Life Sciences
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Life Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, behavior, and relationships of living organisms, ranging from microscopic cells to complex ecosystems. This course provides foundational knowledge in biology, genetics, physiology, ecology, and evolution, emphasizing the scientific principles that govern life processes. Students will learn to analyze how organisms grow, adapt, and interact within their environments, and examine contemporary issues such as biotechnology, health, and conservation. Through lectures, lab experiments, and research projects, participants will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills essential for advanced study and careers in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Inquiry into Life 14th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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2963 Verified Questions
2963 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sequence correctly lists the different levels of biological organization,from the smallest and simplest to the largest and most complex?
A) cells-organs-tissues-organ systems-organism
B) cells-tissues-organ systems-organs-organism
C) tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-organism
D) tissues-organs-organ systems-organisms-cells
E) cells-tissues-organs-organ systems-organisms
Answer: E
Q2) When you are overheated,you perspire,and when you are too cold,you shiver to generate heat.Which property of life is best represented by this example?
A) homeostasis
B) development
C) behavior
D) organization
E) adaptation
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If neutral atoms become positive ions,they
A) gain electrons.
B) lose electrons.
C) gain protons.
D) lose protons.
E) do not change.
Answer: B
Q2) Aspirin is acetyl salicylic acid and can therefore pose a problem to people who have ulcers.Bufferin uses a buffer to neutralize this effect by
A) substituting another ingredient for the acetyl salicylic acid.
B) adding a drug to stimulate the immune system.
C) adding salts to neutralize the acid.
D) adding an equal amount of hydroxide (OH<sup>-</sup>) ions.
E) adding chemicals that take up excess hydrogen (H<sup>+</sup>) ions.
Answer: E
Q3) Briefly describe the major functions of lipids in the human body.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information.Fats and oils function as energy storage molecules.Phospholipids form the cell membrane and inner compartments of the cell.Steroids include the sex hormones.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ribosomes are composed of
A) DNA and RNA.
B) DNA and protein.
C) only protein.
D) RNA and protein.
E) only DNA.
Answer: D
Q2) Because mitochondria were once independently living prokaryotic cells,if removed from a eukaryotic cell they can survive independently.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Ribosomal RNA is produced in the A) nucleolus.
B) Golgi apparatus.
C) ribosomes.
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which membrane transport process can continue whether the cell is alive or dead?
A) sodium/potassium pump
B) pinocytosis
C) phagocytosis
D) exocytosis
E) diffusion
Q2) When water enters a plant cell
A) it bursts.
B) the vacuole becomes enlarged.
C) the vacuole shrinks.
D) it undergoes plasmolysis.
E) it undergoes crenation.
Q3) When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution,the cell wall prevents A) diffusion.
B) active transport.
C) the cell from bursting.
D) the cell from shrinking.
E) water from entering the cell.
Q4) Explain the difference between peripheral proteins and integral proteins as they relate to the cell membrane.
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genes that code for the proteins of the signaling pathway could be classified as A) proto-oncogenes.
B) caspase genes.
C) DNA repair genes.
D) tumor suppressor genes.
E) cyclin genes.
Q2) If the total number of chromosomes in a cell is six,then after mitosis there will be
A) six chromosomes in each daughter cell.
B) three chromosomes in each daughter cell.
C) 12 chromosomes in each daughter cell.
D) two chromosomes in each daughter cell.
E) three chromosomes in one daughter cell and six chromosomes in the other cell.
Q3) In which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?
A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) metaphase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.
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7
Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) While eating a container of yogurt,you have to leave,so you store the yogurt in the refrigerator.A day later you return and find the surface of the yogurt is no longer smooth but has broken into several liquefied products.You correctly guess that enzymes from your saliva,via the spoon,have continued digesting the yogurt in your absence.What will happen over time?
A) The reaction has probably stopped because the amount of saliva is small and you would have to add more saliva to continue the degradation.
B) The reaction will continue indefinitely since the enzyme is not consumed by the reaction.
C) The reaction will continue until half is digested and then stop because the reaction between substrate and product will be balanced.
D) The reaction has probably stopped because the yogurt has inactivated the enzyme.
E) The reaction will continue until all of the substrate is used and the enzyme will still remain.
Q2) Explain the factors that will cause a protein to become denatured and what will occur structurally to the protein when it is denatured.
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8
Chapter 7: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the inputs and outputs of glycolysis.
