Life Science Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Life Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course introduces foundational biological concepts, including cell biology, genetics, physiology, ecology, and evolution. Students will examine the mechanisms that drive life processes at molecular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. Through lectures, laboratory work, and real-world examples, the course emphasizes scientific inquiry, experimental techniques, and the relevance of life sciences in health, the environment, and biotechnology. By the end of the course, students will have a comprehensive understanding of how living systems interact with each other and their environments, preparing them for further study or careers in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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39 Chapters
3055 Verified Questions
3055 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is Life
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a correct sequence of steps in the scientific method?
A)Observation - form hypothesis - draw conclusions - design an experiment
B)Observation - draw conclusion - design an experiment - form hypothesis
C)Observation - form hypothesis - design an experiment - collect data
D)Form hypothesis - observation - design an experiment - collect data
E)Form hypothesis - observation - collect data - design an experiment
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are dependent variables in this experiment?
A)The amount of ammonium nitrate and light
B)The amount of ammonium nitrate
C)The amount of light
D)The height of the plants
E)The height of the plants and amount of light
Answer: D
Q3) In an experiment designed to determine if a fertilizer increased crop yield in tomato plants,the number of tomatoes produced by each plant would be the independent variable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The polymers with the most complex and diverse three-dimensional structure are:
A)Saturated fats
B)Unsaturated fats
C)Proteins
D)Waxes
E)Carbohydrates
Answer: C
Q2) Which is not a lipid?
A)A triglyceride
B)A phospholipid
C)A wax
D)A sterol
E)A starch molecule
Answer: E
Q3) Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) What fundamental question were the scientists in these projects asking?
A)Were tubulin and actin in ancestors common to prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
B)Were tubulin and actin in ancestors common to eukaryotes?
C)Are tubulin and actin in eukaryotes?
D)What is the structure of bacterial tubulin and actin?
E)Will bacterial tubulin and actin function in a eukaryotic cell?
Answer: A
Q2) A junction that is a protein channel linking the cytoplasms of adjacent cells is called:
A)A tight junction
B)A gap junction
C)An adhering junction
D)An anchoring junction
E)A micro tubular junction
Answer: B
Q3) Most living cells are small in size because they need a large ratio of surface area to volume.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sodium-potassium pump catalyzes:
A)Osmosis
B)Facilitated diffusion
C)Diffusion
D)Equilibrium
E)Active transport
Q2) Which condition in the environment of the cell would affect the charge on amino acids in the active site of an enzyme?
A)Temperature
B)Salt concentration
C)pH
D)Antibiotics
E)Substrate concentration
Q3) An example (examples)of potential energy is (are):
A)Chemical bonds and concentration gradients
B)Light and chemical bonds
C)Concentration gradients
D)Chemical bonds
E)Light
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burning a log is the reverse reaction found in photosynthesis.What products would be formed in burning a log?
A)Carbon dioxide and water
B)Glucose and oxygen
C)Oxygen and carbon dioxide
D)Oxygen and water
E)Carbon dioxide and glucose
Q2) The proportion of oxygen in our atmosphere today is about:
A)30%.
B)2%.
C)5%.
D)10%.
E)20%.
Q3) Examples of accessory pigments for photosynthesis are:
A)chlorophyll b and carotenoids.
B)chlorophyll a and carotenoids.
C)chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b.
D)carotenoids, chlorophyll b and chlorophyll a.
E)mitochondria.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plants are:
A)Net O<sub>2</sub> consumers and CO<sub>2</sub> producers
B)Net O<sub>2</sub> producers and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers
C)Net O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> producers
D)Net O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers
Q2) The net ATP production in glycolysis is only two because:
A)Two molecules of ATP are needed to "activate" glucose
B)Two molecules of ATP are used to move NADH into the mitochondria
C)That is all the ATP produced during glycolysis
D)ATP production cannot exceed NADH production
E)Glycolysis may occur without oxygen being present
Q3) Anaerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs when protons pass through ATP synthase and combine with oxygen to make water.
