intake of vitamin D.
Q2) The effect of insulin is to
A) cause the hydrolysis of glucagon.
B) prevent cells from taking up glucose.
C) cause the hydrolysis of glucose.
D) cause cells to take in glucose.
E) decrease cellular respiration.
Q3) A study reported that high levels of phthalates in a pregnant woman could lead to which of the following with respect to the development of their sons?
A) undescended testicles
B) smaller genitals
C) feminized genitals
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q4) Cortisol steroids are produced at letter _____.
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells are diploid?
A) sperm
B) primary spermatocytes
C) secondary spermatocytes
D) male germ cells
E) both primary spermatocytes and male germ cells
Q2) Which of the following statements about the testes is FALSE?
A) The testes produce testosterone.
B) The testes produce sperm.
C) Semen is stored in the testes.
D) An epididymis is coiled on each testis.
E) The testes are located in the scrotum.
Q3) In humans,the fluid immediately surrounding the embryo is contained in the A) allantois.
B) placenta.
C) chorion.
D) amnion.
E) yolk sac.
Q4) What letter indicates female tissue that is homologous to tissue at the head of the male penis?
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) pollen grains with three pores or furrows
Q2) Which of these is NOT associated with sclerenchyma?
A) lignin
B) photosynthesis
C) support
D) sclereids
E) fibers
Q3) Tissues on either sides of an apical meristem develop into A) flowers.
B) branches.
C) lateral meristems.
D) leaves.
E) more than one of these.
Q4) Perpetually young tissues where cells retain the ability to divide are A) vascular.
B) meristematic.
C) protective.
D) photosynthetic.
E) all of these.
Q5) a tomato is one of these
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In monocots,endosperm
A) consists mainly of glucose and water.
B) is consumed by the embryo as the seed develops.
C) is transferred to the cotyledons.
D) is largely unused as the seed develops.
E) matures into a fruit.
Q2) At what letter does meiosis occur?
Q3) A flower is sweet smelling and reflects UV light.This flower is likely ___ pollinated.
A) bee
B) hummingbird
C) bat
D) fly
E) wind
Q4) The portion of the flower that is attractive to pollinators is at letter _____.
Q5) closes stomata in times of stress
Q6) stimulates cell division in shoot apical meristems
Q7) involved in stress responses
Q8) What structures are indicated at the letter "C"?
Q9) ovule
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