

Introductory Chemistry Test Bank
Course Introduction
Introductory Chemistry provides a foundational understanding of the basic principles and concepts in chemistry, emphasizing the structure and behavior of matter, chemical reactions, atomic theory, and the periodic table. Students explore essential topics such as chemical bonding, stoichiometry, states of matter, and solutions, with an introduction to laboratory techniques and safety procedures. This course lays the groundwork for further study in chemistry and related scientific fields, fostering critical thinking and problem-solving skills through both theoretical and practical applications.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of General Organic and Biological Chemistry 8th Edition by John E. McMurry
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29 Chapters
2401 Verified Questions
2401 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Matter and Measurements
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128 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The numerical value for (5.6 × 10<sup>4</sup>)÷ (7.89 × 10<sup>2</sup>)is equal to,with the proper number of significant figures:
A)70.976
B)71
C)7.098 × 10<sup>1</sup>
D)71.0
E)70.98
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following measurements has three significant figures?
A)1207 g
B)4.250 g
C)0.006 g
D)0.0250 g
E)0.03750 g
Answer: D
Q3) Gasoline has a density of about 0.65 g/mL.How much does 34.0 L weigh in pounds?
Answer: Convert 34.0 L to mL then multiply by the density to obtain the grams. Convert grams to pounds:34,000 mL × 0.65 g/mL × 1 lb/454 g = 48.7 lbs.
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Chapter 2: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of atomic structure,the common characteristic of elements in the same group is
A)number of electrons.
B)number of electrons in the outermost shell.
C)number of neutrons.
D)number of protons.
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the 4f orbitals?
A)2
B)6
C)8
D)10
E)14
Answer: E
Q3) Naturally occurring iron contains 5.82% <sup>54</sup>Fe,91.66% <sup>56</sup>Fe,2.19% <sup>57</sup>Fe,and 0.33% <sup>58</sup>Fe.The respective atomic masses are 53.940 amu,55.935 amu,56.935 amu,and 57.933 amu.Calculate the average atomic mass of iron.
Answer: 55.847 amu.
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Chapter 3: Ionic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain how the octet rule determines the charge,both sign and magnitude,of an ion.
Answer: The octet rule states that main group elements will do chemistry in order to have eight electrons in their outer shell.If an atom has one or two electrons past an octet,it will lose the appropriate number to have a full outer shell,resulting in a positively charged ion.If an atom is one or two electrons away from having an octet,it will gain the appropriate number,resulting in a negatively charged ion.
Q2) The name of Cl<sup>-</sup> is
A)chlorine ion.
B)chloride ion.
C)chlorate ion.
D)chlorite ion.
E)diatomic chlorine.
Answer: B
Q3) How are noble gases related to the octet rule?
Answer: Noble gases,except helium,illustrate the stability of elements with a full outer shell (an octet).These elements are unreactive because their valence shell is filled.Helium is also grouped with these elements because it is unreactive due to its filled 1s shell.
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Page 5

Chapter 4: Molecular Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical bond formed between two identical atoms is a(an)________ bond.
A)atomic
B)covalent
C)hydrogen
D)ionic
E)molecular
Q2) A molecule in which the central atom forms one double bond and two single bonds is said to have a ________ shape.
A)bent
B)linear
C)trigonal planar
D)pyramidal
E)tetrahedral
Q3) When a non-metal atom bonds with another non-metal atom,an ionic bond is formed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Draw the Lewis structure for the a molecule of ethylamine,CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>NH<sub>2.</sub>
Q5) Explain why it is unlikely that an organic molecule would have an odd number of valence electrons.
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Chapter 5: Classification and Balancing of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the reaction shown,________ is the oxidizing agent because it ________. Ni(s)+ CuCl<sub>2</sub>(aq) Cu(s)+ NiCl<sub>2</sub>(aq)
A)Ni;causes reduction
B)Ni;gets reduced
C)CuCl<sub>2</sub>;causes reduction
D)CuCl<sub>2</sub>;gets reduced
E)NiCl<sub>2</sub>;gets reduced
Q2) In the following reaction which species is being oxidized and which is being reduced?
