Life Science Test Questions
Course Introduction
Life Science is the study of living organisms and life processes, encompassing a broad range of topics from cellular and molecular biology to ecology and evolution. This course introduces fundamental biological concepts including cell structure and function, genetics, physiology, biodiversity, and interactions among organisms and their environments. Students will explore the methods scientists use to investigate life, develop scientific reasoning, and gain insights into the role of life sciences in health, technology, and the environment. The course is designed to build foundational knowledge and critical thinking skills applicable to advanced study in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Inquiry into Life 14th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing energy and chemicals in an ecosystem,
A) both chemicals and energy cycle over and over again.
B) chemicals cycle over and over again but energy flows through once.
C) both chemicals and energy flow through once.
D) energy cycles over and over again but chemicals flow through once.
E) neither cycle nor flow but both are simply present.
Answer: B
Q2) When you are overheated,you perspire,and when you are too cold,you shiver to generate heat.Which property of life is best represented by this example?
A) homeostasis
B) development
C) behavior
D) organization
E) adaptation
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) All carbohydrate molecules
A) contain amino acids.
B) contain nitrogen and phosphate.
C) are organic acids.
D) are composed of atoms of C, H, and the functional group -OH.
E) are composed of atoms of C, H, O, and N.
Answer: D
Q2) Potassium hydroxide (KOH)almost completely dissociates in aqueous solution into K<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> and is therefore a
A) strong acid.
B) strong base.
C) weak base.
D) weak acid.
E) nonpolar covalent molecule.
Answer: B
Q3) Briefly describe the major functions of lipids in the human body.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information.Fats and oils function as energy storage molecules.Phospholipids form the cell membrane and inner compartments of the cell.Steroids include the sex hormones.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If cells were moved to a low-gravity environment,such as in space exploration,a change would most likely be expected in the
A) nucleus and the genetic process.
B) chloroplast and energy capture.
C) cytoskeleton.
D) vacuoles and lysosomes.
E) mitochondrion and energy release.
Answer: C
Q2) Which is NOT a correct association of cell organelles and function?
A) lysosome-intracellular digestion
B) mitochondrion-cell respiration
C) ribosome-production of proteins
D) cell wall-regulate molecule passage in and out of animal cells
E) vacuole-storage of chemicals
Answer: D
Q3) Since plant cells do not have centrioles,they cannot be required for all organisms to conduct mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?
A) It provides mechanical strength to the cell.
B) It gives shape to the cell.
C) It regulates passage of molecules into and out of the cell.
D) It is largely responsible for cellular homeostasis.
E) Serves as a site for protein synthesis.
Q2) The inside and outside of the plasma membrane are
A) identical in both the phospholipid bilayer and the embedded proteins.
B) identical in phospholipid bilayer but have cytoskeletal filaments on the outside and carbohydrate chains of glycolipids and proteins on the inside.
C) identical in phospholipid bilayer but have cytoskeletal filaments on the inside and carbohydrate chains of glycolipids and proteins on the outside.
D) different with a phospholipid bilayer on the inside and carbohydrate chains of glycolipids and proteins on the outside.
E) different with a phospholipid bilayer on the outside and carbohydrate chains of glycolipids and proteins on the inside.
Q3) Compare and contrast exocytosis and endocytosis.
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6
Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which phases of the cell cycle do the chromosomes look like "X"s?
A) prophase, anaphase
B) anaphase, metaphase
C) metaphase, telophase
D) prophase, metaphase
E) anaphase, telophase
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes apoptosis?
A) Apoptosis is bad for an organism.
B) The stages of apoptosis are different in each cell type.
C) Apoptosis happens accidentally to healthy cells.
D) Apoptosis plays a normal role in development and cancer prevention.
E) Apoptosis results in our going from a fertilized egg to trillions of cells.
Q3) During mitosis,separation of the sister chromatids ensures that each daughter cell will receive two copies of each type of chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Technically,mitosis refers to nuclear division and NOT cytoplasmic division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the checkpoints for the cell cycle.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If there are twelve different intermediate products produced during production of a molecule in a cell,we can expect that there
A) is one enzyme that carries this process through all twelve stages to the end product.
B) are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway.
C) is one enzyme for degradation and another enzyme for synthesis.
D) there may not be any enzymes involved if this is a natural cell product.
E) must be twelve different raw materials combined in the cell by one enzyme.
