Life Science
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Life Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of biology, including cell biology, genetics, ecology, physiology, and the diversity of life forms. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and real-world examples, students will investigate how living organisms interact with each other and their environments, the molecular and cellular mechanisms of life, and current issues in biotechnology, health, and environmental science. By the end of the course, students will have a comprehensive understanding of the processes that sustain life and the scientific methods used to study biological systems.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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1618 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Humans in the World of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All individuals of a species that can interbreed in an area are called a(n)________.
Answer: population
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of all living things?
A)They are composed of multiple cells.
B)They respond to stimuli.
C)They contain carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
D)They have adaptive traits.
Answer: A
Q3) It is notoriously difficult to perform unbiased studies when human subjects are used.When governmental agencies such as the U.S.Food and Drug Administration are trying to determine the validity of scientific claims,they very closely examine the methods used in the experiments.Name two things that would be important in evaluating how the studies were performed.
Answer: Considerations might be the use of control groups,placebos,double-blind studies,repeat studies,etc.
Q4) A(n)________ group is treated like an experimental group except for the one variable being tested.
Answer: control
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes to Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is a nonprotein substance that aids in forming the enzyme-substrate complex in metabolic reactions.
Answer: cofactor
Q2) ________ is the process of using water to break down polymers to their monomer subunits.
Answer: Hydrolysis
Q3) Alteration of the ________ structure of a protein can transform the protein into an infectious agent known as a prion.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Answer: B
Q4) Atoms that have the same number of protons but differ in the number of neutrons are called ________.
Answer: isotopes
Q5) Explain the major differences between covalent and ionic bonding. Answer: In covalent bonding,electrons are shared between atoms.In ionic bonding,two oppositely charged ions are attracted to each other.
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Chapter 3: The Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) A process by which the NADH and FADH pass their electrons through the inner membrane of the mitochondria,producing ATP and metabolic water.
A)Microtubules
B)ATP
C)Glycolysis
D)Electron transport chain
E)Plasma membrane
F)Flagella
G)Cristae
H)Citric acid cycle
Answer: D
Q2) Proteins are processed and packaged in the organelle known as the ________.
Answer: Golgi complex
Q3) If a new anesthetic were developed that entered the nerve cells efficiently,why would it be important for the substance to be lipophilic (dissolves in lipids)?
Answer: Only certain types of molecules can cross the cell membrane.Because this anesthetic is lipophilic,it can easily move through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane.
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Chapter 4: Body Organization and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrients reach cells in the epidermis by ________.
A)moving out of dermal blood vessels and diffusing through tissue fluid to the epidermis
B)moving out of blood vessels in the epidermis
C)moving out of blood vessels that originate in the hypodermis and extend into the epidermis
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Which form of muscle is involuntary and occurs in the walls of the blood vessels?
A)skeletal
B)cardiac
C)smooth
D)connective
Q3) A tendon or ligament is made up principally of ________ tissue.
Q4) Which of the following cavities has the highest density of cardiac muscle tissue?
A)pleural cavity
B)abdominal cavity
C)thoracic cavity
D)cranial cavity
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Also known as the thighbone,it rotates within a socket in the pelvis.
A)Carpals
B)Osteoclasts
C)Femur
D)Lumbar
E)Sacrum
F)Humerus
G)Tarsals
H)Metatarsals
I)Osteoblasts
J)Foramen magnum
K)Temporal
Q2) What forms within the spaces of spongy bone and functions to produce blood cells?
A)yellow marrow
B)osteons
C)osteocytes
D)red marrow
Q3) Briefly explain the formation of bone in the human body.
Q4) The ________ forms the lower jaw in humans.
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ are the thinner of the two protein filaments that are found within myofibrils.
Q2) What is released by motor neurons to stimulate a contraction?
A)myosin
B)acetylcholine
C)dopamine
D)calcium
Q3) Muscle ________ are too short to be part of normal body movement but can generate heat,for example during shivering.
Q4) My sister Adel plays tennis with me every Wednesday evening.Towards the end of our game our quick hits are mostly powered by ________.
A)ATP and creatine phosphate reserves
B)anaerobic pathways of ATP production
C)aerobic pathways of ATP production
D)slow-twitch cells
Q5) A bundle of muscle cells is called a ________.