Q5) In prokaryotic cells the electron transport system occurs in the mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA differs from DNA in that:
A)RNA contains ribose
B)RNA contains uracil
C)All are correct
D)RNA is usually single stranded
E)RNA can catalyze chemical reactions
Q2) Using the genetic code shown here,predict what type of mutation has occurred in the hemoglobin sickle cell anemia allele. Normal allele 5' - GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC - 3'
Mutant allele 5' - GGAAUGAAACAGGUACCC - 3'
A)A point mutation, Val to Glu
B)A frame shift
C)Addition of a new stop codon
D)A point mutation, Glu to Val
Q3) The type of RNA that carries the information that specifies a protein is:
A)Transfer RNA
B)Ribosomal RNA
C)Messenger RNA
D)Double-stranded RNA
E)Complementary RNA
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Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Apoptosis is also called:
A)Replication
B)Mitosis
C)Programmed cell death
D)The cell cycle
E)Programmed cellular reproduction
Q2) A replicated chromosome consists of two "sister chromatids."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Based on the structure of the DNA backbone you would predict the surface of histones to be:
A)Negatively charged
B)Positively charged
C)Neutral
D)Hydrophobic
E)Hydrophilic
Q4) The process used to determine the order of bases in DNA is DNA sequencing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans during meiosis,a diploid germ cell reduces its chromosome number by half to generate __________ haploid nuclei.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)23
E)46
Q2) In humans,the sex of a child is determined by:
A)The sex chromosome in the egg
B)The number of autosomes in the sperm
C)The number of autosomes in the egg
D)The sex chromosome in the sperm
E)The number of X chromosomes in the egg
Q3) In meiosis,homologous chromosomes align next to one another during:
A)Interphase one
B)Metaphase two
C)Prophase one
D)Metaphase one
E)Prophase two
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sexual life cycle has two main events: meiosis and gamete formation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pea plant with (Tt)as its genotype should be referred to as:
A)The wild type
B)Homozygous short
C)Heterozygous tall
D)Homozygous tall
E)Heterozygous short
Q3) If you cross two pea plants,one with green peas and the other with yellow peas.All of the offspring have yellow peas.The yellow and green parental plants:
A)Both have the same alleles for pea color
B)Both have the same gene for pea color
C)Have different genes for pea color
D)Have different loci for pea color
E)Have different numbers of chromosomes
Q4) Genotypes are the outward expression of an allele combination.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The geologist who,in 1830,renewed the idea of uniformitarianism by showing that gradual changes in some organisms could be represented in successive fossil layers was:
A)Charles Darwin
B)Charles Lyell
C)James Hutton
D)Jean Lamarck
E)Georges Buffon
Q2) The mode of natural selection in which two or more extreme phenotypes are fitter than the intermediate phenotype is:
A)Directive selection
B)Stabilizing selection
C)Disruptive selection
D)Artificial selection
E)Convergent selection
Q3) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection resulting from variation in the ability to obtain mates.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) If climate change leads to a warmer,drier climate in the Galapagos Islands,what would happen to the medium ground finches that eat smaller seeds?
A)The frequency of the allele for larger beaks will become more common
B)The frequency of the allele for smaller beaks will become more common
C)There will be no change in the frequency of the allele for larger beaks
D)Adult finches will grow larger beaks to eat the seeds
E)Adult finches will shrink their beaks to eat the seeds
Q2) Earth once consisted of a single large landmass and one ocean.The landmass is named:
A)Panthalassa
B)Pangaea
C)Laurasia
D)Gondwana
E)Ultima Continenta
Q3) A fossil is defined as any evidence of an organism from:
A)At least 500 years ago
B)At least 1000 years ago
C)At least 25,000 years ago
D)At least 10,000 years ago
E)At least 100,000 years ago
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Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of prezygotic reproductive isolation?
A)Temporal isolation
B)Gametic isolation
C)Hybrid infertility
D)Ecological isolation
E)Mechanical isolation
Q2) Tortoises colonizing the different Gala pagos islands and evolving into different species is an example of ____ speciation.
