Invertebrate Zoology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the diversity, biology, and evolutionary relationships of invertebrate animals, which make up the vast majority of animal life on Earth. Students will study major invertebrate phyla, examining their anatomy, physiology, development, ecology, and behavior. Emphasis is placed on comparative morphology, life cycles, adaptations to various environments, and the ecological significance of invertebrates. Laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience with specimen observation, dissections, and identification, reinforcing concepts discussed in lectures.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition by Cleveland Hickman Jr
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Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Q1) Powerful theories that guide a broad range of research are
A) scientific models.
B) scientific revolutions.
C) scientific principles.
D) scientific paradigms.
Answer: D
Q2) The statement that the large anatomical differences that separate the major groups of animals originated through the accumulation of many small incremental changes over long periods of time illustrates Darwin's theory of
A) Perpetual change
B) Multiplication of species
C) Gradualism
D) All of the choices are correct
Answer: C
Q3) Much of science is based on an approach known as the __________ method.
A) natural
B) inductive-deductive
C) hypothetical
D) hypothetico-deductive
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a steroid?
A) Vitamin D
B) Adrenocortical hormones
C) Sex hormones
D) Cholesterol
E) All of the choices are steroids
Answer: E
Q2) Nucleic acids are important because they
A) act as buffers.
B) are the basic units of neutral fats.
C) direct the synthesis of proteins.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q3) The alpha-helix is an example of the _______ structure of a protein.
Answer: secondary
Q4) Amino acids are linked together to form proteins by __________ bonds. Answer: peptide
Q5) Most biological polymerizations are ___________ dehydration reactions in which monomers are linked together by removal of water.
Answer: condensation
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Q1) During the tug-of-war during metaphase,condensed sister chromatids move to the middle of the cell and line up along a __________ ___________.
Answer: metaphasic plate
Q2) Pinocytosis involves invaginated units called ________ that contain concentrations of specific binding receptors on their surface.
Answer: caveolae
Q3) The Dutch microscopist who sent letters to the Royal Society of London describing his many detailed observations of life,including units later known to be cells,was
A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek.
B) Robert Hooke.
C) Matthais Schleiden.
D) J. Purkinje.
Answer: A
Q4) The model of the plasma membrane that provides for the fluidity of materials embedded in its surface is the Answer: fluid mosaic
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Q1) Before a chemical bond is stressed enough to break,___________ must be supplied.
Q2) The first law of thermodynamics states that
A) energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter.
B) energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another.
C) energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.
D) energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.
Q3) Why do some animals degrade amino acids to ammonia and others dispose of it as urea or uric acid?
Q4) Some desert mammals and beetles can live their life without ever drinking liquid water; they survive on "metabolic water" that
A) is absorbed from the air along with respiratory oxygen.
B) results from oxidative phosphorylation inside the mitochondria.
C) is a breakdown product from glycolysis in the cytoplasm.
D) is water that was never allowed to pass out the cell.
Q5) Outline a hypothetical scenario of the evolution of metabolism.
Q6) When exergonic and endergonic reactions are coupled,which reaction involves more energy and why are the reaction energies not exactly the same?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Q1) What is the anticodon for GCG?
A) AUA
B) UAU
C) CGC
D) AGA
Q2) Body cells and gametes typically have the diploid and ____________ number of chromosomes respectively.
Q3) What is a synaptonemal complex?
A) The internal structure of nucleoprotein that makes up a chromosome
B) A proteinaceous structure that holds together two sister chromatids
C) The spindle fibers that attach from pole to pole without binding chromosomes
D) The set of cells produced from a single original parent cell in oogenesis
Q4) What is the function of DNA ligase?
A) To carry DNA into a new cell.
B) To join the end of the new strand to the old one.
C) To make millions of copies of a specific segment of DNA for diffusion into the cytoplasm to the ribosomes.
D) To destroy damaged DNA.
Q5) Aneuploidy is the addition or subtraction of a single _____________ to or from a diploid set.
