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Labor Relations explores the dynamic relationship between employers, employees, and the unions that represent them. The course examines the history, structure, and function of labor unions, as well as the legal and regulatory frameworks governing collective bargaining, labor contracts, and dispute resolution. Students will analyze the roles of management and labor in negotiating wages, working conditions, and benefits, and will consider the impact of globalization, technology, and changing economic conditions on labor relations. Through case studies and practical applications, the course develops critical understanding of workplace conflict, grievance procedures, and the strategies used to promote peaceful and productive labor-management relations.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Human Resource Management 5th Edition by Gary Dessler
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike HR managers of the past,modern HR managers must be able to ________.
A) hire workers who are well-matched to a firm's HR needs
B) assist with employee training in departments within a firm
C) develop and implement a firm's long-term business strategies
D) explain HR activities in terms of a firm's finances and productivity
Answer: D
Q2) What duties are required of most HR managers? How have the duties of HR managers changed from 30 years ago?
Answer: Most HR managers conduct job analyses,recruit job candidates,train employees,compensate employees,and communicate with employees and other managers.Modern HR managers are expected to have the ability to understand and apply information with which to contribute to the organization's strategic plan.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a set of HR management policies and practices that together produce superior employee performance?
A) career management system
B) in-house development system
C) high-performance work system
D) management assessment system
Answer: C
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Q1) The most direct way to prove sexual harassment is showing that a tangible employment action is dependent on sexual favors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the tendency to view members of other social groups less favorably than one's own?
A) stereotyping
B) discrimination
C) tokenism
D) ethnocentrism
Answer: D
Q3) The Pregnancy Discrimination Act treats pregnancy as a(n)________.
A) disability
B) uncovered disease
C) unspecified condition
D) gender-specific condition
Answer: A
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Q1) What is a competitive advantage? How does HR management affect a firm's competitive advantage? In your answer,provide examples of competitive advantages held by specific firms.
Answer: We can define competitive advantage as any factors that allow a company to differentiate its product or service from those of its competitors to increase market share.Every successful company needs competitive advantages to differentiate its product or service from those of its competitors.Apple has creative employees producing innovative products.Southwest Airlines achieves its low-cost leader goals with employment policies that produce the motivated workforce it needs to turn planes around quickly.The human resource manager must put in place the right mix of recruitment,selection,training,and other HR strategies,policies,and practices.
Q2) Compiling information about a company's environment is more easily accomplished with a SWOT chart than an environmental scanning worksheet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) What form of data collection most likely involves recording work activities into a handheld dictating machine?
A) diaries
B) interviews
C) observations
D) questionnaires
Q2) Anita,an HR manager,is in the process of conducting a job analysis.She has just finished selecting a sample of representative positions.What should Anita do next?
A) develop a job description that includes working conditions and responsibilities
B) contact supervisors to verify employees' tasks, responsibilities, and working conditions
C) interview employees to gather information about the job's duties and responsibilities
D) conduct a workflow analysis and develop a diagrammatic process chart for each job
Q3) How can job descriptions help employers comply with the ADA? What factors should be considered when determining the essential functions of a job?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is created for each position in a company to show possible replacement candidates and their qualifications?
A) computerized forecast
B) skills inventory record
C) position replacement card
D) personnel replacement matrix
Q2) Which of the following is NOT information that should be requested on application forms?
A) level of education
B) work experience
C) technical skills
D) marital status
Q3) All of the following are benefits associated with applicant tracking systems EXCEPT
A) reducing recruiting costs
B) implementing training programs
C) finding and hiring better employees
D) identifying effective recruitment sources
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Q1) Which of the following tests measures what someone has learned?
A) achievement test
B) job knowledge test
C) cognitive ability test
D) aptitude test
Q2) According to the ADA,when is a medical exam permissible?
A) before the initial job interview
B) between the job interview and the job offer
C) between the job offer and the commencement of work
D) after the commencement of work
Q3) A test that is criterion valid contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question.
A)True
B)False
Q4) E-Verify is used by employers to ________.
A) access an applicant's credit history
B) file an applicant's income tax information
C) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.
D) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government
Q5) How do nonverbal behaviors affect interviewer ratings of candidates?
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Q1) Which of the following would most likely make material presented during a training program more meaningful to trainees?
A) using familiar examples
B) providing guest speakers
C) providing short breaks
D) encouraging group work
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of employee orientation?
A) The employee should become skilled with the firm's software.
B) The employee should understand the organization in a broad sense.
C) The employee should have a clear understanding of what is expected.