A)prezygotic
B)allopatric
C)postzygotic
D)sympatric
E)parapatric
Q3) "mtDNA" represents DNA only from the mother's lineage because:
A)Males do not contain mitochondria in their cells
B)The mitochondria of sperm cells are destroyed once they enter egg cells
C)Sperm cells usually do not donate mitochondria to eggs during fertilization
D)The DNA of mitochondria from sperm cells is inactivated once inside the egg cell
E)All are correct
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15
Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first vertebrates to leave fossil evidence,jawless fishes appeared during this time:
A)Cambrian period
B)Ordovician period
C)Silurian period
D)Devonian period
E)Carboniferous period
Q2) Ediacaran organisms:
A)Have been thought to be ferns, worms, or fungi
B)Lived during the Precambrian period
C)Lived from about 600 million years ago to about 540 million years ago
D)Did not leave any modern day descendants
E)All are correct
Q3) Which of the following allowed Homo sapiens to develop complex cultures unlike other members of the Homo genus?
A)The ability to walk upright
B)The development of agriculture
C)The ability to migrate out of Africa
D)Changes in skin color
E)The ability to use stone tools
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious protein is a:
A)Virus
B)Viroid
C)Prion
D)Virion
E)Prophage
Q2) A patient receiving a protease inhibitor and AZT is probably being treated for an infection by:
A)A bacterium
B)A protozoan
C)A DNA virus
D)A retrovirus
E)A fungus
Q3) Hepatitis A and C contain an RNA genome while hepatitis B contains a DNA genome.What could you conclude about these hepatitis viruses?
A)They do not all share a common ancestor
B)They do not all affect the liver
C)They all have the same symptoms
D)They all have the same mode of transmission
E)They all have the same rate of occurrence
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Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would methicillin resistance arise in a strain of S.aureus?
A)The methicillin would cause mutations in the bacteria, allowing them to survive
B)The bacteria would sense the methicillin and mutate their DNA to survive
C)The bacteria would mate during asexual reproduction, and some of their offspring could be resistant to the methicilin
D)The bacteria would stop making a cell wall and thus be resistant to the methicillin
E)Bacteria with pre-existing mutations would survive and reproduce
Q2) The structure that assembles proteins in the prokaryote is the:
A)Plasmid
B)Ribosome
C)Cell membrane
D)Endospore
E)Lysosome
Q3) Many prokaryotes play vital roles in global nutrient cycles.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molds are unlike fungi in that water molds have diploid filaments and cell walls containing cellulose; whereas fungi have haploid filaments and cell walls containing chitin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In malaria,Plasmodium falciparum grow inside of human cells.As such they are which of the following?
A)Autotrophs
B)Heterotrophs
C)Phototrophs
D)Heterotrophs and autotrophs
E)Autotrophs and phototrophs
Q3) All protists are single-celled.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alternation of generations means having alternating multicelled haploid and diploid phases in a life cycle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bryophytes the sporophyte is conspicuous or dominant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In flowering plants:
A)The gametophyte is larger than the sporophyte
B)The gametophyte can grow independently of the sporophyte
C)The gametophyte is both smaller than the sporophyte and can grow independently
D)The gametophyte is smaller than the sporophyte
E)The gametophyte is both larger than the sporophyte and can grow independently
Q3) The part of the plant that absorbs water and nutrients is the:
A)Stomata
B)Root
C)Xylem
D)Phloem
E)Cuticle
Q4) Stomata allow plants to exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) In figure 19.22,did the age of the leaf at the time of treatment affect the ability of endophytes to protect the plants?
A)No, the mature leaves treated with endophytes had about the same level of damage as young leaves without endophytes
B)Yes, young leaves were more susceptible to damage even in the presence of endophytes
C)No, the endophytes could protect the plants if applied to young or old leaves
D)Yes, the mature leaves treated with endophytes showed the highest level of damage
E)Yes, the young leaves with endophytes had less damage than the mature leaves with endophytes
Q2) An endophyte absorbing nutrients and water from a live cacao leaf is which of the following?