Q2) Less energy is needed to bring about a reaction when an enzyme is present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Occasionally someone claims to have built a machine that can run forever,producing as much energy as it consumes.This has always been disproved because it violates
A) the first law of thermodynamics.
B) the second law of thermodynamics.
C) entropy.
D) laws preventing any conversion between types of energy.
E) coupled reaction equations.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of fermentation used by organisms to produce ATP?
A) bacteria producing lactate
B) bacteria producing alcohol
C) humans producing alcohol
D) humans producing lactate
E) yeast producing alcohol
Q2) There is a net gain of four ATPs as a result of glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which molecules are the reactants or substrates for aerobic respiration?
A) glucose and carbon dioxide
B) lactate and oxygen
C) carbon dioxide and water
D) oxygen and glucose
E) glucose and water
Q4) Write out the overall equation for cellular respiration.
Q5) List the inputs and outputs of glycolysis.
Q6) List,in order,the stages of aerobic cellular respiration and indicate where they occur in the cell.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) ATP synthase is an enzyme complex located in the thylakoid membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) During cellular respiration, carbohydrate energy is converted into ATP.
B) During cellular respiration, mitochondria release carbon dioxide.
C) During photosynthesis, energy from the sun is used to form carbohydrates.
D) During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is used.
E) During photosynthesis, oxygen is used.
Q3) The Calvin cycle reactions are dependent upon a supply of
A) water and carbon dioxide.
B) carbon dioxide and NADPH.
C) carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide.
E) glucose and carbon dioxide.
Q4) Write the overall chemical equation for photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
Q5) Photosynthesis and cellular respiration utilize the same chemical pathways but in reverse of each other.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Plant Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a major function of roots?
A) absorb water
B) absorb minerals
C) produce hormones
D) anchor and support the plant
E) transport of materials throughout the plant
Q2) Root hairs are found in which area of the root?
A) zone of maturation
B) zone of elongation
C) zone of cell division
D) apical meristem
E) root cap
Q3) Which is NOT a correct association?
A) strawberry-stolon
B) onion-bulb
C) iris-rhizome
D) gladiolus-bulb
E) potato-tuber
Q4) Explain the difference between stolons and rhizomes.
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Chapter 10: Plant Reproduction and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The male gametophyte in flowering plants will be found within the A) carpel.
B) ovary.
C) sepals.
D) filament.
E) pollen grain.
Q2) Plant hormones bring about a physiological response in the plant after binding to the nucleus of the plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Clover is an example of a what type of flowering plant?
A) long-day
B) short-day
C) day-neutral
D) intermediate-day
E) non-flowering
Q4) A pea is actually a seed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the various uses of gibberellins in the agricultural industry.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Human Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which layer of the skin protects the body from bacterial infection and water loss?
A) dermis
B) epidermis
C) connective tissue layer
D) hyaline cartilage
E) basement membrane
Q2) What is the main reason for the presence of a pimple?
A) all of these are reasons for the presence of a pimple
B) increased production of sebum
C) increased levels of hormones
D) the presence of Propionibacterium acnes
E) inflammatory response
Q3) If a burn victim loses most of his skin,what symptom would NOT be present?
A) a decrease in thirst and water intake due to dry surface tissues
B) intense pain from exposed nerve endings
C) constantly cold due to a lack of body insulation
D) serious risk of infection from microbial agents
E) vitamin D deficiency
Q4) List the four major tissue types found in the human body.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venous return does not depend on
A) respiratory movements.
B) skeletal muscle contractions.
C) the presence of valves.
D) limb movement.
E) blood pressure.
Q2) Which of these is NOT true of the heart?
A) The heart is a double pump.
B) The heart helps maintain blood pressure.
C) The heart helps make red blood cells.
D) The heart is composed primarily of muscle.
E) The heart has an inner lining of endothelium.
Q3) In a coronary bypass operation,a stent is placed within the blockage and the clogged area is compressed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It may be possible to "fix" a coronary blockage by gene therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare the structural differences between the walls of arteries and veins.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lymphatic duct will drain the abdomen?
A) lymph capillaries
B) right lymphatic duct
C) left lymphatic duct
D) thoracic duct
E) inguinal duct
Q2) What is the major drawback to cytokine therapies?
A) Side effects can be life-threatening.
B) The therapies are still untested.
C) The treatments are very expensive.
D) The therapies only work for women.
E) The therapies only work for men.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of innate immunity?