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Q1) Some creationists acknowledge that gene frequencies change in observable time (and accept microevolution)but dispute that larger "kinds" ever evolve.A biologist replies that macroevolution is merely the same processes of gene frequency change continued over a longer time.The creationist's answer is incomplete because it does not recognize what additional phenomena inherent in macroevolution?
A) Extinctions of huge numbers of taxa
B) Relationships of species at higher taxonomic levels
C) Origins of new body plans and structures
D) Evolutionary trends within lineages
E) All of the choices are studied in macroevolution but are not central to microevolution within a species
Q2) The generation of ecologically diverse species from a common ancestral stock is called ________________.
Q3) The theory that ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny was originally offered by A) Alfred Wallace.
B) K.
C) Charles Darwin.
D) Ernst Haeckel.
E) von Baer.
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Q1) Detail the sequence of events that lead a human male embryo with a Y chromosome in its cells to differentiate into normal male anatomy.
Q2) In reptiles and birds,a common chamber forming the opening of the reproductive,excretory and digestive systems is called the A) vulva.
B) aedeagus.
C) cloaca.
D) labia majora.
E) copulatrix.
Q3) The kidney of male reptiles,birds,and mammals develops an independent duct,the _______,to carry away nitrogenous waste.
Q4) In oogenesis,the sequence of the development of an egg is
A) ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, oogonium, ovum.
B) primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, oogonium, ovum.
C) oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, ovum.
D) oogonium, ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ovum.
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
Q6) Development of an embryo from an egg without the participation of a spermatozoa is called _________.
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Q1) The effect of yolk on cleavage is that
A) yolk promotes faster cleavage.
B) yolk promotes spiral cleavage in all cases.
C) yolk slows down and indirectly determines the type of cleavage to take place.
D) yolk is the origin of all cleavage planes.
Q2) The point of fertilization occurs when
A) sperm are deposited in the vagina.
B) sperm reach the outer jelly coating of the egg.
C) she sperm sheds the tail.
D) the sperm nucleus and egg nucleus unite to form a zygote.
Q3) The major group of the animal kingdom that includes animals that in their development show spiral cleavage and mosaic development is the __________.
Q4) Rotational cleavage is unique to A) amphibians.
B) mammals.
C) sea stars.
D) lophotrochozoa.
Q5) A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.
Q6) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm,mesoderm,and ectoderm.
Q7) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
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Chapter 9: Architectural Pattern of an Animal
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Q1) Blood is an example of a tissue known as
A) connective.
B) circulatory.
C) epithelial.
D) muscular.
Q2) A variety of nonnervous cells that insulate neurons and serve various supportive functions is _________.
Q3) An enterocoelous animal has
A) a true coelom.
B) a pseudocoelom.
C) no coelom.
D) a false coelom.
Q4) Your nose would be considered
A) medial, anterior, and dorsal.
B) medial, anterior, and ventral.
C) medial, posterior, and ventral.
D) lateral, anterior, and ventral.
Q5) Differentiation of a head end (found mainly in bilaterally symmetrical animals)is called _________.
Q6) A ________ plane divides an animal into right and left halves.
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) What biochemical trait varies but is present throughout all of life,allowing the construction of an estimate of phylogeny?
A) DNA in the nucleus
B) DNA in mitochondria
C) RNA in the nucleus
D) Ribosomal RNA
Q2) An entomologist discovered that two morphologically identical crickets sang completely different mating songs and this resulted in the two populations never mating.Thus they were
A) sister groups.
B) sibling species.
C) paraphyletic.
D) polyphyletic.
Q3) The time,usually on a larger or geological time scale,that a species exists before it becomes another species or goes extinct is its
A) adaptive zone.
B) reproductive cohesion.
C) geographic range.
D) evolutionary duration.
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Q1) To what extent are the cells of a colonial Volvox specialized?rev: 03_26_2014_QC_47370
A) The cells of Volvox are not specialized at all; all are equivalent in function and to be otherwise would make them like those of the metazoa.