Q6) The depletion of O in the muscles of an individual that has exercised for a long period of time is known as ________.
Q7) A(n)________ is a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Neurons: the Matter of the Mind
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscle cells that are not exercised will atrophy or shrink in size.Lou Gehrig's disease affects nervous tissue but also causes muscle atrophy.What type of nerve cell must be affected to cause this muscle-wasting condition?
A)interneurons
B)sensory neurons
C)neuroglial cells
D)motor neurons
Q2) The short branching projections of a neuron,which provide surface area for sending and receiving signals from other cells.
A)Synaptic knobs
B)Interneurons
C)Dendrite
D)Excitatory synapse
E)Motor neuron
F)Axon
G)Inhibitory synapse
H)Synapse
I)Sensory neuron
J)Ion channels
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heidi injured a ventral root below her ribs.What problem will she likely experience?
A)She will not be able to close her eyes.
B)She will become deaf.
C)She will lose all sense of touch in her abdomen.
D)She will have trouble walking.
Q2) Inflammation of the protective coverings of the brain and spinal cord is known as ________.
Q3) A structure in the brain that bridges the higher and lower brain centers.
A)Corpus callosum
B)Pons
C)Thalamus
D)Somatic nervous system
E)Limbic system
F)Hypothalamus
G)Parasympathetic nervous system
H)Sympathetic nervous system
I)Reticular activating system
J)Autonomic nervous system
Q4) ________ memory stores large amounts of information for hours,days,or years.
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Chapter 9: Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) This layer of the eye contains melanin and arteries that provide other parts with nutrients and oxygen.
A)iris
B)retina
C)choroid
D)sclera
Q2) These receptors are able to detect changes in light intensity in the eye.
A)Sclera
B)Cataracts
C)Astigmatism
D)Umami
E)General senses
F)Mechanoreceptors
G)Photoreceptors
H)Chemoreceptors
I)Cochlea
J)Thermoreceptors
Q3) Why is the sense of smell associated with memories and emotions?
Q4) Compare and contrast the different types of receptors found in the body.
Q5) The stapes,malleus,and ________ bones are located in the middle ear.
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follicle-stimulating hormone originates from the ________ gland.
Q2) Enrique,28 years old,has a low heart rate,cool skin,puffy face,and behaves sluggishly.He probably has this thyroid disorder.
A)Myxedema
B)Addison's disease
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Adrenal medulla
E)Grave's disease
F)Cushing's syndrome
G)Cretinism
H)Diabetes mellitus
I)Acromegaly
Q3) ________,from the pancreatic islets,causes the liver to increase the breakdown of glycogen.
Q4) Mamadou,22,lives in a country that has been at civil war for 19 years.What kinds of endocrine responses do we expect and what kinds of health issues might he have? What public health implications might there be once the war is over?
Q5) The ________ gland lies in the center of the brain and contains secretory cells that produce melatonin.
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Chapter 11: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protein transports oxygen in the blood stream?
A)plasminogen
B)hemoglobin
C)erythropoietin
D)thrombin
Q2) George is stuck out in the hot,dry desert without any water and he is sweating a lot.Which of these components of the blood should decrease?
A)glucose
B)red blood cells
C)platelets
D)plasma
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by ________.
A)pernicious anemia
B)Epstein Barr virus
C)lead poisoning
D)blood doping
Q4) TPA,or tissue plasminogen activator,is a compound sometimes given to a person suffering from a heart attack.Why would a compound that apparently activates plasminogen be useful in treating a heart attack?
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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a heart attack and wakes up in the hospital.He gets a visit from his doctor who says he had to shock the patient's heart because part of it had gone into fibrillation.The doctor jokes that it could have been worse if the other part of the heart had been in fibrillation and that the patient was really lucky.Which chambers of the heart in the patient were in fibrillation,the atria or the ventricles?
Q2) The tempo of the heartbeat is set by a cluster of specialized cardiac muscle cells called the ________.
Q3) The highest pressure in the artery during each heartbeat is known as the ________.
A)cardiac circuit
B)diastolic pressure
C)blood pressure
D)systolic pressure
Q4) Which of the following causes blood to move through veins?
A)vasodilation
B)contraction of smooth muscle
C)contraction of skeletal muscle
D)blood pressure
Q5) Explain the structure and functions of the arteries.
