Introductory Microbiology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Introductory Microbiology is a foundational course that explores the world of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa. Students will examine the structure, function, genetics, and metabolism of microbes, as well as their roles in ecosystems, industry, and human health. The course also covers key topics such as microbial growth, pathogenicity, immunity, and the application of aseptic techniques in laboratory settings. Emphasis is placed on understanding how microorganisms influence daily life and the scientific principles behind controlling and utilizing them in both medical and environmental contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 8th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
A)Joseph Lister.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)Robert Koch.
D)Louis Pasteur.
E)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
Answer: A
Q4) Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____. Answer: microorganisms
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reactions involving electron release are called ______ reactions.
A)oxidation.
B)reduction.
C)ionization.
D)decomposition.
E)dissolution.
Answer: A
Q2) Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A)contains ribose
B)contains adenine
C)contains thymine
D)contains uracil
E)contains nucleotides
Answer: C
Q3) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids. Answer: Peptide
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium.Following incubation, only the E.coli grows in the culture.What is the most likely explanation?
A)The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B)The culture is contaminated.
C)The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D)The culture medium must be selective.
E)The culture medium must be differential.
Answer: D
Q2) _____ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. Answer: subculture
Q3) Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.
Answer: incubated
Q4) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is
A)endospore.
B)cell wall.
C)cell membrane.
D)capsule.
E)slime layer.
Q2) Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes?
A)coccus
B)tetrad
C)vibrio
D)rod
E)spirochete
Q3) The cell _____ is composed of three layers: the glycocalyx, the cell wall, and the cell membrane.
Q4) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a _____ ancestor, and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a _____ ancestor.
A)protozoan, algae
B)archaea, cyanobacteria
C)spirochete, cyanobacteria
D)helminth, algae
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Plankton are floating communities of helminths.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A)protozoa.
B)algae.
C)fungi.
D)bacteria.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called _____ that carry chlorophyll.Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called _____.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Q1) During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the _____ _____.
Q2) No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The core of every virus particle always contains A)DNA.
B)capsomers.
C)enzymes.
D)DNA and RNA.
E)either DNA or RNA.
Q4) Satellite viruses are A)also called viroids.
B)dependent on other viruses for replication.
C)the cause of spongiform encephalopathies.
D)significant pathogens of plants.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) A _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
Q6) A naked virus does not have an _____.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term phototroph refers to an organism that:
A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q2) The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following, except:
A)the depletion of nutrients.
B)the depletion of oxygen.
C)the excretion of biochemical pollutants.
D)the excretion of organic acids.
E)the decrease in temperature of the culture.
Q3) The term autotroph refers to an organism that:
A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q4) In _____ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which pathway is the most NADH generated?
A)electron transport system
B)Krebs cycle
C)glycolysis
D)alcoholic fermentation
E)mixed acid fermentation
Q2) ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and 3-phosphate groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins:
A)glycolysis.
B)electron transport system.
C)Krebs cycle.
D)fermentation.
E)oxidative phosphorylation.
Q4) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _____ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.
Q5) _____ testing can differentiate between bacterial species fermentation that produce mixed acids or 2, 3 butanediol.
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A)bacterial conjugation.
B)transformation.
C)generalized transduction.
D)specialized transduction.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Compare and contrast the 3 bacterial gene transfers with DNA recombination.Explain why these are not reproduction, and why they are important to bacterial species.
Q3) Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A)protein.
B)nucleotide.
C)amino acid.
D)purine.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q4) A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a _____.
Q5) Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
Page 11
Q6) Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transgenic animals are _____ modified organisms.
Q2) Gene probes can be labeled for detection with A)enzymes.
B)fluorescent dyes.
C)radioisotopes.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of A)Escherichia coli.
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
C)Thermus aquaticus.
D)Pseudomonas syringae.
E)Pseudomonas fluorescens.
Q4) EcoRI and HindIII are A)palindromes.
B)reverse transcriptase.
C)restriction endonucleases.
D)ligases.
E)DNA polymerases.
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Q5) The _____ blot method analyzes DNA, while the _____ method analyzes RNA.
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is:
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q2) All the following are correct about detergents, except:
A)they are polar molecules that act as surfactants.
B)the most effective ones are positively charged.
C)in low concentrations they are bacteriostatic.
D)they are ineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria.
E)they are active in the presence of organic matter.
Q3) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is:
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q4) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs.Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.
Q2) The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
A)giving a narrow spectrum drug.
B)culturing the pathogen and identifying it.
C)performing the disk diffusion assay.
D)using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.
E)using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.
Q4) The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.
Q5) Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation.She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter.Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?
A)respiratory
B)septicemia
C)urinary tract
D)surgical site
E)meningitis
Q2) _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
Q3) The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B)World Health Organization.
C)National Institutes of Health.
D)United States Department of Agriculture.
E)Infection Control Committee.
Q4) Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
Q5) Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by A)basophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)neutrophils.
D)macrophages.
E)complement.
Q2) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.
Q3) Plasma is also called lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q4) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland.
A)True B)False
Q5) PAMPs are molecules shared by many microorganisms but not present in mammals.
A)True B)False
Q6) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells. Page 16
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A)malaria.
B)botulism.
C)cholera.
D)yellow fever.
E)rabies.
Q2) Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c) relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions.
Q3) Lymphocyte maturation involves
A)hormonal signals that initiate development.
B)B cells maturing in bone marrow sites.
C)T cells maturing in the thymus.
D)release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs.
E)all of the choices are correct.
Q4) Which cells direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunities?
A)T-cells
B)B-cells
C)Bacterial cells
D)Viral components
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?