A)A decomposer
B)An autotroph
C)A detritovore
D)A producer
E)A heterotroph
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Chapter 20: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tiktaalik either crawled or paddled in shallow tropical streams about 380 mya,during the late Devonian period.These shallow waters often became anaerobic.What selective advantage would Tiktaalik have under these conditions?
A)It could lift its head out of the water and breathe air through its gills
B)It could crawl out of the water and walk over to new shallow streams
C)It could swim better than fish
D)It could crawl on shore and feed on birds and reptiles that were on land
E)It could lift its head out of the water and breathe air through its lungs
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a mammal?
A)Dolphin
B)Platypus
C)Kangaroo
D)Penguin
E)Whale
Q3) At different stages in development a frog may have gills or lungs.Gills and lungs both exchange gases with the atmosphere and are homologous structures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shoot of a plant is the above ground part of a plant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary root of a plant that enlarges and persists throughout the life of the plant is:
A)A fibrous root
B)A companion root
C)Rhizome
D)Stolon
E)A taproot
Q3) What was the researchers' conclusion?
A)Any ants that occupy domata protect the trees from herbivores
B)Tramp ants eat the leaves of plants with domata
C)Tramp ants that occupy domata protect the trees from herbivores
D)Herbivores are more likely to eat the leaves of plants with domata
E)Nectar attracts herbivores and prevents them from eating the leaves
Q4) Herbaceous plants are those that contain little or no woody tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water is pulled from a plant's roots to its leaves by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carnivorous plants like Sarracenia purpurea are which of the following?
A)Producers and detritivores
B)Producers
C)Producers and consumers
D)Consumers
E)Detritivores
Q3) In the pressure flow theory,any part of a plant that does not carry out photosynthesis is a:
A)Source
B)Sink
C)Reservoir
D)Aqueduct
E)Companion cell
Q4) Most plants prevent nighttime transpiration but plants like cacti open their stomata at night so that transpiration can occur.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of a flower that receives the pollen is the:
A)Style
B)Anther
C)Ovary
D)Stigma
E)Sepal
Q2) In all major groups of multicellular organisms _______________ produces the cells that begin the haploid generation,and _________________ unites the gametes to begin the diploid generation.
A)Mitosis, pollination
B)Meiosis, fertilization
C)Pollination, fertilization
D)Fertilization, meiosis
E)Fertilization, mitosis
Q3) Abscisic acid is a plant hormone that activates a plant's defenses against predators.
A)True
B)False
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tissue type that functions in acting as a lining or covering of organs and absorption,gas diffusion,and secretion is:
A)Connective
B)Nervous
C)Muscle
D)Epithelial
E)All are correct
Q2) An organ is defined as consisting of two or more interacting tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of epithelial tissue that forms a single layer of cube-shaped cells is:
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple cuboidal
C)Stratified cuboidal
D)Simple columnar
E)Stratified columnar
Q4) All connective tissues except blood contain fibroblasts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of a neuron where most neural impulses begin that has a higher concentration of sodium channels than the cell body or dendrite is a:
A)Trigger zone
B)Axon
C)Synapse
D)Schwann cell
E)Node of Ranvier
Q2) The part of the central nervous system that conducts information to and from the brain is the:
A)Motor neuron
B)Spinal cord
C)Sensory neuron
D)Brainstem
E)Medulla oblongata
Q3) During an action potential:
A)Sodium ions rush out of the cell switching the potential to +35 millivolts
B)Sodium ions rush into the cell switching the potential to -70 millivolts
C)Sodium ions rush into the cell switching the potential to +35 millivolts
D)Sodium ions rush out of the cell switching the potential to -70 millivolts
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Chapter 26: The Senses Content
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Sample Questions
Q1) In humans,which of the following is used primarily to detect position of limbs and other body parts?
A)Proprioreceptor
B)Mechanoreceptor
C)Pain receptor
D)Chemoreceptor
E)Electroreceptor
Q2) Which of the following is true of olfactory cells and taste buds?