Q2) For the complete respiration of one molecule of glucose,the citric acid cycle must turn a total of
A) one time.
B) two times.
C) three times.
D) four times.
E) six times.
Q3) Muscles undergo fermentation when
A) no oxygen is available.
B) no water is available.
C) no carbon dioxide is available.
D) no ATP is available.
E) no pyruvate is available.
Q4) Which of the following statements about fermentation is not true?
A) Fermentation involves the citric acid cycle.
B) Fermentation does not require oxygen.
C) Fermentation can produce lactic acid.
D) Fermentation produces a net 2 ATP molecules.
E) Fermentation can produce alcohol.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of photosynthesis does not occur inside the thylakoid membrane?
A) noncyclic electron pathway
B) cyclic electron pathway
C) electron transport chain
D) light reactions
E) Calvin cycle reactions
Q2) To what does the term stroma refer?
A) the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids
B) a stack of thylakoid membrane structures
C) the double membrane of the chloroplast
D) a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast
E) the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast
Q3) In the Calvin cycle,the 3-carbon molecule that will be immediately formed after carbon dioxide fixation occurs is
A) PS I.
B) glucose.
C) 3PG.
D) G3P.
E) RuBP.
Q4) Write the overall chemical equation for photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Plant Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering that leaf stomata have the conflicting functions of allowing gaseous carbon dioxide into the leaf,yet preserving the plant's supply of water,which of the following is NOT reasonable?
A) Tree leaves that orient flat and present the top side to the sun would have most of their stomata on the bottom of the leaf.
B) A submerged-water plant would have no stomata.
C) Corn, oats, rice, and wheat (all monocots) have relatively upright blades with sunlight hitting both sides and would have stomata distributed fairly evenly on both sides.
D) Leaves of plants in dry areas will have more stomata than leaves of plants in humid areas.
E) Plants in arid environments open their stomata at night when temperatures are cooler and evaporation occurs less.
Q2) Plant vascular tissue contains
A) collenchyma and lignin.
B) xylem and phloem.
C) epidermis and cuticle.
D) periderm and cork.
E) parenchyma and sclerenchyma cells.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Plant Reproduction and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following plant hormones could be used by industry to increase the size of sugarcane production?
A) indoleacetic acid
B) gibberellins
C) zeatin
D) abscisic acid
E) ethylene
Q2) Double fertilization in an angiosperm produces
A) a diploid zygote and a haploid polar nucleus.
B) a diploid zygote and a diploid endosperm.
C) a diploid embryo and a triploid zygote.
D) a triploid embryo and a diploid endosperm.
E) a diploid zygote and a triploid endosperm.
Q3) Describe the function of the following plant structures: petals,stamens,and carpel.
Q4) Explain the various uses of gibberellins in the agricultural industry.
Q5) A flower that is missing the stamens would be considered female.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Human Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tissues is INCORRECTLY matched with a function?
A) epithelial-capillary lining
B) connective-storage of fat
C) muscle-protection from pathogens
D) nervous-integration of data
E) connective-production of blood cells
Q2) Some anesthetics are also very effective in stopping the food from moving through the intestine.Therefore,after an operation,the surgeon will not permit a patient to eat until the digestive system is moving food again,and a patient has to suck on ice until there is some evidence the digestive tract is functioning.Without knowing more about the anesthetics,what is the likely mode of action of the anesthetic?
A) The anesthetic probably slows the cardiac muscle which in turn slows all other organ systems.
B) The anesthetic probably affects nerves that slow all skeletal muscle actions.
C) The anesthetic probably affects nerves that slow all smooth muscle actions.
D) The anesthetic probably affects nerves that stop all homeostatic actions.
E) The anesthetic probably affects nerves that stop all muscle contraction.
Q3) List the subdivisions of the ventral body cavity and indicate the main organs that are found within each of the subdivisions.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the structural differences between the walls of arteries and veins.
Q2) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
A) capillaries
B) venules
C) veins
D) arteries
E) lymph vessels
Q3) In humans,the superior vena cava
A) carries blood to the right atrium.
B) carries blood away from the right atrium.
C) joins with the aorta.
D) has a high blood pressure.
E) carries O<sub>2</sub>-rich blood.
Q4) Which blood vessels will have walls only one cell thick?
A) capillaries
B) venules
C) veins
D) arterioles
E) arteries
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Chapter 13: Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) During organ transplant,which feature is the most important to recognize?