2 Cr(s)+ 3 Cl<sub>2</sub>(g) 2 CrCl<sub>3</sub>(s)
A)oxidized: Cr;reduced: CrCl<sub>3</sub>
B)oxidized:CrCl<sub>3</sub>;reduced: Cr
C)oxidized: Cr;reduced: Cl<sub>2</sub>
D)oxidized: Cl<sub>2</sub>;reduced: Cr
E)oxidized: Cl<sub>2</sub>;reduced: CrCl<sub>3</sub>
Q3) LX(aq)+ MY(aq) LY(s)+ MX(aq)
A)redox
B)acid-base
C)precipitation

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Chemical Reactions: Mole and Mass Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a tablet of acetaminophen,C<sub>8</sub>H<sub>9</sub>NO<sub>2</sub>,weighs 324 mg,how many moles are there in the tablet?
A)2.15 × 10<sup>-3</sup>
B)48.9
C)4.89 × 10<sup>4</sup>
D) 2.15
E)466
Q2) In the balanced reaction shown,the mole ratio of Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub> to O<sub>2</sub> is Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3 </sub>+ 4 O<sub>2</sub> 2 FeO + 3 SO<sub>2</sub>
A)5 to 5.
B)1 to 4.
C)4 to 1.
D)1 to 2.
E)4 to 3.
Q3) The mass of 1.22 moles of iron(II)nitrate
A)212.4 g
B)219 g
C)225 g
D)208.2 g

Page 8
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Chapter 7: Chemical Reactions: Energy, rates, and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a reaction system is at equilibrium
A)there is no more chemistry happening.
B)the amounts of reactants and products are exactly equal.
C)the reaction rate in the forward direction is at a maximum.
D)the reaction rate in the reverse direction is at a minimum.
E)the rates of the reaction in the forward and reverse directions are exactly equal.
Q2) Which of the following statements can be assumed to be true about how reactions occur?
A)Catalysts must be present in the reaction.
B)Energy must be absorbed as the reaction proceeds.
C)Reactant particles must collide with each other.
D)More than one statement can be true.
Q3) All of the statements regarding the symbol " H" are correct except it
A)represents the difference between the energy used in breaking bonds and the energy released in forming bonds in a chemical reaction.
B)can be called heat of reaction.
C)can be called enthalpy change.
D)can be called entropy change.
E)has a negative value for an exothermic reaction.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gases, liquids, and Solids
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe two unique properties of water.Discuss the intermolecular force that causes these unusual properties.
Q2) Volume and pressure are ________ proportional.
A)directly
B)inversely
C)all of the above
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following cannot have hydrogen bonds?
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)HCl
C)HF
D)CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>
E)NH<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Which represents the largest pressure?
A)one atmosphere
B)five pounds per square inch
C)one millimeter of mercury
D)five mm Hg
E)one hundred pascals
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Chapter 9: Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much NaCl is needed to make 50.0 mL of a 16% (w/v)solution?
A)2.0 g
B)4.0 g
C)8.0 g
D)12 g
E)16 g
Q2) Which list includes all the pieces of lab equipment needed to prepare 0.100 M
H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> from a 5.00 M solution of H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?
A)buret;volumetric flask
B)buret;electronic balance
C)electronic balance;volumetric flask
D)electronic balance;graduated cylinder
E)volumetric pipet and bulb;volumetric flask
Q3) Which one of the following compounds would be least soluble in water?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>
B)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
C)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
E)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>
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Chapter 10: Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which example is not basic?
A)shampoo
B)vinegar
C)window cleaner
D)limewater
E)Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>,used in remedies for upset stomach
Q2) An increase in solution pH corresponds to
A)an increase in hydronium ion concentration.
B)a decrease in hydronium ion concentration.
C)no change in hydronium ion concentration.
D)a decrease in hydroxide ion concentration.
Q3) To prepare a buffer using sodium phosphate,which of the following would also be needed?