B) Somatic cells function in nutrition and locomotion while a few "germ" cells carry out reproduction.
C) Germ cells specialize in locomotion, others in nutrition, and others in reproduction.
D) Volvox is like two organisms living together symbiotically: one set of cells handles nutrition and locomotion and reproduce their type; another type of cell handles sexual reproduction and reproduce their type.
E) A Volvox cell alternates between first being somatic, then being reproductive.
Q2) The chills and fever of malaria are correlated with
A) cycles of schizogony in the liver cells.
B) release of sporozoites from the oocysts.
C) escape of populations of merozoites from red blood cells.
D) the formation of gametocytes.
E) entrance of trophozoites into red blood cells.
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Q1) The sponges date back to
A) the Devonian period or "age of fishes."
B) the early time of anaerobic prokaryotes.
C) the Cambrian period and probably earlier.
D) the time of the first prokaryotes but the sponges left no fossil evidence for lack of hard parts.
Ancestral members of the phylum Porifera arose at least by the early Cambrian period and probably into Precambrian times. Later evolution resulted in diversification into the classes present today.
Q2) Thin,epithelial-type cells covering the outer surface of sponges are the ________________.
Pinacocytes make up the pinacoderm,the outer cellular layer of a sponge.
Q3) Specialized archaeocytes that secrete spongin are A) collencytes.
B) sclerocytes.
C) choanocytes.
D) spongocytes.
E) lophocytes.
Spongocytes are archeocytes specialized for secreting spongin.
Q4) Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
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Chapter 13: Radiate Animals
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Q1) The morphological type of cnidarian adapted to a sedentary or sessile life is the polyp,and the type best adapted for floating or free-swimming existence is the
Q2) How does Hydra reproduce sexually?
A) Separate male polyps and female polyps produce sperm and eggs, respectively, that fuse and grow into a medusa
B) The swimming medusa stages are male and female and the fertilized eggs develop into planula larvae that become Hydra polyps
C) The polyp body wall can produce both ovaries and testes that make eggs and sperm respectively
D) Hydra sperm fertilize an egg in the body wall and this starts the growth of a bud
E) Hydra do not reproduce sexually since they lost the sexual medusa stage
Q3) The free-swimming __________ larva is similar to an adult ctenophore and develops directly into an adult.
Q4) Explain the controversy over distinguishing the body symmetry of cnidarians.
Q5) Describe the trigger mechanism and the process by which nematocysts are ejected at terrific pressure.
Q6) Ctenophores are propelled by eight plates bearing long,fused _____________.
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha,Platyzoa,and Mesozoa
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Q1) The blood fluke Schistosoma is
A) an endoparasite and a Monogenean.
B) an endoparasite and a Digenean.
C) an ectoparasite and a Digenean.
D) an ectoparasite and a Monogenean.
E) None of the choices are correct
Q2) Trematodes have a body covering known as a ______________.
Q3) The posterior attachment organ of monogeneans is the ________________.
Q4) Which of the following is not a class of the phylum Platyhelminthes?
A) Cestoda
B) Trematoda
C) Nemertea
D) Turbellaria
E) Monogenea
Q5) Ribbon worms do not regurgitate undigested wastes because their gut ends in an _____________.
Q6) Ribbon worms seize their prey with their ________________.
Q7) Minute,wormlike animals that live as parasites in invertebrates and have two cell layers are the _________________.
Page 16
Q8) The main reproductive body "segment" of the cestode is called the ____________.
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) How can you distinguish an ectoproct from a hydroid?
A) The hydroid colony is very small, perhaps a few millimeters long, while the ectoproct is centimeters long
B) The hydroid has the anus within the tentacular crown and the ectoproct has the anus outside the crown
C) The hydroid lacks any complex digestive gut including any anus
D) The hydroid has more complex musculature and innervation
E) Only hydroids form moss-like colonies
Q2) Why are entoprocts not included with the ectoprocts since they look nearly identical and were both called bryozoans in earlier times?