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Chapter 13: Body Defense Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to preliminary tests Alexandra has liver cancer but the mass is inoperable and hard to localize.In order to administer x-ray beam therapy safely and effectively,the doctors must find the exact location of the cancer.Which of the following methods would be best in this situation?
A)radioactive monoclonal antibodies
B)florescence-linked B-cells
C)activated neutrophils
D)enormous mast cell injections
Q2) The eye is a warm,moist environment favored by many harmful bacteria.Nevertheless,eye infections are relatively rare.Why is this?
A)The enzyme tearase inhibits bacterial growth.
B)Tears contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme.
C)The eyes are constantly exposed to UV light, which inhibits bacterial growth.
D)Antibodies, particularly IgM, are secreted in abundance in the tears.
Q3) An example of a(n)________ barrier is lysozyme found in tears and saliva.
Q4) ________ are less discriminating than some phagocytic cells,and attack and kill anything not recognized as part of the body.
Q5) ________ are lymphocytes that mature in the thymus.
Q6) ________ are organisms capable of invading the body and causing disease.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When someone has a sinus headache he or she often uses decongestant nasal sprays.Why are such sprays useful?
A)They reduce swelling, allowing the sinuses to drain.
B)They reduce the symptoms of sore throat inflammation, which exacerbates the pain.
C)They dry out the breathing passageways in the pharynx, making it easier to breathe.
D)They have a pain-blocking effect in the brain.
Q2) Olney was born two months premature.According to this chapter what respiratory problem is he most likely to have and what can be done to correct it?
Q3) The opening of the larynx is called the ________.It is covered by the epiglottis,which prevents food or objects from blocking the airway.
Q4) ________ are tiny chambers within the lungs that allow for gas exchange.
Q5) The ________ is the space behind the nose and the mouth,which most people call the throat.
Q6) Why is it not advisable to take antibiotics when you have a cold or the flu?
Q7) The ________ is a thin portion of cartilage and bone that divides the inside of the nose.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Triglycerides initially travel in the blood stream away from the small intestine in ________ of the lymphatic system.
Q2) This digestive organ absorbs water from indigestible food residue,stores feces,and eliminates feces from the body.
A)small intestine
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)large intestine
Q3) Infection with Helicobacter pylori can cause ________.
A)gallstones
B)constipation
C)tooth decay
D)peptic ulcers
Q4) ________,a hormone secreted by the small intestine,stimulates the release of sodium bicarbonate to help neutralize the pH of the small intestine.
Q5) Emery believes mucus is unhealthy,so he is always spitting it out.Explain to Emery why mucus produced by the GI tract is beneficial.
Q6) Food traveling through the pharynx would next go to the ________.
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Chapter 16: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An excretory organ involved with filtration of body fluids and the elimination of nitrogenous wastes.
A)Respiratory
B)Urinalysis
C)Urinary
D)Kidneys
E)Tubular secretion
F)Nephrons
G)Digestive
H)Urinary bladder
I)Urethra
J)Ureters
Q2) Provide the path of the urine from the kidney to the outside.Make sure your explanation includes all structures and muscles that would be encountered as the urine leaves the body.
Q3) Someone who has just had a glass of wine will soon make less of this hormone.
A)renin
B)aldosterone
C)atrial natriuretic peptide
D)antidiuretic hormone
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Chapter 17: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many chromosomes are provided to a zygote from each gamete?
A)23
B)46
C)46 pairs
D)None of the above
Q2) Which hormone in men could be manipulated to eliminate sperm production without producing problems with the maintenance of secondary sex characteristics?
A)gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
B)testosterone
C)follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
D)luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q3) The ________ serves for sperm storage and maturation in males.
Q4) Describe the "path" of a sperm cell from its production until it leaves the male body.
Q5) Using fertility awareness as a means of birth control requires a detailed understanding of the female reproductive cycle.Given what you know about the cycle,when exactly should a woman avoid sex to prevent pregnancy if she is relying on fertility awareness? Make sure to explain your answer.What are the challenges to this method of birth control?
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Chapter 18: Development Throughout Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do harmful agents cause the most severe birth defects during the embryonic period?
A)This is a period of rapid differentiation when cells and tissues acquire specific functions, and organs form.
B)This is when substances pass most easily through the placenta.
C)The mother's hormones are at the highest levels at this time.