A)hydrochloric acid
B)ammonium hydroxide
C)ammonium phosphate
D)phosphoric acid
E)sodium hydroxide
Q4) Write the balanced chemical equation for a reaction between sodium bicarbonate and hydrochloric acid.
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Chapter 11: Nuclear Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A curie is
A)the amount of radiation that produces 2.1 × 10<sup>9</sup> units of charge in one cubic centimeter of air.
B)a unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed per gram of tissue.
C)a unit that allows both for the energy and the penetrating power of different types of radiation.
D)the SI unit for radiation absorbed.
E)the amount of radioactive substance that undergoes 3.7 × 10<sup>10</sup> disintegrations per second.
Q2) If 75.0 mg of potassium-42 was administered to a patient at 10 AM on Monday,how many mg will remain at 10 AM on Thursday of that same week? The half life of K-42 is 12 hours.
A)37.5 mg
B)1.17 mg
C)18.8 mg
D)9.38 mg
Q3) List and discuss two criteria used to choose appropriate radioisotopes for use as tracers in medical imaging procedures.
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Introduction to Organic Chemistry: Alkanes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the molecule 3,3-dimethylhexane,carbon number two is A)primary.
B)secondary.
C)tertiary.
D)quaternary.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which group is the best description of the properties of alkanes?
A)flammable,reactive,water soluble
B)non-flammable,non-polar,water soluble
C)flammable,non-reactive,insoluble in water
D)non-flammable,polar,reactive
E)none of the above
Q3) Which list includes all the elements that would be found in an alkane with an amine group?
A)C,H
B)C,H,O
C)C,H,N
D)C,H,O,H
E)H,N
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Chapter 13: Alkenes, alkynes, and Aromatic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are general properties of alkenes except A)soluble in non-polar (organic)solvents.
B)low boiling points.
C)flammable.
D)less reactive than the corresponding alkanes.
E)may exist as cis-trans isomers.
Q2) The commonly accepted mechanism for explaining alkene reactions involves formation of A)carbocations.
B)carbanions.
C)carbon atoms with 10 electrons.
D)carbon atoms with four electrons.
E)carbon atoms which have lost all their electrons.
Q3) Which of the following reactions involves addition of two different elements to an alkene?
A)bromination
B)chlorination
C)hydrohalogenation
D)hydrogenation
E)none of the above
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Chapter 14: Some Compounds With Oxygen, sulfur, or a Halogen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which property of thiols makes them useful as additives to natural gas?
A)flammability
B)solubility
C)odor
D)color
E)disinfectant
Q2) The simplest aromatic alcohol,recognized by its strong medicinal odor and used as a disinfectant is A)ethanol.
B)glycerol.
C)glycol.
D)methanol.
E)phenol.
Q3) All of the following properties of alcohols are affected by hydrogen bonding except A)boiling point.
B)miscibility with water.
C)ability to dissolve polar substances.
D)molecular weight.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 15: Aldehydes and Ketones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a A)carboxylic acid.
B)primary alcohol.
C)secondary alcohol.
D)tertiary alcohol.
E)ketone.
Q2) What is the product of oxidation of butanal?
A)butane
B)2-butanol
C)butanoic acid
D)1-butanol
E)no reaction
Q3) In the Benedict's test,
A)an aldehyde is oxidized.
B)a silver mirror is produced.
C)the copper (II)ion is oxidized.
D)all of these
E)none of these
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Chapter 16: Amines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using dashed lines illustrate how ethyl amine would hydrogen bond with water,increasing its solubility.
Q2) Amines are classified by the number of A)alkyl groups attached to the nitrogen.
B)hydrogens attached to the nitrogen.
C)carbons attached to the carbon bonded to the nitrogen.
D)carbons present in the molecule.
E)none of the above
Q3) An alkaloid that is a chemically altered opiate known for its very addictive properties is
A)morphine.
B)codeine.
C)atropine. D)coniine.
E)heroin.
Q4) Some amine drugs are administered in the form of salts in order to make them A)form into pills more easily.
B)taste bitter.
C)more basic.
D)more soluble in body fluids.
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Chapter 17: Carboxylic Acids and Their Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solubility of compounds containing the carboxylic acid group can be increased by reaction with A)sulfuric acid.