A) Entoprocts are now known to be cnidarians
B) Entoprocts are acoelomates and lack sexual reproduction
C) Entoprocts are all parasites that lost more advanced characters and only secondarily resemble ectoprocts
D) The fossil record shows they were never related
E) Entoprocts are pseudocoelomates and have the anus within the tentacular crown
Q3) The fleshy stalk of a brachiopod is the ___________.
Q4) Explain why ectoprocts and entoprocts are no longer considered in the phylum Bryozoa.
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) Describe five features,morphological or developmental,that would most likely be found in the earliest ancestral mollusc.
Q2) A pair of _______________ serve as sense organs for sampling water and are found in the mantle grooves near the anus of many chitons.
Q3) Most freshwater clams have a bivalve ___________ stage that attaches to the gills and lives as a parasite for a few weeks.
A) Veliger
B) Trochophore
C) Brachial
D) Miracidia
E) Glochidia
Q4) You find an old living freshwater clam.The health department would like to check a small sample of the shell for pollutant levels when it was young.Where should they remove this oldest shell material?
Q5) The _________ is the oldest part of the shell and growth occurs in concentric rings around it.
Q6) The membranes that hold the internal organs in place in coelomates are called ______________.
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) The Branchiobdellida,is a group of small annelids that contains parasites or commensals of crayfish.They show similarities to both oligochaetes and leeches in that they bear a head sucker.In your analysis,is the evolution of a head sucker a derived trait in an oligochaete lineage or would the loss of posterior sucker place them in the Hirudinea?
Q2) The spaces in the coelom of leeches are called the _______________.
Q3) A biologically plausible reason that burrowing earthworms have solid segmental walls but nonburrowing and parasitic annelids often have partial septa is
A) the segmentation was selected to enable better expansion during burrowing.
Parasitic annelids do not burrow and the loss of. the ability to expand segments was not disadvantageous during their evolution.
B) the nonburrowing worms were primitive and had not yet developed full walls.
C) nonburrowing worms are halfway between roundworms and fully-segmented earthworms.
D) that it permits fragmentation and regeneration of body parts, which earthworms need because they are in a dangerous environment, but internal parasites do not need this.
E) None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Adult Ascaris worms are found in the host's _________________.
Q2) "If all the matter in the universe except the? were swept away,our world would still be dimly recognizable,and if,as disembodied spirits,we could then investigate it,we should find its mountains,hills,vales,rivers,lakes,and oceans represented by a film of?.The location of towns would be decipherable,since for every massing of human beings there would be a corresponding massing of certain?.Trees would still stand in ghostly rows representing our streets and highways.The location of the various plants and animals would still be decipherable,and,had we sufficient knowledge,in many cases even their species could be determined by an examination of their erstwhile? parasites." The missing term in this passage is A) flatworms. B) bacteria. C) nematodes. D) rotifers. E) protozoans.
Q3) Humans are infected with Trichinella spiralis by eating insufficiently cooked
Q4) The most common helminth parasite in the United States is the
Q5) Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) You could collect a sea spider
A) as an ectoparasite on a whale.
B) grazing in kelp beds.
C) from intertidal zones to over 6000 meters deep, especially in polar waters.
D) as an endoparasite in the gut of echinoderms.
E) in underwater webs in coral reefs.
Q2) Insects are basically small creatures.How does a small organism retard water loss? Discuss both structural and physiological mechanisms.
Q3) Discuss the ecological position of the spiders as a group.
Q4) As the arthropod ancestors underwent "arthropodization,"
A) their circulatory system became closed.
B) their hemocoel took on a new function as a hydrostatic skeleton.
C) there was an expansion of surfaces for respiration and excretion.
D) Intersegmental septa became unnecessary.
E) a closed circulatory system became necessary.
Q5) Many millipedes defend themselves by secreting toxic or repellant fluids from
Q6) Discuss features of ticks that make them such excellent vectors of human arthropod-borne diseases.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) The order that has been successful invading terrestrial environments is the A) amphipoda.
B) euphausiacea.
C) cladocera.
D) decapoda.
E) isopoda.
