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IT in Business Management explores the critical role of information technology in the modern business environment, emphasizing how digital tools and systems support efficient operations, data-driven decision making, and competitive strategy. The course examines topics such as enterprise resource planning (ERP), customer relationship management (CRM), digital transformation, and cybersecurity, with a focus on how managers leverage IT to streamline business processes, enhance communication, and drive innovation. Students gain practical insights into IT project management, emerging technologies, and the ethical and legal considerations of technology adoption in organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Experiencing MIS 7th Edition by
David M. Kroenke
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30 Chapters
1854 Verified Questions
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Q1) What is experimentation? Explain its importance.
Answer: Experimentation is making a reasoned analysis of an opportunity, envisioning potential solutions, evaluating those possibilities, and developing the most promising ones, consistent with the resources one has.Fear of failure paralyzes many good people and many good ideas.This can be overcome by having the ability to experiment.
Q2) According to the U.S.Bureau of Labor Statistics, all good computer jobs have gone overseas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Successful experimentation is characterized by the investment of huge sums of money at every idea that enters one's head.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The knowledge of managing information systems can lead to greater job security. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of the dimensions to measure process quality?
A)Process effectiveness is determined by the ratio of benefits to costs.
B)An effective business process enables an organization to accomplish its strategy.
C)If two versions of a business process create the same benefit, the higher cost version is more efficient.
D)Cost of infrastructure is not included under cost of business process.
Answer: B
Q2) An effective business process enables an organization to accomplish its strategy. A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Data flows represent the movement of data from one activity to another. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) According to Porter, all information systems in the organization must facilitate the organization's competitive strategy to be effective.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Distinguish between a primary and a support activity in the value chain.
Answer: Primary activities are business functions that relate directly to the production of an organization's products or services.Primary activities include inbound logistics, operations, customer service, and sales and marketing.These activities add value to a product.Support activities are business functions that assist and facilitate the primary activities.Supporting functions add value to a product indirectly.They also have costs and contribute to a margin.It is difficult to calculate their margins because the specific value added is difficult to measure.
Q3) Enhancing existing products and services is a competitive advantage created by the implementation of business processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following refers to software that is developed for a specific and unique need?
A)simulation software
B)horizontal-market application software
C)one-of-a-kind application software
D)open source software
Q2) The speed and costs of central processing units are the same across multiple hardware vendors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly describe the functions and working of a central processing unit (CPU).
Q4) The central processing unit is referred to as the brain of a computer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Saving one's work frequently is advised to tackle the issue of memory volatility. A)True
B)False
Q6) How do open source projects work? How is it different from closed source projects?
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Q1) Databases are required to keep track of lists with multiple themes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a database management system (DBMS)? Explain with suitable examples.
Q3) Bytes are grouped into rows in a database.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most organizations develop their own database management systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the elements in a database.
Q6) In a database, columns are also called ________.
A)records
B)tables
C)files
D)fields
Q7) The administrative functions of a database management system (DBMS)include backing up database data.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An internal information system built using Web services is said to be using the cloud if it ________.
A)allocates specific servers to each task
B)offers elasticity in the usage of servers
C)uses the Intranet
D)provides platform as a service (PaaS)
Q2) Content delivery networks (CDNs)increase a Web page's load time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are communications secured from snooping in a virtual private network?
Q4) The cloud-based service that provides the hardware and allows customers to load an operating system of their choice is known as ________.
A)application virtualization
B)platform as a service (PaaS)
C)infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
D)network functions virtualization (NFV)
Q5) Explain with an example how platform as a service (PaaS)works.
Q6) What is a virtual private cloud? What are its advantages?
Q7) Why is cloud hosting preferred to in-house hosting?
Q8) What is a private cloud? What are its limitations?
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Q1) The second phase of the customer life cycle is customer acquisition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is the last phase in the customer life cycle.
A)Marketing
B)Customer acquisition
C)Loss/churn
D)Relationship management
Q3) When implementing new enterprise systems in a company, process issues that may arise can be effectively resolved by ________.
A)encouraging entities at different organizational levels to create separate information systems
B)developing committees and steering groups for process management
C)bringing conciliators or arbitrators into the company to sort the issues
D)giving the responsibility of resolving issues to the company's CEO
Q4) The major issue caused by information silos is wasted file space.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain inter-enterprise information systems.