D)The embryo has not yet implanted into the uterus.
Q2) Which of the following is false concerning fertilization?
A)Several sperm must contribute their DNA to the egg.
B)Enzymes are released from the acrosome of the sperm to penetrate the egg.
C)Most sperm die on their way to the egg.
D)The process can take hours to complete.
Q3) The process of morphogenesis in development begins ________ after fertilization.
A)12 weeks
B)immediately
C)3 weeks
D)20 weeks
Q4) The ________ is a group of cells that will develop into the chorion.
Q5) A(n)________ occurs when the blastocyst implants outside the uterus.
Q6) The period that begins at week 9 of development is the ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Chromosomes and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain two important sources of genetic variation in meiosis.Evolutionarily speaking,why do you think is it important that there is recombination of the genes in meiosis?
Q2) Longest period of the cell cycle.
A)Interphase
B)Telophase
C)Cytokinesis
D)Haploid
E)Metaphase
F)Gene
G)Anaphase
H)Crossing over
I)Anaphase I
Q3) The arrangement of an individual's chromosomes by size and centromere location is called the ________.
Q4) The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of a homologous pair in meiosis is called ________.
Q5) Each cell contains two chromosomes with genes for the same traits; these chromosomes are called ________.
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Chapter 20: Genetics and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with dark hair usually also inherit dark eyes.Why is this usually the case?
A)Autosomes
B)Phenotype
C)Incomplete dominance
D)Duplication
E)Heterozygous
F)Codominance
G)Linkage
H)Pedigree
I)Gene
J)Deletion
Q2) Adel has freckles,autosomal dominant,so please provide her genotype.
A)FF
B)Ff
C)ff
D)Can't say for certain it could be FF or Ff.
Q3) The presence of the ________ chromosome means that a person will probably appear to be male.
Q4) A(n)________ directs the making of a protein.
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Chapter 21: Dna and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The end product of transcription is the production of a(n)________.
Q2) In which part of the molecule does tRNA pair with mRNA?
A)rRNA
B)codon
C)anticodon
D)gene
Q3) This rare condition was the first to be experimentally treated with gene therapy.
A)sickle cell anemia
B)Down syndrome
C)SCID
D)AIDS
Q4) Which process converts the nucleotide language of mRNA into the amino acid language of a protein?
A)DNA Replication
B)transcription
C)translation
D)meiosis
Q5) ________ are small pieces of DNA separate from the bacterial chromosome.
Q6) Compare and contrast DNA and RNA.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and Our Heritage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which suggests that life evolved from chemicals slowly increasing in complexity over a period of millions of years?
A)natural selection
B)creationism
C)gradualism
D)chemical evolution
Q2) How does fitness relate to family size?
Q3) A difference in appearance between males and females in a species is called ________.
Q4) Changes that occur at the genetic level in populations are classified as ________.
A)chemical evolution
B)microevolution
C)gradualism
D)macroevolution
Q5) Discuss the major trends in hominin evolution.
Q6) What anatomical features help primates to live in trees?
Q7) Genetic drift that occurs in small,new colonies is called ________.
Q8) Explain the basic ideas of natural selection proposed by Charles Darwin.
Q9) ________ is the study of the geographic distribution of organisms.
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Chapter 23: Ecology, the Environment, and Us
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contains the most species of living things?
A)biosphere
B)niche
C)ecosystem
D)community
Q2) A small woods was cleared for a new building but then the builders went bankrupt.Over the ensuing years,plants and animals moved back into the plot in a process called ________.
A)climax community
B)biological magnification
C)secondary succession
D)primary succession
Q3) Hoda,now pregnant,barbequed a shark that her uncle caught in a bay.Upstream from that bay was an old coal mine that was draining into the local river.What should you warn Hoda about?
Q4) A visitor to a tropical American forest will probably never get to see a jaguar,the largest native cat species in the Americas,but will see many plant-eating monkeys.Use your knowledge of energy pyramids to explain the rarity of the predatory cats.
Q5) What are the differences between primary and secondary succession?
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Chapter 24: Human Populations, limited Resources, and Pollution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imagine a chart showing the number of people in different age groups (e.g.,0-5 years old)as blocks in proportion to the number of people in each age group.If each of these age blocks is shown stacked with the youngest at the bottom and the oldest at the top,what shape will the whole stack assume when there is a rapid population doubling time?