A) natural killer cells
B) complement
C) inflammation
D) histamine
E) plasma cells
Q4) Would untreated SCID be considered a lethal disease?
Q5) Describe the three major functions of the lymphatic system.
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Chapter 14: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antioxidants are
A) toxic chemicals that must be avoided in the diet.
B) the breakdown products of protein digestion.
C) another name for free radicals.
D) chemicals found in fruits and vegetables that defend against free radicals.
E) only found in food supplements in pill form.
Q2) You can eliminate all fat from your diet without suffering any harmful effects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Stacey is 5 foot 8 inches tall and weighs approximately 80 pounds,yet she thinks she is very fat.Which of the following statements is probably not true about Stacey?
A) Stacey most likely suffers from anorexia nervosa.
B) Stacey is actually starving.
C) Stacey has probably stopped menstruating.
D) Stacey is in danger of dying.
E) Stacey probably spends a lot of time throwing up.
Q4) List the major digestive enzymes and the substrate they are responsible for breaking down.
Q5) List the seven functions of the liver.
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Chapter 15: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most respiratory infections are caused by viruses and can successfully be treated with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The highest carbon dioxide concentration will be found in (or at)the
A) atmosphere.
B) trachea.
C) alveoli.
D) tissue cells.
E) blood.
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the normal mechanism of ventilation?
A) There must be a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli.
B) The lungs must lie within a sealed-off thoracic cavity.
C) The inner and outer pleural membranes must be separated by a thin film of fluid.
D) The intrapleural pressure must be greater than the atmospheric pressure.
E) The diaphragm, when contracted, will be lowered.
Q4) Identify the structures and disorders associated with the upper respiratory system.
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Chapter 16: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urinary tract infections that involve the bladder are called A) urethritis.
B) kidneyitis.
C) cystitis.
D) nephritis.
E) prostatitis.
Q2) The physical principle upon which kidney dialysis is based is A) active transport.
B) diffusion.
C) heat transfer.
D) hydrogen ion transfer.
E) pinocytosis.
Q3) An increased amount of ADH leads to A) an increased amount of urine.
B) a decreased amount of urine.
C) no change in the amount of urine.
D) kidney failure.
E) a decreased amount of filtrate.
Q4) Describe the four major functions of the urinary system.
Q5) Explain the role of ANH (atrial natriuretic hormone)in homeostasis.
18
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Chapter 17: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the brain contains centers for the heartbeat and respiration?
A) medulla oblongata
B) hypothalamus
C) cerebellum
D) cerebrum
E) pons
Q2) Since the membrane is more permeable to K<sup>+</sup> than to Na<sup>+</sup>,
A) there are always more positive ions outside the membrane than inside.
B) there are always more negative ions outside the membrane than inside.
C) the outside of the membrane is always negative.
D) the outside of the membrane is always neutral.
E) there really is never a resting potential.
Q3) Spinal nerves contain
A) only sensory fibers.
B) only motor fibers.
C) both sensory and motor fibers.
D) only parasympathetic fibers.
E) only ganglia.
Q4) List and compare the three classes of neurons.
Q5) Explain the transmission across a synapse from one neuron to another.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Hearing is not dependent on the inner ear.
B) All parts of the organ of Corti hear all ranges of sound.
C) Loud music does not damage your ears.
D) Hearing is dependent on mechanical pressure.
E) Sound is similar to light insofar as it is transmitted through the vacuum of space.
Q2) Receptors that are directly involved in maintaining homeostasis are primarily
A) chemoreceptors.
B) photoreceptors.
C) interoceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) exteroceptors.
Q3) Which pair is mismatched?
A) semicircular canals-inner ear
B) ampulla-outer ear
C) auditory canal-outer ear
D) ossicles-middle ear
E) stapes-oval window
Q4) List the parts of the ear that make up the outer ear,middle ear,and inner ear.
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true regarding cross bridges?
A) They involve the use of Ca<sup>2+</sup>.
B) They are used to split ATP.
C) They form a complex with actin.
D) They are extensions of myosin molecules.
E) They attach to active sites on myosin.
Q2) Actin and myosin filaments are both present in the dense region called the A) A band.
B) Z line.
C) H zone.
D) I band.
E) M band.
Q3) The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called a sarcolemma. A)True
B)False
Q4) A muscle but not the muscle fiber will obey the all-or-none law.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three types of cartilage and give a location of each type.