A) The difference between the MHC proteins of the donor and the recipient.
B) The difference between the blood types of the donor and the recipient.
C) The similarities between the blood types of the donor and the recipient.
D) The type of organ being transplanted.
E) The age of the recipient of the transplanted organ.
Q2) Which protein forms pores in bacterial cell membranes?
A) interferon
B) cytokines
C) histamine
D) complement
E) thrombin
Q3) The spleen has a relatively thin outer capsule and can actually burst due to a blow to the abdomen.A person whose spleen has burst
A) cannot survive.
B) cannot synthesize red blood cells.
C) cannot synthesize white blood cells.
D) may need antibiotic therapy.
E) may need blood transfusions to prevent anemia.
Q4) Describe the three major functions of the lymphatic system.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The duodenum is NOT a site of
A) a duct from the liver that introduces bile.
B) a pancreatic duct that introduces basic fluids to neutralize the stomach acid.
C) arrival of highly acidic stomach contents.
D) villi for absorption.
E) production of HCl.
Q2) A person can fulfill all of their protein requirements without consuming any animal products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the processing of food through the digestive tract,what is the correct order?
A) bolus \(\rarr\) feces \(\rarr\) chyme
B) bolus \(\rarr\) chyme\(\rarr\) feces
C) chyme \(\rarr\) feces \(\rarr\) bolus
D) chyme \(\rarr\) bolus \(\rarr\) feces
E) feces \(\rarr\) bolus \(\rarr\) chyme
Q4) List the major digestive enzymes and the substrate they are responsible for breaking down.
Q5) List the seven functions of the liver.
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Chapter 15: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person has chronic bronchitis,will they cough up mucous?
Q2) If a lung is punctured in a car accident,that lobe fails to inflate even though there is no obstruction of the air passageway to that lobe.Why?
A) The trauma must have damaged the nerve path controlling ribs on that side of the lung.
B) Negative feedback prevents the ribs and diaphragm on that side from causing pain.
C) When the chest volume expands, air can now rush in through the puncture without filling the alveoli.
D) Mucus or blood must be filling the lobe.
E) Stimulation of stretch receptors in the alveolar walls initiate inhibitory nerve impulses.
Q3) After the trachea,what is the next structure the air passes through?
A) bronchi
B) alveolus
C) larynx
D) pharynx
E) bronchioles
Q4) List and describe the three major functions of the respiratory system.
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17
Chapter 16: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urethra and bladder infections are easily treated with antibiotics,but even simple kidney infections are much more difficult to treat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which structure releases aldosterone?
A) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
B) proximal convoluted tubule cells
C) loop of the nephron (loop of Henle)
D) collecting tubule
E) adrenal cortex
Q3) Each kidney has about one thousand structural units called nephrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Urinary tract infections confined to the urethra are called
A) urethritis.
B) kidneyitis.
C) cystitis.
D) nephritis.
E) prostatitis.
Q5) Explain the role of ANH (atrial natriuretic hormone)in homeostasis.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally,nerve impulses do not move "backward" along a series of neurons.What is the reason for this?
A) There is a short refractory period during which sodium gates cannot open and an action potential cannot move backwards.
B) Once the signal has passed, the nerves separate from each other so it cannot go backwards.
C) At the synapse, the pre-synaptic membrane has receptors ensuring the transmission only goes one way.
D) Once the sodium channels open, they cannot be closed.
E) The resting potential of the neuron prevents it from conducting an impulse.
Q2) The limbic system is a separate part of the brain located behind the cerebellum on top of the brain stem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List and compare the three classes of neurons.
Q4) The brains of Alzheimer disease patients show no abnormalities post-mortem. A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the transmission across a synapse from one neuron to another.
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Chapter 18: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a general receptor found in the skin to detect pressure or fine touch?
A) free nerve endings
B) Merkel's disks
C) Krause end bulbs
D) Meissner's corpuscles
E) Pacinian corpuscles
Q2) Vertigo would most likely result from
A) continuous stimulation of the tympanic membrane.
B) bipolar cells stimulating the retina.
C) continuous fluid movement in the semicircular canals.
D) increased vibrations in the basilar membrane.
E) lack of red or green cones.
Q3) When a stimulus is continuous but we no longer respond to it,the process is called A) integration.
B) proprioception.
C) somatic sensing.
D) countersensation.
E) sensory adaptation.
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20
Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the condition in many older women in which the bones become weak and thin?