D) The employee should begin the process of learning the firm's preferences.
Q3) Research has shown that reorganizations fail because of all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) individual productivity increasing as employees become distracted
B) employees resisting the changes
C) insufficient resources devoted to the change effort
D) leaders resisting the changes
Q4) Outline the steps needed to bring about a change at work.
Q5) What are the desired results of a successful employee orientation program?
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Q1) Which of the following is LEAST likely to protect employers against bias claims stemming from the use of the forced distribution method?
A) appointing a committee to review low rankings
B) basing scores on industry standards
C) training raters to be objective
D) using multiple raters
Q2) Central tendency is a problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The continuous process of identifying,measuring,and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals is known as ________.
A) employee performance monitoring
B) performance management
C) performance appraisal
D) performance analysis
Q4) What are the advantages and disadvantages of using upward feedback?
Q5) Describe the manager's role in performance management
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Q1) During a merger and acquisition,it is especially important for managers to be sensitive to employees who are dismissed so that ________.
A) lawsuits stemming from ADA and OSHA violations can be avoided
B) remaining employees will remain productive and committed
C) exit interviews will reveal positive details about the firm
D) bumped employees can continue being promoted
Q2) Which term refers to a planned learning event in which participants evaluate occupational trends,perform self-assessment exercises,set goals,and develop action plans?
A) employee orientation
B) team building retreat
C) career planning workshop
D) competency-based peer review
Q3) Kareem,a college student,has just completed the Self-Directed Search test.By taking the test,Kareem is most likely trying to ________.
A) apply for a job
B) determine labor trends
C) assess cognitive strengths
D) identify suitable occupations
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Q1) When using the job classification method of job evaluation,raters categorize jobs into groups of similar jobs called ________.
A) classes
B) grades
C) sections
D) cohorts
Q2) Kayla,an HR manager,is in the process of creating a market-competitive pay plan.For an accounting job at the firm,she has assigned the following weights: 70% for job complexity,25% for effort,and 5% for working conditions.What is the next step Kayla must take in the process?
A) drawing the internal and external wage curves
B) converting percentage weights into point values
C) defining the degree for each compensable factor
D) reviewing job descriptions and specifications
Q3) Which job evaluation method is considered the simplest and least expensive?
A) job classification method
B) comparison method
C) ranking method
D) point method
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Q1) Which term refers to the money that an employer and employee have placed in the employee's pension fund that cannot be forfeited for any reason?
A) thrift plans
B) vested funds
C) stock options
D) cash balance funds
Q2) Which of the following would most likely be used by a firm that wants to retain the services of a top manager for a specified period of time?
A) restricted stock plan
B) golden parachute plan
C) stock appreciation rights
D) performance-contingent restricted stock
Q3) According to research,which of the following has a significant impact on employee engagement?
A) performance reviews
B) variable pay plans
C) job design
D) awards
Q4) What are the advantages of employee stock ownership plans?
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Q1) The standards an individual uses to decide what his or her conduct should be are known as common law.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Moral disengagement frees people from the guilt they would normally feel after violating their ethical standards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many employers give employees a process and procedure through which to communicate unfair treatment.This process and procedure is known as a(n)________ procedure.
A) officer complaint
B) board of review
C) management review
D) grievance review
Q4) Explain the meaning of the Evil Woman Thesis and its implications for managers.
Q5) What can managers do to ensure that discipline is fair and effective?
Q6) What is organizational culture? How can managers influence the ethical nature of a firm's culture?
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Q7) How can an employer use communication tools to improve employee relations?

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Q1) All of the following are negotiating guidelines EXCEPT ________.
A) acting fairly but firmly
B) controlling emotions
C) compromising
D) working quickly
Q2) Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
A) fact finding
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) interest arbitration
Q3) In a preferential shop,union members do not get preference in hiring,and the employer can still hire nonunion members.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Landrum-Griffin Act encouraged union activity by guaranteeing each employee the right to bargain collectively without interference,restraint,or coercion.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) How can screening reduce unsafe acts in the workplace?
Q2) When managers identify a trait associated with workplace accidents and then use this trait as part of the selection process for new hires,they are using ________ to reduce unsafe acts.
A) job rotation
B) screening
C) training
D) incentives
Q3) All of the following are covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act EXCEPT ________.
A) federal agents
B) hospital nurses
C) public school teachers
D) self-employed persons
Q4) The majority of women murdered in the workplace are the victims of ________.
A) unknown assailants
B) family members
C) co-workers
D) friends
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Q5) How can accidents in the workplace be prevented? List and describe five ways.