Q6) List the five major functions of the skeletal system.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of the second messenger is to carry the message of the hormone on to surrounding cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) College students are notorious for having a reversed day-night schedule.They stay up all night and sleep during the day.This alteration changes what hormone levels?
A) melatonin
B) leptin
C) growth hormone
D) testosterone in males; estrogen in females
E) prostaglandins
Q3) Type I diabetes is NOT
A) caused when the pancreas is not producing insulin.
B) likely due to an environmental agent, perhaps a virus, that causes cytotoxic T cells to destroy islets.
C) treated with insulin injections and pancreatic transplants.
D) dangerous due to risk of acidosis, coma, and death.
E) caused by obesity.
Q4) List the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla and give a function of each.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultimate control of testes development is by the _____ which secretes _____.
A) anterior pituitary; GnRH
B) anterior pituitary; testosterone
C) anterior pituitary; ICSH
D) hypothalamus; GnRH
E) hypothalamus; testosterone
Q2) In the human male,sperm cells are produced in the
A) interstitial tissue.
B) urethra.
C) seminiferous tubules.
D) vas deferens.
E) seminal vesicles.
Q3) The energy source for sperm to swim comes from
A) stored fat molecules in the acrosome.
B) stored sugar molecules in the sperm head.
C) fructose sugar in the surrounding seminal fluids added by the seminal vesicles.
D) protein breakdown by mitochondria in the mid-piece of the sperm.
E) dissolved lipids in the seminal fluids added by the prostate gland.
Q4) List and describe the function of the female reproductive organs.
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Chapter 22: Development and Aging
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Q1) The neural tube of vertebrates develops during morphogenesis of the nervous system by the
A) folding of ectoderm tissue.
B) migration of mesoderm cells.
C) fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm.
D) contraction of the endoderm away from the mesoderm.
E) extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.
Q2) Which of the following serves as an insulator for the embryo?
A) amniotic fluid
B) allantois
C) chorion
D) primitive streak
E) yolk sac
Q3) The last tissue layer to be formed during gastrulation is the A) endoderm.
B) ectoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) gastroderm.
E) epiderm.
Q4) List and describe the major events during the 3 stages of birth.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Patterns of Gene Inheritance
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Q1) Indicate the genotypic and phenotypic ratios that you could expect if an individual who is heterozygous for Huntington disease has children with a normal individual.
Q2) Cold weather can change the ______ of a Himalayan rabbit.
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) alleles
D) sex
E) rate of genetic mutations
Q3) A cross is made between two parents with genotypes AaBB and aabb.If there are 32 offspring,how many of them would be expected to exhibit both dominant characteristics?
A) 32
B) 24
C) 16
D) 8
E) 0
Q4) In the human population short fingers are dominant over long fingers.Indicate the genotypic and phenotypic ratios if a heterozygous short fingered female reproduces with a long fingered male.
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Chapter 24: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The location of a gene on a chromosome is called
A) A locus
B) Homologous
C) A linkage map
D) A linkage group
E) An allele
Q2) An XXX female would most likely result from nondisjunction in
A) the mother during egg formation.
B) the father during sperm formation
C) in both the mother and father during gamete formation.
D) the fertilized egg.
E) neither the mother nor the father.
Q3) Down syndrome
A) is due to disjunction of chromosomes.
B) individuals have two number 21 chromosomes.
C) may occur at a lower rate in women over 40.
D) can occur if the sperm has an extra number 21 chromosome.
E) persons have normal appearing eyelids.
Q4) Describe a genetic disorder associated with a deletion in chromosomal number.
Q5) List the four X-linked recessive disorders.
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Chapter 25: DNA Structure and Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information as it is needed for the construction of a protein?
A) ribosomal RNA
B) transfer RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) primary mRNA transcript
E) mature RNA
Q2) The fact that for a given species the amount of purines in the DNA always matches the number of pyrimidines was first determined by
A) Watson and Crick.
B) Franklin and Wilkins.
C) Hershey and Chase.
D) Chargaff.
E) Mendel.
Q3) Indicate the complimentary nucleotide sequence for the following section of DNA: AATGCGTATACG
Q4) Summarize the process of DNA replication.
Q5) Identify the amino acids that would be assembled based upon the following codons: CGG AUA GAC GUA
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Chapter 26: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) The purpose of PCR is to create
A) fragments of DNA that are different lengths.
B) recombinant DNA.
C) billions of copies of a segment of DNA.
D) plasmids to be used as vectors in cloning.
E) transgenic crop plants.