B)nitric acid.
C)sodium hydroxide.
D)water.
E)benzoic acid.
Q2) Which of the following bonds is not present in a carboxylic acid functional group?
A)C=C
B)C=O
C)C-O
D)O-H
E)none of the above
Q3) Reaction of a carboxylic acid with a base like sodium hydroxide,NaOH gives a(n) A)carboxylate salt.
B)alkoxide salt.
C)ester.
D)alcohol.
E)none of the above
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Amino Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which functional group is least important in biochemistry?
A)amide
B)amine
C)aromatic
D)ester
E)hydroxyl
Q2) Which amino acid can form covalent sulfur-sulfur bonds?
A)cysteine
B)glycine
C)proline
D)methionine
E)phenylalanine
Q3) Where in a protein structure are basic groups located?
A)at the N-terminal end
B)at the C-terminal end
C)on the Lys,Arg,and His side chains
D)both A and C
E)none of the above
Q4) Draw the tripeptide as it would be found at pH = 7: ala-gly-phe
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Chapter 19: Enzymes and Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The theory of enzyme mechanism that suggests a flexible molecule whose shape is altered by the reaction conditions is the ________ model.
A)coenzyme
B)induced-fit
C)lock-and-key
D)substrate specific
E)active site
Q2) Enzymes are members of which class of biomolecules?
A)carbohydrates
B)lipids
C)nucleic acids
D)proteins
E)steroids
Q3) The nonprotein portion required by some enzymes for proper functioning is called a(an)
A)zymogen.
B)substrate.
C)inhibitor.
D)cofactor.
E)activator.
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Chapter 20: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following monosaccharides is present in nucleic acids?
A)glucose
B)galactose
C)ribose
D)fructose
Q2) A sugar is classified as a d-isomer if the hydroxyl group on the
A)chiral carbon nearest to the carbonyl points to the left.
B)chiral carbon nearest to the carbonyl points to the right.
C)chiral carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the left.
D)chiral carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the right.
E)end carbon farthest from the carbonyl points to the left.
Q3) Glycogen is produced by ________,and its major function is ________.
A)animals;energy storage
B)animals;as a structural component
C)plants;as a structural component
D)plants;energy storage
E)none of the above
Q4) Draw the and anomers that result from the reaction between glucose and methanol.
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Chapter 21: The Generation of Biochemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photosynthesis is an ________ process because the free energy of the products is ________ the free energy of the reactants.
A)endergonic;greater than B)exergonic;greater than C)endergonic;less than D)exergonic;less than E)equilibrium;the same as
Q2) A metabolic pathway in which a molecule is progressively built up by repeated interaction with the same set of enzymes is a(an)________ pathway.
A)anabolic
B)catabolic
C)cyclic
D)linear
E)spiral
Q3) List and discuss the reasons that ATP is so useful as a biochemical energy transport molecule.
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Chapter 22: Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The synthesis of glycogen from excess glucose is A)glycolysis.
B)gluconeogenesis. C)glycogenesis.
D)glycogenolysis.
E)the pentose phoshate pathway.
Q2) The target molecule(s)for -amylase is(are) A)glucose. B)sucrose.
C)all disaccharides.
D)starch.
E)starch and glycogen.
Q3) The overall yield of ATP molecules from the complete catabolism of one molecule of glucose in humans and other mammals is A)18.
B)24. C)38.
D)42.
E)56.
Q4) What are the three possible fates of pyruvate?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The compound that is the immediate precursor to the prostaglandins is A)cholesterol.
B)oleic acid.
C)stearic acid.
D)arachidonic acid.
E)leukotriene.
Q2) Eicosanoids function as A)sex hormones.
B)thyroid hormones.
C)local hormones.
D)neurotransmitters.
E)membrane components.
Q3) Local hormones
A)are short-lived.
B)can be prostaglandins.
C)can be leukotrienes.
D)act near their point of synthesis.
E)all of the above
Q4) Use the terms hydrophobic,hydrophilic,and micelle to explain how a soap removes grease from fabric.