Q2) The "bailer" of a crayfish that draws water over the gill filaments is a part of the A) second maxillae.
B) caudal furca.
C) third maxilliped.
D) first walking leg.
E) first swimmeret.
Q3) Why are barnacles considered crustaceans when they are anchored in one place as adults?
Q4) Water fleas,which belong to the branchiopodan suborder____________,often reproduce by parthenogenesis.
Q5) The appendages of a crayfish are examples of serial ___________________.
Q6) Position sensors in the base of the first antennae of crayfishes are called
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) The exoskeleton of insects is
A) very soft and pliable.
B) rigid due to deposits of calcium.
C) rigid due to chitin.
D) rigid due to unique scleroproteins.
E) variable depending on the thickness of the chitin.
Q2) Insects differ from other arthropods because insects
A) have paired, jointed legs.
B) have ectognathous mouthparts.
C) have a single pair of antennae.
D) mandibles.
E) have tagmata or fused segments.
Q3) The protection possessed by a monarch butterfly is due to
A) the fact that it has a stinging proboscis.
B) a natural bad taste possessed by all butterflies.
C) a toxic chemistry acquired from ingesting milkweed cardenolids when it was a caterpillar.
D) mimicry of another butterfly that has a bad taste.
E) orange pigments that are always toxic, which is why orange animals are always protected.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, Echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) The respiratory tree of sea cucumbers opens into the _________________.
Q2) The madreporite of sea cucumbers is located in the ________________.
Q3) Outline the phylogeny and adaptive diversification of the hemichordates and discuss the latest data of small subunit rRNA supporting a deuterostome phylogeny for this group.
Q4) Deuterostome characteristics
A) Mouth develops from or near the blastopore
B) Coelom budded off from the archenteron
C) Radial and regulative cleavage
D) Mesoderm derived from or with the endoderm from enterocoelic pouches
Q5) The echinoids
A) have five long, slender arms.
B) are enclosed in an endoskeletal test or shell.
C) lack tube feet.
D) lack ambulacral areas.
E) are unable to move because of their spines.
Q6) A feature of the earliest echinoderms apparently was development of endoskeletal plates with ______________ structure.
Q7) A calcareous sieve leading to the watervascular system is the ________________ or sieve plate. Page 25
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Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) Lancelets belong to the subphylum __________.
Q2) One overriding advantage of the endoskeleton of vertebrates,as compared to the invertebrate exoskeleton is that it permits __________ without the necessity of molting.
Q3) The lancelet reproduces
A) by asexual processes alone.
B) by budding.
C) sexually with both sex organs on the same organism, similar to earthworms.
D) sexually but with separate sexes and internal fertilization.
E) sexually but with separate sexes and external fertilization.
Q4) The central definition of a monophyletic group focuses on:
A) Do we have evidence of transitional fossils in the geological record?
B) Do we have the majority of species described in each higher taxon?
C) Are all of the species described actually real species?
D) Do all higher taxa contain all known descendants of their single common ancestor?
E) Do all of the taxa fit into the seven ranks of the Linnaean taxonomic hierarchy?
Q5) Outline the five chordate features.What is the fate of the endostyle in the higher vertebrates?
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) Compare the swimming mechanisms of invertebrates such as cnidarians,platyhelminthes,and annelids with those of the fishes.Is one form superior to another? Why or why not?
Q2) Ampullary organs of Lorenzini
A) are located along the lateral-line of a shark.
B) help the shark see prey at night.
C) help the shark detect bioelectric fields at a close range.
D) detect orientation similar to that perceived by our semicircular canals.
E) amplify sounds of a struggling prey from great distances.
Q3) Why is there a relationship between fish size and speed? Does this not start an evolutionary speed race driving predator and prey to grow to ever increasing lengths? Why do any small fish survive?
Q4) How is gas moved into and out of the teleost swim bladder? Describe the physiological process in detail.
Q5) Of what significance is it that gill supports immediately behind the jaws of sharks are hinged like jaws and serve to link the jaws to the braincase?