Q2) Which animals have had the bovine growth hormone injected into them in order to produce larger individuals?
A) all of these
B) cows
C) fish
D) pigs
E) sheep
Q3) Which species has an estimated 6,300 genes in it's genome?
A) yeast
B) roundworms
C) human beings
D) fruit fly
E) mouse
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Chapter 27: Evolution of Life
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Q1) If there is a change in the allele frequency of a gene pool due to chance,primarily in a small population,it is termed
A) mutations.
B) genetic drift.
C) gene flow.
D) nonrandom mating.
E) natural selection.
Q2) When only a few individuals survive unfavorable times,thereby losing the majority of genotypes in the next generation,it is called
A) natural selection.
B) a bottleneck effect.
C) a founder effect.
D) vestigial structures.
E) industrial melanism.
Q3) Name the isolating mechanisms that exist within nature and indicate which ones are prezygotic and which ones are postzygotic.
Q4) List the five conditions required for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be present in a population.
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Chapter 28: Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial metabolism is quite diverse and can range from heterotrophic individuals that are anaerobic to ones that use mitochondria to run cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biological evolution (the evolution of living cells)differs from chemical evolution (the evolution of the molecules that make living cells)in that biological evolution would have been possible only after the development of A) true cells.
B) nucleic acids.
C) enzymes.
D) a metabolic pathway.
E) RNA and enzymes.
Q3) Which type of prokaryotes are able to live in the most extreme environments?
A) cyanobacteria
B) anaerobic bacteria
C) archaea
D) heterotrophic
E) aerobic bacteria
Q4) Describe the steps in viral replication.
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Chapter 29: Protists and Fungi
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Q1) Crustose,fruticose and foliose obtain their nutrients from photosynthetic cells contained within their middle layer.These are varieties of
A) rusts and smuts.
B) mushrooms.
C) yeasts.
D) lichens.
E) mycorrhizae.
Q2) Protist reproduction
A) is asexual only.
B) is sexual only.
C) is neither sexual nor asexual.
D) is mostly sexual with asexual as a second option.
E) is mostly asexual with sexual as a second option.
Q3) A member of the sporozoan group of protists that can cause diseases is A) Amoeba proteus.
B) Plasmodium vivax.
C) Chlamydomonas.
D) Penicillium.
E) Paramecium.
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Chapter 30: Plants
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Q1) The fiddlehead is a _______ that unfolds into a ______.
A) diploid gametophyte; fern frond
B) diploid sporophyte; fern frond
C) haploid sporophyte; fern frond
D) haploid gametophyte; fern frond
E) diploid gametophyte; moss plant
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the life cycle of gymnosperms?
A) The sporophyte is diploid.
B) The sporophyte produces two distinct types of spores.
C) The megasporocyte develops into the pollen grain.
D) The microsporocyte develops into the pollen grain.
E) Two nonflagellated sperm are released by the male gametophyte.
Q3) During pollination in angiosperms,pollen grains will stick to the enlarged knob in the center of the flower called the A) stigma.
B) style.
C) ovary.
D) ovule.
E) anther.
Q4) List the five major events in the evolutionary history of plants.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Animals: the Invertebrates
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Q1) If you play with a living anemone with a probe,it will withdraw even if you vibrate the probe like a food animal would vibrate; it also withdraws if you just add sugar.However,it reaches out and grasps an object that both vibrates and tastes like food.The use of such a double system prevents unnecessary firing of expensive nematocysts.Why are nematocysts "expensive"?
A) The organism dies without nematocysts.
B) The research equipment to detect them is very expensive.
C) Nematocysts are used in medicine and are very expensive to harvest.
D) The nematocyst is very complex and costs the anemone much energy to build.
E) The nematocyst can only be used for food and doesn't "fire" for non-food objects.
Q2) Earthworms are
A) annelids.
B) molluscs.
C) echinoderms.
D) platyhelminthes.
E) arthropods.
Q3) Identify the features unique to the molluscs.
Q4) List the 5 general characteristics shared by animals.
Q5) List the five features that have contributed to the success of the arthropods.
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Chapter 32: Animals: Chordates and Vertebrates
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Q1) Jaws are believed to have evolved from the A) cranium.
B) first ribs.
C) first pair of gill arches.
D) tooth buds.
E) suckers of lampreys.
Q2) Which represents the correct order of evolution of chordate features?