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Chapter 24: Lipid Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormones ________ and ________ control the release of energy from stored triacylglycerol.
A)insulin;cortisone
B)adrenalin;glucagon
C)norepinephrine;cortisone
D)insulin;glucagon
E)adrenalin;norepinephrine
Q2) Where do the first chemical changes in the digestion of dietary fats take place?
A)mouth
B)stomach
C)small intestine
D)large intestine
E)liver
Q3) When fats are metabolized,the fatty acids enter the reactions of the A)electron transport chain.
B)citric acid cycle.
C)glycolysis pathway.
D) -oxidation process.
E)gluconeogensis.
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Page 26

Chapter 25: Protein and Amino Acid Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the carbon backbones from amino acids end up as intermediates in the A)citric acid cycle.
B)urea cycle.
C) -oxidation sequence.
D)both A and C
E)none of the above
Q2) When the amino acid alanine is deaminated,it is converted to A)glutamate.
B)acetate.
C)pyruvate.
D)oxaloacetate.
E)urea.
Q3) The process by which an amino group of one amino acid is exchanged with the keto group of an -ketoacid is called a A)oxidative deamination.
B)reductive deamination.
C)transamination.
D)hydrolysis.
E)transfer reaction.
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Chapter 26: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which base is normally found in RNA but not in DNA?
A)thymine
B)adenine
C)guanine
D)uracil
E)cytosine
Q2) After initiation of protein production,the correct order for the steps in the manufacture of proteins is
I.elongation
II.peptide bond formation
III.termination
IV.tRNA binding with ribosome
A)I,II,III,IV
B)I,IV,II,III
C)IV,II,I,III
D)IV,I,II,III
E)II,I,IV,III
Q3) Distinguish between the forms of RNA that exist in a typical cell.
Q4) Explain the term base pairing and its relationship to replication of DNA.
Q5) Draw the structure for the UMP nucleotide.Label all parts.
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Chapter 27: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A term that encompasses the application of biological and biochemical research to improve the health of humans or other living organisms is
A)bioinformatics.
B)functional genomics.
C)biotechnology.
D)proteomics.
E)toxicogenomics.
Q2) A gene is a(an)
A)complex of DNA and histones formed in a cell nucleus before cell division.
B)segment of DNA that directs synthesis of a specific peptide or protein.
C)list of locations of markers that relate to inheritable traits.
D)set of identical copies of DNA segments from a single ancestor.
E)ordered list of the nucleotides in a segment of DNA.
Q3) There are noncoding sequences that are considered to be A)"junk" DNA.
B)regulatory regions that determine when a gene is turned on.
C)necessary for proper folding of the DNA.
D)all of these
E)none of these
Q4) Explain the difference between polymorphisms and mutations.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Chemical Messengers: Hormones, neurotransmitters, and Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones are involved in the retention of water and blood pressure?
A)thyroxine
B)epinephrine
C)vasopressin
D)testosterone
E)estrogen
Q2) Which statement(s)about hormones are correct?
A)They are secreted by specific tissues.
B)They act over short distances.
C)They travel through the blood stream to the location of action.
D)both A and B
E)both A and C
Q3) The two systems responsible for regulating the huge number of chemical processes in the human body are the ________ and ________ systems.
A)circulatory;digestive
B)reproductive;endocrine
C)nervous;endocrine
D)nervous;digestive
E)digestive;endocrine

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Chapter 29: Body Fluids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
73 Verified Questions
73 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/65934
Sample Questions
Q1) The human body contains approximately 64% ________ fluid.
A)extracellular
B)intracellular
C)blood plasma
D)none of the above
Q2) In which part of the kidney does the blood enter it?
A)glomerulus
B)Henle's loop
C)kidney tubule
D)Bowman's capsule
E)nephrons
Q3) Hemoglobin contains how many heme groups for each molecule?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q4) Comment on the tertiary structure of the defensive proteins immunoglobulins and fibrin.Explain how the structure of each protein contributes to its function.
Q5) Distinguish between inflammatory and immune responses to antigens.
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