A)normal pyramid
B)uniform column
C)inverted pyramid
D)hourglass
Q2) This form of oxygen can irritate the eyes and the respiratory system.
A)Death rate
B)Carrying capacity
C)Ozone
D)Desertification
E)Density-dependent
F)Skin cancer
G)Emigration
H)Carbon footprint
I)Chlorofluorocarbons
J)Age structure
26
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Chapter 25: Food Safety and Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate way to kill bacteria on food is to ________.
A)refrigerate the food
B)freeze the food
C)cook the food
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Why is the process of irrigation with run-off water a bad practice? What measures should you take to protect yourself from acquiring a foodborne illness from crops?
Q3) Your friend has developed some gastrointestinal symptoms that appear to be related to something she ate.She wants to let them run their course without seeing a doctor.However,her symptoms seem to be getting worse.For which of the following would you recommend that she visit her health care provider?
A)blood in her stool
B)diarrhea lasting more than 3 days
C)a temperature of 102 F
D)All of the above are signs your friend should see a doctor.
Q4) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.
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Chapter 26: Drugs and the Mind
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Q1) Marina has owned a bar for many years and extols the health benefits of alcohol.Which of these claims is correct?
A)Four to five drinks per day improve the liver.
B)Heavy drinking prevents cancer.
C)Alcohol increases the uptake of vitamins and minerals.
D)Moderate consumption raises the "good" cholesterol levels.
Q2) Vasily thinks that drinking alcohol heightens his alertness and awareness of his surroundings and that he is a better driver after drinking several beers.Persuade him otherwise.
Q3) Mattie thinks she should use nicotine patches because they are safe.How can you convince her otherwise given the information in this chapter?
Q4) If a person uses Percocet,a morphine relative,to which of these drugs might that person develop cross-tolerance?
A)ecstasy
B)cocaine
C)heroin
D)marijuana
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Chapter 27: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buford is a very successful high school athlete who has been diagnosed with diabetes.He needs to do well in sports so that he can receive a university scholarship.He dreams of getting into the pros too-his whole family is counting on him! However,he doesn't want to go through the entire regimen his doctor has prescribed for him because he thinks it cuts into his sports time.What do you need to tell him about sticking to his diabetic treatment plan?
Q2) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
Q3) Which of the following is true of diabetes mellitus type 1?
A)Patients always require insulin.
B)Cells become resistant to insulin.
C)Most people with diabetes mellitus have this form.
D)It can be delayed or prevented.
Q4) Marsha says she sometimes has ketoacidosis.What kind of diabetes is she more likely to have and how did she develop ketoacidosis? Why is ketoacidosis dangerous and how can she detect it in time?
Q5) Saito has diabetes mellitus type 1 and requires frequent insulin injections.He would much prefer to swallow pills instead of giving himself injections.Explain to him why this is not possible.What other option does he have besides an injection or an insulin pen?
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Chapter 28: a Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following lifestyle changes might be used to treat or prevent high blood pressure?
A)limit dietary salt
B)exercise regularly
C)control body weight
D)All of the above could help with high blood pressure.
Q2) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
Q3) During the summer of 2010,there were very large forest fires in Western Russia.The cloud spread at some point over 1,000 miles (approximately 1600 km),enveloping a number of cities.The smoke was thicker than any you would see in a tobacco store! Based on the information in this chapter alone,why do you think the daily death rate due to heart disease in Moscow doubled during that time?
Q4) Heart attacks can be caused by a blood clot blocking a coronary artery; this condition is called a (an)________.
A)coronary thrombosis
B)coronary bypass
C)stent
D)angioplasty
Q5) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?
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Chapter 29: a Special Topic: Infectious Disease
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Q1) A disease or condition with clinically distinct symptoms,whose incidence has increased,especially in the past two decades,is called ________.
A)emerging
B)reemerging
C)infectious
D)declining
Q2) Explain how antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections.What are some of the problems concerning the use of these drugs?
Q3) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.
Q4) Athlete's foot is caused by a(n)________.
A)insect
B)fungus
C)bacterium D)virus.
Q5) A new antibiotic is introduced which will only destroy organisms lacking a nuclear membrane.A dispute develops over its safety when used in people.What arguments would you use in this discussion?