Q6) What are personal information systems?
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Q1) According to business literature, describe three types of capital that are used.
Q2) Organizations create and manage social media (SM)accounts just like typical users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Internal personnel social media sites such as MySite and MyProfile in SharePoint and other similar enterprise systems are used for ________.
A)employee recruitment
B)employee communication
C)employee evaluation
D)employee termination
Q4) How should one respond to social networking problems?
Q5) Value chains determine unstructured business processes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are social media (SM)providers?
Q7) Social media users include only individuals and not organizations that use social media sites.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) ________ are business intelligence documents that are updated at the time they are requested.
A)Subscriptions
B)Third-party cookies
C)Static reports
D)Dynamic reports
Q2) The results generated in the map phase are combined in the ________ phase.
A)pig
B)control
C)reduce
D)construct
Q3) ________ refers to the level of detail represented by data.
A)Abstraction
B)Granularity
C)Dimensionality
D)Aggregation
Q4) Data marts are usually larger than data warehouses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain supervised data mining.
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Q1) Discuss briefly the pros and cons of biometric authentication.
Q2) Explain the types of events that result in faulty service, a type of security loss.
Q3) Damages to security systems caused by natural disasters are minimal when compared to the damages due to human errors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Existence of accounts that are no longer necessary does not pose a security threat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) While making online purchases, a person should buy only from vendors who support https.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Wardrivers are those who engage in phishing to obtain unauthorized access to data. A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe an incident-response plan.
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Q1) In service-oriented outsourcing, a vendor is in the driver's seat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is a chief technology officer's responsibility to identify new technologies relevant to an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the advantages of management in outsourcing information systems.
Q4) In the context of right to reliable network and Internet services, reliable means that one can use it without problems almost all the time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the responsibilities of information systems users.
Q6) Protection of information assets is a major function of an information systems (IS)department.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What are the different functions in planning the use of information systems?
Q8) What are the major functions of an information systems (IS)department?
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Q1) According to Brooks' Law, adding more people to a late project ________.
A)makes the project later
B)decreases the overall cost
C)requires decreased staff coordination
D)increases the project's timeline
Q2) In pilot installation, a new system is installed in phases across an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a ________ installation, a new system runs alongside the old one until the new one has been tested and is fully operational.
A)pilot
B)parallel
C)phased
D)plunge
Q4) Which of the following is the most expensive style of system conversion?
A)pilot installation
B)phased installation
C)parallel installation
D)plunge installation
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Q1) ________ decisions are those that support day-to-day activities, such as the number of widgets to order from a particular vendor.
A)Managerial
B)Tactical
C)Strategic
D)Operational
Q2) The primary function of a collaboration information system is information security.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sean is in charge of setting up the new IT department at his firm.He allots the budget, and decides the number of analysts and technicians that would be required to set up the department.Sean's decisions in this case are ________.
A)behavioral
B)operational
C)managerial
D)strategic
Q4) Explain the four phases of project management.
Q5) Explain the three primary criteria for successful collaboration.
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Q1) In version control systems, shared documents are placed into shared directories called ________.
A)vaults
B)libraries
C)workspaces
D)records
Q2) Videoconferencing is likely to be less intrusive than text chat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is version management and why is it important?
Q4) Discussion forums are one of the nice-to-have features in a collaboration tool.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ are useful when a team needs to meet on some topic but everyone cannot meet at the same time.
A)Blogs
B)Discussion forums
C)Wikis
D)Surveys
Q6) Explain version control with a simple example. Page 16
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Q1) Explain the role of feature content in a quality mobile application.
Q2) Some mobile applications provide ________ chrome, which pops up in the display when appropriate.
A)context-sensitive
B)time-oriented
C)data-sensitive
D)object-oriented
Q3) Charms refers to the ability to move activities, especially long-running transactions, across devices.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mobile device is a small, lightweight, power-conserving computing device that is capable of wireless connectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ systems are information systems that support users in motion.
A)Data
B)Mobile
C)Remote
D)Web-based
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Q1) The portion of the spreadsheet to be printed can be specified using margins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the process of inserting rows and columns in Microsoft Excel.
Q3) Each cell in an Excel spreadsheet is identified by the data entered in it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rachel is working on a spreadsheet to calculate financial ratios.She tabulates the values and begins creating a formula to calculate the ratios.Which of the following signs should Rachel remember to use at the beginning of her formula?