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) bursitis
C) osteoarthritis
D) osteoporosis
E) meningitis
Q2) Judo is a sport that requires an explosion of energy more than endurance.The better type of muscle would be
A) slow-twitch fibers with many mitochondria and high blood supply.
B) slow-twitch fibers with fewer mitochondria and lower blood supply.
C) fast-twitch fibers with many mitochondria and high blood supply.
D) fast-twitch fibers with fewer mitochondria and lower blood supply.
E) fast-twitch fibers with a reserve of glycogen and fat.
Q3) Name the neuromuscular transmitter that is released at the axon terminal.
A) sodium ions
B) calcium ions
C) ATP
D) creatine phosphate
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) College students are notorious for having a reversed day-night schedule.They stay up all night and sleep during the day.This alteration changes what hormone levels?
A) melatonin
B) leptin
C) growth hormone
D) testosterone in males; estrogen in females
E) prostaglandins
Q2) In the past,the parathyroid glands were sometimes mistakenly removed during surgery when another part of the body was removed.Which part was being removed?
A) thyroid
B) tonsils
C) adenoids
D) appendix
E) uterus
Q3) Steroid hormones always have the same complex of four carbon rings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and give a function of each.
Q5) List and explain the role of the main growth factors.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which reproductive technology involves having a physician place the man's sperm into the woman's vagina in an attempt to fertilize her egg?
A) artificial insemination
B) in vitro fertilization
C) gamete intrafallopian transfer
D) surrogate mother
E) intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Q2) List and describe the function of the female reproductive organs.
Q3) Chlamydia is a common STD that can be treated by appropriate antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a person believes that they have contracted a STD taking antibiotics may or may not cure them.Antibiotics would be useless against which of the following STDs?
A) genital herpes
B) chlamydia
C) gonorrhea
D) syphilis
E) all of these can be cured with antibiotics
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) A failure of the cells in the ectoderm to differentiate correctly would most affect which of the following body systems?
A) cardiovascular system
B) urinary system
C) digestive system
D) urinary system.
E) nervous system
Q2) As we become older,the
A) skin becomes more elastic.
B) heart increases in size.
C) blood vessels become harder.
D) production of gametes continues in both sexes.
E) liver receives increased blood flow.
Q3) Milk production is triggered in breasts following several days of ____ production by the ____.
A) prolactin; hypothalamus
B) prolactin; anterior pituitary
C) oxytocin; hypothalamus
D) oxytocin; anterior pituitary
E) estrogen; ovaries
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Chapter 23: Patterns of Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a testcross,an organism with a dominant phenotype,but unknown genotype is crossed with which of the following to establish its genotype?
A) homozygous dominant
B) heterozygous
C) homozygous recessive
D) heterozygous dominant
E) monohybrid dominant
Q2) Which of the following crosses will yield 4 phenotypes in the 1:1:1:1 ratio?
A) RRYY x RRYY
B) RRYY x rryy
C) RrYy x RrYy
D) RrYy x rryy
E) rryy x rryy
Q3) Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?
A) Marfan syndrome
B) Tay-Sachs
C) Sickle cell disease
D) Cystic fibrosis (CF)
E) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
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Chapter 24: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding the Barr body?
A) It is found in the nuclei of females.
B) It is found in the nuclei of males.
C) It is found in the cytoplasm of males.
D) It is found in the cytoplasm of females.
E) It is a condensed inactive Y chromosome.
Q2) A male who is color-blind marries a heterozygous woman.What percent of their male children will be color-blind?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q3) The cri du chat syndrome represents a chromosomal mutation type termed A) translocation.
B) duplication.
C) deletion.
D) inversion.
E) polyploidy.
Q4) List the four X-linked recessive disorders.
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Chapter 25: DNA Structure and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Figure 25.4,when replication is finished,strand 1 will have the same base composition as strand ___ while strand 2 will have the same base composition as strand ____.
A) 2; 3
B) 1; 3
C) 3; 4
D) 1; 4
E) 2; 4
Q2) If the protein coat of a virus that infects a bacterium is labeled with radioactive sulfur and the DNA of the virus is labeled with radioactive phosphorus,over time
A) both the sulfur and the phosphorus will be found within the bacterium.
B) only the sulfur will be found inside the bacterium.
C) only the phosphorus will be found inside the bacterium.
D) both the sulfur and the phosphorus will be found outside the bacterium.