Q6) A(n)________ is an animal that carries a disease from one host to another.
Q7) A (n)________ is a global outbreak of disease.
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Chapter 30: a Nutrition and Weight Control
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A)There is no healthy minimum level of HDLs.
B)It is not possible to add extra hydrogen atoms to a polyunsaturated fat.
C)We need about 8 tablespoons of fat per day.
D)A blood cholesterol level of less than 200 mg/dl is recommended.
Q2) Which of the following substances has the lowest glycemic index?
A)fiber
B)glucose
C)white bread
D)white rice
Q3) What are some specific health benefits of indigestible carbohydrates and where can a person find them?
Q4) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height.How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia?
A)There would be evidence of water retention.
B)The teeth and gums would be damaged.
C)Extensive weight gain would be observed.
D)High blood sugar levels would be present.
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Chapter 31: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Aids
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Q1) Name That STD! Choose from the following STDs.You may use each choice more than once.In some cases,there may be several correct answers. Gonorrhea,Chlamydia,Human Papillomavirus (HPV)infection,Genital herpes,Syphilis
Which STD usually causes death if it is left untreated?
This STD goes through three stages before causing death.
Which STD is suspected after an abnormal PAP test in females?
Name two STDs that can be contracted on mucus membranes other than those of the reproductive systems.
If an STD is detected early,many can be easily treated.Which STD can't be treated (meaning,you can't ever get rid of it,even though it may be managed)?
Name three STDs that may have no symptoms (in either men or women).
John has symptoms of an STD (burning sensation while urinating and a yellowish discharge from the urethra)that popped up 3 days after sexual contact with a questionable partner.Based on his symptoms and this timing,John probably has which STD?
This STD can cause genital warts.
Which STD can cause a rash over the entire body?
Several STDs can be transmitted by oral sex.Name one. For which STD is there now a vaccine available for females?
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33
Chapter 32: Autism Spectrum Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the diagnostic criteria for ASDs?
A)impairments in social behavior
B)impairments in communication
C)aggressive behaviors
D)repetitive behaviors
Q2) Children who have an ASD in which they can speak at length about their favorite topics would be diagnosed with ________.
A)autism
B)Asperger syndrome
C)PDD-NOS
D)fragile X syndrome
Q3) The most reliable diagnostic tool for autism spectrum disorders is ________.
A)neuroimaging
B)observation
C)genetic testing
D)the use of screening tests
Q4) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs?
Q5) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
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Q6) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.
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Chapter 33: Stem Cells a Repair Kit for the Body
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Q1) Which statement best describes the difference between therapeutic and reproductive cloning?
A)Therapeutic cloning involves producing medications, while reproductive cloning is used for in vitro fertilization procedures.
B)Therapeutic cloning produces cells that are not genetically identical to their source, while reproductive cloning produces cells that are genetically identical to their source.
C)Therapeutic cloning is used to produce stem cells that can be coerced into differentiating into a specific cell type, while reproductive cloning is used to produce organisms identical to what they were cloned from.
D)There really aren't any differences between therapeutic and reproductive cloning.
Q2) As stem cell research rapidly developed,it became a political and ethical issue.Describe how the ethical and political approach towards stem cell research has changed in the past decade.
Q3) Describe several potential applications for embryonic stem cell research.
Q4) How is a stem cell different from a "normal" cell? (Use a liver cell as an example.)
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Chapter 34: Cancer
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Q1) An allele known as BRCA1 is often found in women with breast and ovarian cancer.However,some women develop these cancers and do not have the BRCA1 allele.In addition,some women who have BRCA1 never develop breast or ovarian cancer.How can this be explained?
A)This must be an example of pleiotropy.
B)These types of cancers are in no way associated with specific alleles.
C)Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops.
D)The BRCA1 allele must be dominant.
Q2) In order to be successful,chemotherapy drugs have to stop cell division.The most likely method for this would be to ________.
A)denature all the enzymes in the cell so division can't occur
B)speed up the cell cycle in the cancerous cells
C)stop cellular respiration so the cancerous cells don't have energy
D)interfere with the function of the spindle fibers
Q3) How does chemotherapy work as a treatment for cancer? Why is it not always effective?
Q4) ________ can be detected through a blood test that detects a specific antigen called PSA.
Q5) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
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