A)plus sign
B)minus sign
C)percentage sign
D)equal sign
Q5) Selecting the $ English (U.S.)option displays numbers with a dollar sign and two decimal places.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a spreadsheet?
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Q1) The general goal of normalization is to construct tables such that every table has a single topic or theme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship is known as maximum cardinality.
A)True B)False
Q3) An identifier is an attribute whose value is associated with every entity in the data model.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A data model is a logical representation of the structure of the data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) To represent an N:M relationship between two entities, two normalized tables are sufficient.
A)True B)False
Q6) What are the different types of relationships represented in a data model?
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Q1) The option to create reports can be found in the Database Tools tab of Microsoft Access.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Any text entered as the Description of a field is displayed as help text on forms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Microsoft Access, "Integer" is a valid entry for Field Size if the Data Type is "Text."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Microsoft Access can process SQL.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In Microsoft Access, a surrogate key has no meaning to the user.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the procedure for establishing a relationship between two tables in Microsoft Access.
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Q1) To create a column chart, the data is highlighted and the Column option in the Charts section of the Insert tab is selected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Importing data from Microsoft Access to Microsoft Excel is easily achieved by clicking the Data tab and directing Excel to get the external data from Access.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of Microsoft Excel over Microsoft Access?
A)Microsoft Excel is superior for tracking orders, inventory, and equipment.
B)Microsoft Excel is superior for tracking people, such as employees and customers.
C)Microsoft Excel is superb at processing interrelated formulas and creating stylish graphics.
D)Microsoft Excel is better at creating data entry forms, queries, and professional reports.
Q4) How are group totals created in Microsoft Access?
Q5) Explain the procedure for creating graphs in Microsoft Excel.
Q6) How can Microsoft Excel be used to graph Microsoft Access data?
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Q1) Cable lines provide high-speed data transmission using phone lines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Differentiate between private and public Internet protocol (IP)addresses.Explain the benefits of the private/public IP address scheme.
Q3) The IEEE 802.3 protocol is used for wired local area network (LAN)connections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) With a wide area network (WAN), an organization can place communications lines wherever it wants because all lines reside on its premises.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)________ connects computers at different geographical locations.
A)local area network
B)wide area network
C)Ethernet
D)Econet
Q6) What is the TCP/IP Protocol architecture? Where are the various application-layer protocols?
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of Microsoft's enterprise resource planning (ERP)products?
A)Dynamics CRM is a true ERP product used by large organizations.
B)GP is the easiest of Microsoft's ERP products to install.
C)Nav is likely to continue as a general-ledger program in the future.
D)AX is developed in-house by Microsoft.
Q2) The primary purpose of an enterprise resource planning (ERP)system is integration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the future, which of the following Microsoft products is likely to be a true enterprise resource planning (ERP)product for larger organizations?
A)Solomon
B)Nav
C)AX
D)GP
Q4) Briefly explain Infor's enterprise resource planning (ERP)products.
Q5) What is the primary purpose of an enterprise resource planning (ERP)system?
Q6) Briefly describe Microsoft's enterprise resource planning (ERP)products.
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Q1) How do information systems affect supply chain performance?
Q2) Which of the following is used as the measure of supply chain speed?
A)dollar value of goods exchanged in a given period of time
B)amount of goods exchanged in a given period of time
C)total profit generated by the components of supply chain
D)time taken to transport goods from one component to another
Q3) Nathan is in charge of inventory management at a furniture manufacturing company.Given his role, Nathan will be responsible ________.
A)for the machinery used in manufacturing
B)for the evaluation of the demand for furniture for a given period
C)for the wood and aluminum used for the furniture
D)for the capital required for production
Q4) The Automated Clearing House system among banks is an example of a standardized inter-enterprise system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each level of a supply chain has a distinct source of revenue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the bullwhip effect with an example.
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Q1) Which of the following is true of social media (SM)?
A)The use of social media is an old-style, organization-centered technique.
B)Social media is used for sending messages and attempts to manage, influence, and control customers and partners.
C)Organizations know social media is popular and can be strategically beneficial.
D)Social media markets to employees and not customers.
Q2) Expert systems are easy to maintain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ indicate whether an organization has achieved its goals.