E) the radioactivity of the sulfur and phosphorus will decay very quickly and not be detectable.
Q3) Summarize the process of DNA replication.
Q4) Identify the amino acids that would be assembled based upon the following codons: CGG AUA GAC GUA
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Chapter 26: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can comparative genomics assist in the treatment of HIV?
A) The genome of HIV can now be compared to the human genome to find similarities between the two.
B) Knowing the genome of HIV allows for the manufacture of designer drugs to treat specific strains.
C) Understanding the genetic code of HIV allows scientists to replicate it in the laboratory.
D) Understanding the evolution of HIV in an individual will help scientists understand how the virus responds to different drug regimes and will lead to better treatments.
E) Knowing the proteins produced by HIV will allow the development of drugs to mimic those proteins.
Q2) One of the problems that limits the use of gene therapy is
A) the finding of suitable donors.
B) some patients are allergic to the bacterial DNA used.
C) mutation of the patient's genes caused by the therapy.
D) detrimental side effects from the inserted genes.
E) all of the above are problems with gene therapy.
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Chapter 27: Evolution of Life
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Q1) The model of speciation that requires some time with geographic barriers between two populations allowing evolution of reproductive isolation is
A) allopatric speciation.
B) phyletic gradualism.
C) sympatric speciation.
D) punctuated equilibrium.
E) prezygotic isolation.
Q2) Wherever an evolutionary tree branches,there is assumed to be A) no living member of that group.
B) always a living member of that group.
C) a common ancestor.
D) an embryo only.
E) a suddenly new species.
Q3) Summarize the four main observations that make up Darwin's theory of natural selection.
Q4) If a population goes from an allele frequency of 0.12 A & 0.88 a to 0.23 A & 0.77 a in the course of 7 generations we can conclude that it is evolving.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Microbiology
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Q1) List the four stages that are thought to have led to the formation of the first cells.
Q2) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)or "mad cow disease" is caused by a(n)
A) archeon.
B) bacterium.
C) cyanobacterium.
D) prion.
E) virus.
Q3) How are the archaea different from bacteria?
A) Archaea show the earliest form of photosynthetic ability.
B) Bacteria lack the peptidoglycan cell wall found in the Archaea.
C) Archaea have a monolayer of lipids with branched side chains.
D) The Archaea have evolved far more advanced forms of metabolism than bacteria.
E) Archaea have very delicate plasma membranes compared to more durable bacteria.
Q4) Bacterial metabolism is quite diverse and can range from heterotrophic individuals that are anaerobic to ones that use mitochondria to run cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Protists and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protist reproduction
A) is asexual only.
B) is sexual only.
C) is neither sexual nor asexual.
D) is mostly sexual with asexual as a second option.
E) is mostly asexual with sexual as a second option.
Q2) Which is grouped with the algae?
A) sporozoa
B) zooflagellates
C) slime molds
D) diatoms
E) ciliates
Q3) The most important human parasite among the sporozoa is ____,the causative agent of malaria.
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) trypanosome
C) Amoeba proteus
D) Chlamydomonas
E) Paramecium caudatum
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Chapter 30: Plants
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Q1) Which part of an angiosperm seed is triploid (3n)?
A) embryonic sporophyte generation
B) embryonic gametophyte generation
C) protective seed coat
D) fruit around the seed
E) endosperm
Q2) Which of the following is a nonvascular plant that has the longest evolutionary history on land?
A) ferns
B) bristlecone pine tree
C) moss
D) redwood tree
E) grass
Q3) The fiddlehead is a _______ that unfolds into a ______.
A) diploid gametophyte; fern frond
B) diploid sporophyte; fern frond
C) haploid sporophyte; fern frond
D) haploid gametophyte; fern frond
E) diploid gametophyte; moss plant
Q4) List the five major events in the evolutionary history of plants.
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Chapter 31: Animals: the Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name Echinodermata literally means
A) soft skin.
B) circulation of water.
C) spiny skin.
D) skinless.
E) ability to store water.
Q2) The segments of a tapeworm consisting primarily of eggs,which hang in bags as a long chain behind the head,are called
A) proglottids.
B) cercariae.
C) sporocysts.
D) scolexes.
E) glycocalyxes.
Q3) Identify the features unique to the molluscs.
Q4) Which of the following characteristics is NOT true about deuterostomes?
A) The second opening during embryonic development becomes the mouth.
B) They include the echinoderms and humans.
C) They have a coelom.