A)Ingestant
B)Inhalant
C)Injectant
D)Contactant
E)None of the choices are correct
Q2) Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to
A)autoantibodies.
B)delayed hypersensitivity.
C)congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
D)failure of B cell development and maturity.
E)a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
Q3) Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause
A)recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs.
B)fever and anemia.
C)systemic shock and kidney failure.
D)massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.
Q5) The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed _____.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A simple method to detect _____ cells involves mixing them with untreated sheep red blood cells that will bind and form rosettes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following choices are true about Viral hemagglutination testing?
A)It uses a red blood cell that naturally reacts with viral antigens.
B)It analyzes patient serum for specific antibodies to a virus.
C)It has hemagglutination if the patient serum lacks virus specific antibodies.
D)it is used to diagnosis viral diseases such as rubella and mononucleosis.
E)All of the choices are true.
Q4) Whole antigens are detected in which type of test?
A)cross-reactions
B)agglutination
C)precipitation
D)specificity
E)sensitivity
Q5) When collecting __________, a "clean catch" method is often used.
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of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae is:
A)called the meningococcus.
B)in the viridans group.
C)a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule.
D)a pathogen with endotoxin.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except:
A)virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
B)it causes serious meningitis.
C)the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers.
D)it is more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks.
E)it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
Q3) Scarlet fever involves:
A)high fever.
B)bright red rash on face, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue.
C)eventual desquamation of epidermis.
D)septicemia as a complication.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the causative agent of Farmer's Lung and Bagossis?
A)Actinomyces israelii
B)Nocardia
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D)Bacillus anthracis
E)Clostridium perfringens
Q2) Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A)pulmonary
B)gastrointestinal
C)cutaneous
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
A)Eterotoxigeic strains of E.coli
B)Salmonella
C)Shigella dysenteriae
D)E.coli 0157:H7
E)Eteroinvasive E.coli
Q2) Which is not associated with tularemia?
A)listed as a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents
B)transmitted by arthropod vectors
C)reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels
D)symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia
E)in animals, infects the placenta and fetus
Q3) Salmonella typhi
A)multiplies within phagocytes.
B)is not a coliform.
C)can be treated with antimicrobics.
D)causes invasive infection of the small intestine.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called _____.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?
A)Transmitted by lice
B)Pathogen produces resistant spores
C)Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread
D)Causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia
E)Is a zoonosis
Q2) The secondary stage of syphilis
A)is when the patient is no longer infectious to others.
B)occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
C)is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood.
D)has no symptoms.
E)is when gummas develop in tissues.
Q3) All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except
A)it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B)it can also be caused by adenoviruses.
C)it is transmitted by aerosol droplets.
D)it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia.
E)community resistance is high.
Q4) Bacteria that lose their cell walls due to penicillin or lysozyme and result in persistent wall-deficient bacteria are called _____.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Menthol and camphor (Vicks<sup>TM</sup>) are effective treatments against A)chromoblastomycosis.
B)ringworm.
C)Histoplasmosis.
D)tinea versicolor.
E)blastomycosis.
Q2) Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus?
A)ketoconazole (Nizoral)
B)fluconazole
C)terbinafine (Lamisil)
D)amphotericin B
E)griseofulvin
Q3) Trichophyton species infect hair, skin, and nails, whereas Microsporum species infect hair and skin but not nails.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dermatophytes digest the protein _____, found in the skin, hair, and nails.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths?
A)freezing foods
B)thoroughly cooking foods
C)proper sewage disposal
D)avoiding human feces as fertilizer
E)These are all effective ways.
Q2) Helminth species that are hermaphroditic have separate worms that have female organs and other worms that have male organs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are
A)bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss.
B)fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain.
C)urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge.
D)chills, fever, and sweating.
E)sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
Q4) Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called _____.
Q5) The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called _____.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Q1) Liver disease, such as hepatitis, can lead to bilirubin accumulation that causes a yellow tinge to skin and eyes called _____.
Q2) Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is incorrect about warts?
A)Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV).
B)Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites.
C)Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet.
D)Are usually cancerous.
E)Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.
Q4) Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the:
A)nasal mucosa.
B)finger.
C)oral mucosa and tongue.
D)eye.
E)newborn.
Q5) Herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) enters the _____ cranial nerve where it becomes latent.
Page 27
Q6) A virus that causes congenital defects and developmental problems is known as
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Which of the following is correct about polio?
A)The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India.
B)The disease is spread by the respiratory route.
C)The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio.
D)The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the U.S.today.
E)The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.
Q2) One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus):
A)causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.
B)uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.
C)can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin.
D)Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a _____.
Q5) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>) is
A)removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
B)a source of carbon.
C)returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation.
D)used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues that is found in the soil is called _____.
Q3) An _____ is the term for a deep groundwater source.
Q4) As energy is transferred to the next trophic level, how much of it is generally lost as heat?
A)None.
B)5 %
C)10 %
D)50 %
E)90 %
Q5) A ___________ is a form of consumer that actively seeks out and ingests live prey.
Q6) Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called ___________.
Q7) An _____ is a region where the river meets the sea.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) A food _____ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.
Q2) Water moves through sand beds and activated charcoal in this step of water purification:
A)chlorination
B)aeration and settling
C)sedimentation
D)storage
E)filtration
Q3) There are a few places in the United States that use ozone or peroxide for final disinfection of water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Individualistic potable rural water is routinely chlorinated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Implementation of the HAACP procedures has increased the concentration of alcohol in distilled liquors.
A)True
B)False
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