Q6) Why has the coelacanth apparently changed so little from its fossil ancestor of 70 million years ago?
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Tropical,burrowing,limbless amphibians belong to the order _______ or (alternate order name)________.
Q2) ______ glands in amphibians secrete defensive compounds.
Q3) Most terrestrial salamanders fertilize eggs using which method?
A) Internal fertilization after the female has picked up spermatophores deposited by the male in the environment
B) External fertilization in the water similar to fish
C) Internal fertilization by copulation with a male
D) External fertilization in the water similar to frogs utilizing amplexus
E) None of the choices are correct
Q4) Frog skin color is produced by cells called ________.
Q5) Which of the following regulates amphibian metamorphosis?
A) Calcitonin hormone from the adrenals
B) Thyroxine, a hormone secreted by the thyroid gland
C) Estrogen and testosterone from the gonads
D) Growth hormone by the thyroid gland
E) Salt levels from the environment
Q6) A specialized structure in the conus arteriosus of the frog heart,called the ______ ______,is thought to maintain selective distribution of oxygenated and unoxygenated blood.
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) Nonavian reptiles are different from amphibians in that reptiles possess which of the following?
A) A tough, scaly skin that provides protection against desiccation
B) Some form of copulatory organ permitting internal fertilization
C) A shelled egg that can be laid on dry land
D) More muscular jaws
E) All of the choices are nonavian reptilian characteristics.
Q2) Amniotes having a skull with two temporal openings on each side are called ________. or diapsid
Q3) Surviving tuataras (Sphenodon)are mostly restricted to a group of islands off the coast of ______ ______.
Q4) What is the name of the bottom plate on a turtle,which is continuous with the breastbone (sternum)?
A) Costal
B) Plastron
C) Carapace
D) Dorsum
E) Ventrum
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) The ____________ muscle elevates the bird's wing by means of a tendon running over a pulley-like arrangement in the shoulder.
Q2) The wing slots on the wings of many birds function A) as brakes.
B) in preventing or delaying stalling.
C) to increase speed.
D) to increase lift at high speeds.
E) in diving.
Q3) Newly hatched birds that are covered with down and are active within a short time are called __________.
Q4) Flying birds with keeled sternums are known as Neognathae or ___________.
Q5) The enlargement at the lower end of the esophagus that serves as a food storage chamber in birds is called the ____________.
Q6) Predatory,land-soaring birds have wing types that are referred to as ______________ wings. or
high lift
Q7) Detail four non-trivial likely reasons for the recent decline in songbirds.
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Q8) The major nitrogenous waste excreted by the bird kidney is ______ ______.
Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) Hares,rabbits,and some rodents pass food through their digestive tract twice because
A) their food supply is scarce and limiting.
B) it saves on energy for chewing.
C) it decreases the impact on the environment by half.
D) it allows more time for the fermenting action of intestinal microorganisms.
E) they are just animals with disgusting habits.
Q2) Discuss the significance of the evolution of echolocation in bats.Could that partially explain why bats are the most diverse group of mammals today?
Q3) A species of North American mammal that makes mass migrations of several hundred miles between the boreal forests and the tundra is the ___________. or barren-ground caribou
Q4) How does a home range differ from a territory? What is the ecological significance of these two terms?
Q5) The four kinds of teeth that are generally recognized in mammals are molars,premolars,canines,and ________.
Q6) The only mammals having true flight are the __________ or Chiroptera.
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Chapter 29: Support, protection, and Movement
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Q1) The reflective properties of surface tissue may form A) organic pigments.
B) structural colors such as iridescence.
C) chromatophores.
D) the melanin effect.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) The immediate source of energy in muscle is ______.
Q3) Cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral,and caudal are
A) categories of body muscle.
B) ways of walking.
C) regions of the brain.
D) regions of vertebrae.
E) types of bone tissues.
Q4) How does endochondral bone differs from intramembranous (e.g.,dermal)bone? List the general derivatives of each type of bone.