D) They include the simplest of invertebrates.
E) They are typically more advanced than protostomes.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Animals: Chordates and Vertebrates
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Q1) Which of these characteristics first developed in reptiles?
A) amniotic egg
B) scales on skin
C) four-legged body
D) skull and vertebral column
E) animals with lungs.
Q2) The ray-finned fishes are believed to have evolved into the amphibians.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lancelets are found
A) in tropical Amazon streams.
B) as parasites inside the tracts of fish.
C) very rarely in mountain streams, where they are almost extinct.
D) commonly in the sandy bottoms of shallow coastal waters around the world.
E) on the bottom of the ocean.
Q4) The australopithecines evolved and diversified in Africa from 4 MYA until 1.5 MYA and are the possible direct hominin ancestors for humans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the four morphological traits unique to the chordates.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Why do different species of animals have territories that are different sizes?
A) They must be able to travel the entire territory in one day to defend it.
B) They only need to maintain a territory that is large enough for the male and one mate.
C) Different species need different sized territories depending on their food source.
D) They must be able to sing loudly enough to be heard throughout the territory.
E) They must be able to mark the entire territory every day so others of their species will not invade it.
Q2) Pheromones are
A) visual signals.
B) auditory signals.
C) chemical attractants.
D) tactile responses.
E) hormones.
Q3) List and describe the two types of associative learning.
Q4) In reciprocal altruism the helper "gains" a fitness benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the four main methods of communication among animals.
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Chapter 34: Population and Community Ecology
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Q1) The relatively thin layer on the earth's surface where life is possible is known as the A) ecosystem.
B) biosphere.
C) biome.
D) biopreserve.
E) lithosphere.
Q2) Which is NOT a parasitic relationship?
A) The Dutch elm disease fungus infects and kills elm trees.
B) The yellow fever virus causes fever and sometimes kills humans.
C) A female tick fastens to the skin of a human host and draws blood for nutrition to make her eggs.
D) The trichina worm burrows into muscle tissue, forms a cyst, and waits to continue its cycle until a predator consumes the host.
E) Unsightly dandelions sprout in a yard and compete with the fescue grass for sunlight.
Q3) Explain the correct sequence of events in secondary succession of a forest.
Q4) List the features used to identify a species as an Opportunistic species (r-strategist).
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Chapter 35: Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) Fungi and bacteria are detritus-feeders,also known as A) omnivores.
B) herbivores.
C) decomposers.
D) autotrophs.
E) carnivores.
Q2) Pioneers move into an area and harvest most of the foxes for fur.They are likely to see
A) hawks die out.
B) squirrel populations increase.
C) grasshopper populations increase.
D) hawk populations immediately increase.
E) grasshoppers decrease.
Q3) Which may be a secondary or tertiary consumer?
A) producer
B) herbivore
C) photoautotrophs
D) autotroph
E) carnivore
Q4) Explain the steps in the hydrological cycle.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) A foul-smelling lake that is rich in algae and rooted plants but lacks oxygen is A) oligotrophic.
B) eutrophic.
C) benthic.
D) pelagic.
E) limnetic.
Q2) There are tubeworms and clams that live at the bottom of the ocean near thermal vents.They derive their energy ultimately from A) the sun by way of burning fossil fuels like we do with coal and oil.
B) the sun, but they are deep in the dark ocean and live off dead detritus that sinks to them.
C) bacteria that break apart hydrogen sulfide molecules and are therefore not dependent ultimately on sunlight.
D) sources not yet known.
E) photosynthesis.
Q3) Explain how a mountain range,located near the ocean,can lead to the formation of a desert on the leeward side of the mountain.
Q4) Describe the differences in temperature of deep lakes in a temperate environment.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Conservation Biology
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Q1) ___________ is when underground water is heated by radioactive decay and the steam it produces is then used for home heating or hot water use.
A) Hydropower
B) Wind power
C) Fossil fuel burning
D) Geothermal energy
E) Solar energy
Q2) Which of the following is a renewable energy sources?
A) coal
B) oil
C) hydropower
D) natural gas
E) fossil fuels
Q3) Which of these activities are permitted in core of the biosphere reserve?
A) Research and hunting
B) Light ecotourism and hunting
C) Hunting and fishing
D) Light ecotourism and research
E) No human activities are allowed in the core of a biosphere reserve
Q4) Explain the four ethical principles embodied by conservation biology.
Page 39
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