A)Vanity metrics
B)Cyclomatic complexities
C)Halstead complexities
D)Success metrics
Q4) What are the alternatives to content management applications?
Q5) Depending on an organization's strategy, it will use different social media platforms in different ways.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In RFM analysis, an R score of 5 shows that ________.
A)a customer has not made any recent purchases
B)a customer has bought the most expensive items
C)a customer has frequently ordered expensive items
D)a customer has purchased the least expensive items
Q2) The frequency of customer purchases is not a determining factor for RFM scores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the first step in the process of producing an RFM score?
A)dividing the customers according to the amount spent on purchases
B)sorting customer purchase records based on the purchase frequency
C)sorting customer purchase records by the date of most recent purchase
D)dividing customers into two groups based on the gender and giving each group a score
Q4) Groups created by decision tree algorithms are as different from each other as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the process of conducting RFM analysis.
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Q1) Steve, the branch manager at a brokerage firm, is concerned about the sudden dip in stock prices.He asks for a report on the current stock prices to analyze the incurred loss.The report Steve requires is an example of a(n)________.
A)static report
B)dynamic report
C)exception report
D)query report
Q2) Which of the following does a user receive without any activity on his or her part?
A)pull report
B)push report
C)subscription
D)alert
Q3) Which of the following types of reports allows users to dynamically change the report grouping structures?
A)query reports
B)static reports
C)dynamic reports
D)online analytical processing (OLAP)reports
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Q1) Explain the basic countermeasures to be taken by organizations to protect themselves against data breaches.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the measures to be taken by an organization in the event of a data breach?
A)The organization must delay informing its users so that the occurrence of data breach remains private.
B)The organization must not involve additional technical or law enforcement professionals, as it may lead to further damage to its data.
C)The organization must destroy the evidence of the breach to avoid future security problems.
D)The organization must respond quickly to mitigate the amount of damage hackers can do with the stolen data.
Q3) Explain how data breach occurs with an example.
Q4) What are the steps involved in an organization's plan for a data breach?
Q5) What are countermeasures? Why is it important for organizations to implement countermeasures?
Q6) Explain how hackers use information stolen from data breaches for credit card forgery.
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of functional systems?
A)They facilitate the integration of data across various business functions.
B)Two order-processing functional systems located in two different countries need not accommodate language and culture differences in a single system.
C)They ensure that organizations do not suffer from islands of automation.
D)They solve the problems of data isolation by integrating data into a database that provides a comprehensive and organization-wide view.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of localizing?
A)Translating documents is less expensive, but more time consuming than localizing computer programs.
B)Localizing computer programs primarily involves translating documents from one language to another.
C)Localization of computer programs should be planned from the beginning.
D)Localizing computer programs is easier than translating documents.
Q3) Information systems support just-in-time (JIT)inventory techniques.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the problems of inherent processes?
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Q1) ________ refers to a set of management policies, practices, and tools that developers use to maintain control over a project's resources.
A)Perceptual mapping
B)Coordination control
C)Critical path analysis
D)Configuration control
Q2) Which of the following tools shows the tasks, dates, and dependencies in a project?
A)Gantt chart
B)exception report
C)push report
D)DPlot
Q3) In case of task dependencies in a project, all tasks must begin and end at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prototypes are examples of deliverables in a systems development project.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a critical path? How is a critical path analysis done?
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Q1) Who are considered scrum team members?
Q2) According to agile development methodologies, testing never involves business customers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly outline the scrum essentials.
Q4) According to the systems development life cycle (SDLC), the progress from requirements to implementation is nonlinear.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Designing only the portions of the system that are needed to complete the current work being done is known as ________ design.
A)waterfall
B)scrum
C)just-in-time
D)frequent
Q6) According to the scrum essentials, when is a project said to be done?
Q7) In a scrum, who is a product owner?
Q8) What are the principles of agile development methodologies?
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Q1) Business processes and information systems overlap.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the three principles that relate business processes and information systems?
Q3) A business process need not use just one information system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A customer's credit is checked before checking the availability of goods in order to ________.
A)increase the rate of credit approval of customers
B)arrange for the special terms requested
C)prevent the wastage of shipping-verification labor
D)align the processes with organizational goals
Q5) The difficulty of creating an as-is process diagram depends on the sophistication of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How can a change in customers, product lines, and supply chains affect business processes?
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