A) amnion \(\rarr\) limbs \(\rarr\) lungs \(\rarr\) jaws \(\rarr\) vertebrae
B) limbs \(\rarr\)lungs \(\rarr\) jaws \(\rarr\) vertebrae \(\rarr\) amnion
C) lungs \(\rarr\) jaws \(\rarr\)vertebrae \(\rarr\) amnion \(\rarr\) limbs
D) vertebrae \(\rarr\) jaws \(\rarr\) lungs \(\rarr\) limbs \(\rarr\) amnion
E) vertebrae \(\rarr\) amnion \(\rarr\)limbs \(\rarr\) lungs \(\rarr\) jaws
Q3) Amphibians are NOT considered to be fully adapted to life on land because
A) they are dependent upon water for external fertilization.
B) their skin is used for respiration.
C) they have hopping legs.
D) their skin is used for respiration
E) most amphibians live their entire lives in water.
Q4) List the features that make amphibians different than the fishes.
Q5) Identify the four morphological traits unique to the chordates.
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Chapter 33: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) The competitive behavior among red deer stags competing to be harem master is advantageous because
A) the survivor of the competition is the stag that lives the longest, longer than the females.
B) the survivor is the most altruistic and caring.
C) the increased number of offspring produced will offset the shorter life of the harem master.
D) the best DNA genome is directing the best animal to be superior in combat.
E) once the top stag wins, females ensure he will remain harem master for his lifetime.
Q2) Altruistic behaviors between closely related animals are selected for because they A) reduce fighting between species.
B) ensure the survival of the altruistic individual.
C) increase the frequency of the altruistic individual's genes in the next generation.
D) force individuals to cooperate with one another and thereby increase mating and population growth.
E) stimulate new learning behaviors.
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Chapter 34: Population and Community Ecology
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Q1) Interaction between two species as both attempt to use the same environmental resources is
A) competition.
B) a community.
C) an ecosystem.
D) predation.
E) symbiosis.
Q2) Which is NOT a parasitic relationship?
A) The Dutch elm disease fungus infects and kills elm trees.
B) The yellow fever virus causes fever and sometimes kills humans.
C) A female tick fastens to the skin of a human host and draws blood for nutrition to make her eggs.
D) The trichina worm burrows into muscle tissue, forms a cyst, and waits to continue its cycle until a predator consumes the host.
E) Unsightly dandelions sprout in a yard and compete with the fescue grass for sunlight.
Q3) Explain the correct sequence of events in secondary succession of a forest.
Q4) Explain the species interactions in each of the following symbiotic relationships: parasitism,commensalism and mutualism.
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Chapter 35: Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) The conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas is achieved by ____ bacteria.
A) denitrifying
B) leguminous
C) nitrogen fixing
D) nitrate producing
E) nitrite producing
Q2) Which of the following organisms would be considered a decomposer?
A) green algae
B) green plant
C) caterpillar
D) bird
E) mushroom
Q3) Which of the following statements is false regarding the carbon cycle?
A) Terrestrial plants take up carbon dioxide from the air.
B) Aquatic plants exchange carbon dioxide directly with the atmosphere.
C) Algae produce food for themselves and for heterotrophs.
D) When organisms respire, a portion of carbon is returned to the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.
E) The amount of bicarbonate in the water is in equilibrium with the amount of carbon dioxide in the air.
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Chapter 36: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a treeless biome?
A) chaparral
B) tundra
C) desert
D) taiga
E) savanna
Q2) Which would be characterized by little rainfall,permafrost,and reindeer?
A) grasslands
B) temperate deciduous forest
C) desert
D) taiga
E) tundra
Q3) The mixing of oxygenated water with nutrient laden water that occurs in lakes is called
A) intertidal zonation.
B) upwelling.
C) pelagic division.
D) fall overturn.
E) eutrophication.
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Chapter 37: Conservation Biology
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Q1) A form of indirect value from biodiversity that leads to a partnership between less developed countries and resorts leading to an increased income base in the country is called
A) Direct value
B) Ecotourism
C) Exotic species
D) Colonization
E) Overexploitation
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a way that invasive (alien)species are introduced into a new habitat?
A) intentionally introduced by humans
B) unintentionally introduced during transport of crops
C) unintentionally introduced during discharge of ship ballast tanks
D) natural introductions on the feet, wings, or fur of migrating organisms
E) unintentionally introduced in packaged processed foods
Q3) Explain the four ethical principles embodied by conservation biology.
Q4) Biodiversity hotspots are valuable because they contain large numbers of exotic species.
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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