A)Olfactory cells contain all of the possible olfactory receptors while taste buds can sense all of the primary tastes
B)Olfactory cells express a single olfactory receptor while taste buds can sense only one of the primary tastes
C)Olfactory cells express a single olfactory receptor while taste buds can sense all of the primary tastes
D)Olfactory cells contain all of the possible olfactory receptors while taste buds can sense only one of the primary tastes
Q3) The retina transduces light energy into action potentials.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Type II diabetes,specialized cells in the pancreas fail to produce insulin and release it into the blood stream.
A)True
B)False
Q2) LH and FSH normally do which of the following?
A)Stimulate estrogen and progesterone production by the pituitary
B)Inhibit estrogen and progesterone production by the uterus
C)Inhibit estrogen and progesterone production by the pituitary
D)They have no effect on estrogen or progesterone production
E)Stimulate estrogen and progesterone production by the uterus
Q3) Lipid-soluble steroid hormones are synthesized from ________________.
A)Cholesterol
B)Amino acids
C)Nucleotides
D)Proteins with large amounts of tryptophan
E)Sucrose
Q4) Neurotransmitters and hormones never share the same target cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skeleton functions in:
A)Production of blood cells
B)Supporting the body
C)Protecting the body
D)Movement
E)All are correct
Q2) A disorder of old age in which joint cartilage wears away,exposing bone to bone is:
A)Acromegaly
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Scoliosis
D)Osteoporosis
E)Osteoarthritis
Q3) The molecule that rapidly replenishes ATP at the beginning of muscle activity is:
A)Actin
B)Creatine phosphate
C)Dystrophin
D)Acetylcholine
E)Myosin
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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would you expect to observe in a person with atherosclerosis?
A)Increased blood pressure
B)Decreased heart rate
C)Increased depolarization of the atria
D)Decreased depolarization of the ventricles
E)Increased blood flow through the coronary arteries
Q2) Which drugs would be prescribed to a person who has high blood pressure?
A)Aspirin
B)A beta-blocker
C)A beta-blocker and a diuretic
D)A diuretic
E)Aspirin and a diuretic
Q3) The renal artery delivers blood to the pancreas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sinoatrial node,also called the pacemaker,sets the tempo of the heart beat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liquid component of blood is referred to as:
A)Lymph
B)Cytosol
C)Interstitial fluid
D)Plasma
E)Intracellular fluid
Q2) In the systemic circulation,____________________ is expelled from the blood and __________________ is picked up.
A)Oxygen, nitrogen
B)Carbon dioxide, nitrogen
C)Carbon dioxide, oxygen
D)Oxygen, carbon dioxide
E)Nitrogen, oxygen
Q3) Which of the following respiratory diseases can be caused by a bacterial infection?
A)The common cold
B)Tuberculosis
C)Pneumonia
D)Tuberculosis and pneumonia
E)The common cold and tuberculosis
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of bile is to:
A)Digest proteins
B)Digest carbohydrates
C)Emulsify fats
D)Digest nucleotides
E)Emulsify proteins
Q2) Which of the following is caused by a vitamin B1 (Thiamine)deficiency?
A)Scurvy
B)Rickets
C)Pellagra
D)Beriberi
E)Pernicious anemia
Q3) A person with pancreatitis would be predicted to have which of the following symptoms?
A)Decreased insulin and bile acid production
B)Decreased insulin production
C)Decreased digestive enzyme production
D)Decreased insulin and digestive enzyme production
E)Decreased bile acid production
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) In figure 32.16 the authors looked for a correlation between which two variables?
A)Mass and nasal cross section
B)Mass and endothermy
C)Being extinct and mass
D)Endothermy and nasal cross section
E)Presence of a turbinate and nasal cross section
Q2) Kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney and can be triggered by dehydration for which reason?