Q5) Outline the various layers of human skin.What function(s)does each layer perform? What layers does intensive sunburn affect?
Q6) Bone that develops directly from sheets of embryonic cells and is mostly restricted to bones of the face and cranium,is called _______________ bone.
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) What is so "adaptive" about adaptive hypothermia in birds and animals? Why not just become ectothermic?
Q2) What is the difference between an osmotic regulator and a hyperosmotic regulator?
Q3) Freshwater animals tend to lose too much salt and gain too much ____________.
Q4) Hummingbirds may reduce the energetic cost of homeothermy by allowing their body temperature to drop at night,an adaptation called ____________.
Q5) The flow of arterial blood downward alongside the ascending venous blood in the leg of the arctic wolf illustrates the concept of
A) universal cell metabolism.
B) behavioral thermoregulation.
C) countercurrent exchange.
D) nonshivering thermogenesis.
E) augmented muscular activity.
Q6) Sharks solve their water balance problems because their blood carries large amounts of trimethylamine oxide and ____________.
Q7) In the metanephridium,the tubule is open at both ends and fluids are swept in through a funnel-like _____________.
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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) Briefly discuss the functions of the many inorganic and organic substances in solution within body fluids.
Q2) An alternative name for the mouth is the ________ _________.
Q3) The external openings to the tracheal systems of arthropods are called ________________.
Q4) What are the physiological roles of fibrinogen,fibrin,prothrombin,and thromboplastin? Where,why,and when are these compounds made?
Q5) Discuss the physiological mechanism by which the heartbeat is set (e.g.,discuss the pacemaker cells,Purkinje fibers,and the cardiac control center in the brain).
Q6) ______________ engulf spent erythrocytes.
Q7) The atrioventricular valves separate the atria from the ventricles in the heart,and the ___________ valves prevent backflow from the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
Q8) Why should arteries farther away from the heart possess more smooth muscle and fewer elastic fibers than arteries closer to the heart?
Q9) The blood vessel that delivers oxygen and nutrients to the heart is the ________ ________.
Q10) Describe the components of vertebrate plasma and vertebrate "formed" elements.
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The earthworm increases the surface area of its intestine by this dorsal fold called a
Q2) Canine teeth are adapted for seizing and piercing prey and then _________ meat.
Q3) List the hormones involved in the regulation of digestion.
Q4) Vitamins
A) are not sources of energy but are often associated with activity of important enzymes. B) are chemicals which all animals can synthesize.
C) are chemicals which only humans need.
D) are the basic 20 amino acids which an animal cannot synthesize itself. E) are considered sources of energy similar to carbohydrates and fats.
Q5) Describe the unique pathway for the digestion of fat molecules and indicate why they are not completely broken down,as are other food molecules.
Q6) Discuss the current evidence that the increase in fast food meals,larger portion sizes,and more sedentary life style is positively correlated with the prevalence of obesity in developed countries such as the USA.
Q7) Outline the process of digestion of carbohydrates.
Q8) Outline the process of digestion of proteins.
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Q9) A milk-curdling enzyme found in the stomach of ruminant mammals is
Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) The event at an electrical synapse
A) always involves acetylcholine.
B) always involves some neurotransmitter that stimulates the next neuron.
C) is a point at which ionic currents flow directly across a narrow gap junction.
D) involves either an inhibitory or stimulating neurotransmitter chemical.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Outline the components and the physiological processes of either 1)hearing,2)taste,or 3)vision.Be sure to list the basic components of the sensory system and their functions.
Q3) What is the difference between a reflex arc and a reflex act? List the components and functions of each.
Q4) Receptors located in muscles,tendons,and joints that provide the organism with a sense of body position are called ____________.
Q5) The light-sensitive layer inside the vertebrate eye is the ____________.
Q6) The midbrain consists mainly of the ____________,which contains centers for visual and auditory reflexes.
Q7) The leaping of the action potential from node to node in vertebrate high-speed neurons is known as ____________ conduction.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) How is gene transcription altered by gene regulatory proteins?