A)Salt concentrations increase as blood volume increases
B)Salt concentrations drop as blood volume drops
C)Salt concentrations increase as blood volume drops
D)Salt concentrations drop as blood volume increases
Q3) The steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that raises blood pressure is:
A)Epinephrine
B)Aldosterone
C)FSH
D)Insulin
E)Testosterone
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Chapter 33: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primary "antigen presenting cell," a cell that presents an antigen to a helper T cell,is a:
A)B cell
B)T cell
C)Macrophage
D)Plasma cell
E)Chondrocyte
Q2) A phagocyte is a:
A)Cell that engulfs other cells and debris
B)Cell that primarily is used to produce antibodies
C)Cell that produces white blood cells
D)Cell that produces platelets
E)Cell that transports oxygen to tissues
Q3) The region of an antibody molecule that recognizes and binds to an antigen is the:
A)Hinge region
B)Variable region
C)Constant region
D)Base of the antibody molecule
E)Heavy chain only
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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) How did the authors measure if a male was successful in fertilizing a female?
A)By watching to see if the male mated with the female
B)By comparing the baby cuttlefish with the father to look for similarities
C)By removing the other males from the area
D)By using DNA paternity testing
E)By measuring the time the male spent guarding a female
Q2) In human males,the different types of male sex hormones are collectively called:
A)Estrogens
B)Growth hormones
C)Progesterones
D)Androgens
E)Follicle stimulating hormones
Q3) Cilia sweep the released mature oocytes from ovaries into the:
A)Cervix
B)Uterine tubes
C)Pubic symphysis
D)Uterus
E)Vagina
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Chapter 35: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A homing pigeon that uses landmarks to find its way back to its nest is engaging in:
A)Magnetic orientation
B)True navigation
C)Solar navigation
D)Piloting
E)Stellar navigation
Q2) Response to a predator is a type of innate behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Animals that mark and defend a home range against other animals are exhibiting:
A)Imprinting
B)Taxis behavior
C)Habituation
D)Symbiotic behavior
E)Territorial behavior
Q4) A meerkat sentry is not an example of altruistic behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A population with a large fraction of post-reproductive individuals:
A)Is common in less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size
B)Is common in more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size
C)Is common in more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size
D)Is common in less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size
Q2) Emigration is the migration out of a particular area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An example of a density-independent factors that affects a population's growth is:
A)Insects eating your tomato plants
B)Your tomato plants competing for water
C)A fungus infecting your tomato plants
D)Frost killing all of your tomato plants
E)All are correct
Q4) In the population growth equation G = rN,"r" is the per capita rate of growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycorrhizal fungi obtain food from plants in exchange for water and nutrients.This is an example of:
A)Commensalism
B)Parasitism
C)Mutualism
D)Predation
E)Herbivory
Q2) Lichens live on the side of trees,getting better access to the sun,with no apparent harm to the tree.This is an example of:
A)Commensalism
B)Mutualism
C)Parasitism
D)Predation
E)Herbivory
Q3) A network of interconnected food chains is a food web.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Energy is constantly being recycled within an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: The Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of tundra?
A)High latitude
B)Permafrost
C)Contains conifers
D)Contains mosses and lichens
E)Short growing season for plants
Q2) A coral is ____________.
A)A plant called a cnidarian
B)An animal called a cnidarian
C)An animal called a sponge
D)A plant called a sponge
E)Abiotic
Q3) Scientists have reported that hurricane intensity has increased over the past 35 years,coinciding with increasing sea temperature.Why would climate change lead to an increase in hurricane intensity?
A)Increase in sea level due to melting of the polar ice caps
B)Increased evaporation of water into the atmosphere
C)Increased condensation of water falling as snow over the mainland
D)Increased temperatures at higher latitudes
E)Increased conversion of grassland biomes to desert
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Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Montreal Protocol,an international treaty,banned the use of:
A)DDT
B)Steroid hormones
C)ICBMs
D)Ethylene glycol
E)CFCs
Q2) Major human damage to the everglades began with the building of ___________ large canals between 1903 and 1917 to drain the area to prevent flooding.
A)Ten
B)Eight
C)Six
D)Two
E)Four
Q3) Red and brown tides resulting from algal blooms may kill sea life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Conservation biologists study the preservation of biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
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