Q2) Early in the menstrual cycle of human females,the blood levels of ______ ______ hormone and luteinizing hormone begin to rise slowly,prompting the ovarian follicles to grow and release estrogen.
Q3) The condition in humans called goiter is caused by an insufficiency of ____________ in the food and water.
Q4) Explain in detail how a negative feedback system works and why it is so highly effective in preventing hormonal flux.
Q5) Discuss the membrane-bound receptors and the second messenger concept (e.g.,kinases).
Q6) A fast-acting hormone produced by the intermediate lobe of the pituitary and that promotes dispersion of pigment in fishes,amphibians,and reptiles is A) pineal gland stimulating hormone (PGSH).
B) vasotocin.
C) melatonin.
D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH).
E) oxytocin.
Q7) Compare the functions of neurotransmitters with those of parahormones.
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) Antibodies are large protein molecules classified as ______________.
Q2) Immunoglobulins have a structure that resembles which letter?
A) A
B) B
C) S
D) T
E) Y
Q3) A substance that stimulates an immune response is called a/an _____________.
Q4) Rh incompatibility accounts for a peculiar and often fatal disease of the newborn called ___________________ __________.
Q5) In a young individual who has never been exposed to a blood transfusion,why does A-type blood have anti-B antibody,while B-type blood has anti-A antibody?
A) The fetus is exposed to the mother's blood antigens during pregnancy.
B) All individuals already have all possible antibodies at birth so this is normal.
C) That antibodies develop to A and B epitopes on intestinal microorganisms in the intestine.
D) The antibodies are transferred in the saliva from parent to child.
E) The antibodies are made to the recessive blood type that is not expressed.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The leader of a troop of baboons defends his family,or honeybees defend their hive "to the death",what is this apparent behavior of risking one's life for others is called
A) Altruism
B) Sexual selection
C) Ritualization
D) Competition
E) Agonistic behavior
Q2) Why territoriality is considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
Q3) At first puppies crouch in fear when a leaf flutters overhead.Later they learn to disregard it.This mode of learning is termed What is this called?
A) Imprinting
B) Habituation
C) Conditioned response
D) Sensitization
E) Cooperative behavior
Q4) Outline the "language of the bees" according to the different types of dances expressed from foraging workers.
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Chapter 37: Animal Distributions
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Q1) What is a characteristic of a temperate deciduous forest?
A) The presence of such trees as pine, fir, spruce, and cedar
B) That the trees shed their leaves and become dormant during the winter
C) That the rainfall is low
D) That the forest floor has very little litter to serve as habitat for animals
E) All of the choices are correct
Q2) Why does continental drift theory not help explain the distribution of placental mammals?
A) Placental mammals were agile enough to cross all continental barriers
B) Placental mammals evolved after the breakup of the major plates
C) Their fossils were subject to more deformation
D) We just haven't located enough fossils of them
E) None of the choices are correct
Q3) A famous ecologist,Dan Jantzen,has proposed that temperate forests can have a few dominant tree species in high density because winter keeps the insect populations suppressed and they cannot build up to numbers to decimate all the tree seeds.Meanwhile,the tropical forest insect populations can increase until they have destroyed all seeds,because there is no winter to interrupt their population growth.Propose a test for this hypothesis.
Q4) Which biome is the most diverse in terms of numbers of species? Why?
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) A study of both a living community and all of its physical factors would focus on what level of organization
A) Trophic levels
B) Various biomes
C) The biosphere
D) Ecosystem
Q2) The sponge constitutes an animal that is
A) unitary due to cloning.
B) modular due to cloning.
C) a cohort due to cloning.
D) unitary due to fragmentation.
E) unitary due to age structure.
Q3) Discuss how ecosystems are based on energy transfer at different trophic levels.
Q4) The carrying capacity of the environment is determined by
A) the limiting resource in the environment.
B) the reproductive rate of an animal group.
C) the occurrence of disease.
D) a complex "balance of nature" that remains to be explained in terms that scientists can calculate.
E) the resources that are in surplus in the environment.
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