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Introduction to Psychology provides a comprehensive overview of the scientific study of human behavior and mental processes. This course explores foundational concepts including perception, learning, memory, development, motivation, emotion, personality, and psychological disorders, as well as the methods psychologists use to investigate questions and solve problems. Emphasis is placed on understanding both biological and social influences on behavior, and students will engage with classic and contemporary research, real-world applications, and ethical considerations in psychology.
Recommended Textbook
Drugs Behaviour and Society 2nd Canadian Edition by Carl L Hart Dr
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Q1) Despite the limitations of survey questionnaires, when can they be informative?
A) If they are done year after year, because we can then look for changes over time.
B) If they seek information regarding those who are not included in the survey.
C) If they ask questions regarding alcohol use, because it is not illegal.
D) If they ask about the misuse of prescription drugs.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the four principles of psychoactive drug use would state; "the effect of any psychoactive drug depends on ___________________."
A) the individual's history and expectations
B) its legal status
C) the user's diet
D) the user's unique brain chemistry
Answer: A
Q3) What is one of the most important protective factors for drug use?
A) Having to work for your spending money.
B) Having been punished for fighting.
C) Knowing adults who use drugs.
D) Believing that there are strong sanctions against substance use at school.
Answer: D
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Q1) In what year did Canada enact its first drug law?
A) 1892
B) 1902
C) 1908
D) 1918
Answer: C
Q2) After Rita returns from her first narcotics support group she learns that physical dependence requires the existence of which of the following?
A) A physical change in skin colour
B) A craving for the drug
C) A set of physical withdrawal symptoms
D) A physical response to the drug
Answer: C
Q3) The DSM-5 does not define addiction as such, but has diagnostic criteria for A) Habituation
B) Substance-related disorders
C) Chronic intoxication
D) Drug-associated bipolar disorder
Answer: B
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Q1) Although prior to 1908, opium was not viewed as a serious societal threat, which of the following was viewed to be a problematic health concern in Canada?
A) Alcohol and cocaine
B) Cocaine and tobacco
C) Heroin and cocaine
D) Tobacco and alcohol
Answer: D
Q2) In what year did Health Canada implement The Marihuana Medical Access Regulations?
A) 1995
B) 2001
C) 2005
D) 2010
Answer: B
Q3) When did the Le Dain Commission take place, and what was the outcome?
Answer: The inquiry took place between 1969 and 1973. The commission produced four reports.
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Q1) Gated ion channels for sodium and potassium open and close in rapid succession, causing the neuron to depolarize and then repolarize, during each
A) Action potential.
B) Homeostasis.
C) Metabolism.
D) Transporter.
Q2) PET and MRI are two examples of what technology?
Q3) Homeostasis can be loosely translated as "moving and fluid."
A)True
B)False
Q4) For drug molecules to readily cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be somewhat lipophilic (soluble in oil).
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?
Q6) What are the two important lines of evidence that suggest that homeostatic processes mobilize to counteract some alcohol-related effects?
Q7) Describe the somatic system.
Q8) Describe the role of serotonin.
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Q1) Chemicals that have an effect on all neurons must do it by influencing some characteristic common to all neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many children did Health Canada estimate are taking Ritalin in Canada?
A) 45,000
B) 100,000
C) 145,000
D) 255,000
Q3) With increasing doses of any useful drug what is there usually an increase in the number and severity of?
A) Side effects
B) Beneficial effects
C) Placebo effects
D) Effects on the stomach
Q4) Caffeine and cocaine are both considered to be stimulant drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is drug tolerance?
Q6) Describe the double-blind procedure.
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Q1) Describe acute toxicity referencing cocaine.
Q2) Which of following was NOT one of the early medical uses for amphetamine when it was first studied in the 1930s?
A) Treating narcolepsy
B) Treating anxiety
C) Treating hyperactivity (ADHD)
D) Weight control
Q3) Snorting cocaine is the most common route by which the drug is used recreationally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cocaine is still legally available for use in nasal, laryngeal, and esophageal surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q5) By which means can paranoid psychosis be produced?
A) By high doses of amphetamines.
B) By methamphetamine, but not any other form of amphetamine.
C) By withdrawal from long-term amphetamine use.
D) By stimulant drugs, but only in certain individuals.
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Q1) Benzodiazepines produce their effects because they enhance the normal inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Animals will self-inject several of the benzodiazepines, but at higher rate than with the short-acting barbiturates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When barbiturates were the most popular sedative-hypnotics, low doses of the long-acting types were used as sleeping pills.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The primary medical uses for sedative-hypnotics have been to treat anxiety and sleep disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe what has been recently discovered regarding GABA.
Q6) What is the existing law regarding volatile solvent use in Canada?
Q7) Describe what is known regarding the early introduction of gaseous anaesthetics.
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Q1) Describe psychotherapeutic drugs.
Q2) The perspective that symptoms of a mental disorder identify a diagnosis that points to a cause and then a cure is referred to in the text as which of the following?
A) Medical model
B) Disease model
C) Treatment approach
D) Inclusion model
Q3) Antipsychotic drugs have their initial effect in the brain by blocking D2 dopamine receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What should Joseph avoid now that he has been prescribed monoamine oxidase inhibitors for his depression?
A) Exposure to strong sunlight.
B) Foods high in tyramine, such as aged cheeses.
C) Strenuous exercise.
D) Foods high in citrus, such as grapefruit juice.
Q5) What is lithium?
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Q6) Explain how the Hebb's model characterizes the progression of panic disorder.

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Q1) At a BAC of 0.08, what is approximately the relative risk of being involved in a fatal automobile crash?
A) 10 percent higher than for a sober driver.
B) The same as for a sober driver.
C) Three times as great as for a sober driver.
D) Twenty times as great as for a sober driver.
Q2) Hangover-prevention products sold on TV and over the Internet are actually pretty effective if they contain activated charcoal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD.
Q4) What describes the alcoholic content of beverages that uses the term "proof"?
A) Twice the percentage of alcohol
B) The same as the percentage of alcohol
C) Half the percentage of alcohol
D) Ten times the percentage of alcohol
Q5) Describe how Canadian and Scotch whiskies are different than American whiskey.
Q6) Which aspect of human functioning does fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) impact?
Q7) Discuss some of the effects of alcohol on sexual behaviour.
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Q1) According to research most cigarette smoking is done in a fairly reliable way, describe what occurs.
Q2) Is there an effective nondrug program for quitting smoking?
Q3) How often are children in Canada exposed to second-hand smoke, and what are its consequences?
Q4) Heather Crowe fought to protect workers from second-hand smoke, because she was a nonsmoker who died due to lung cancer that was attributed to occupational exposure to cigarette smoke.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the death rates from cancer of the lung and bronchus in nonsmokers and smokers of various numbers of cigarettes.
Q6) Which of the following can be credited for the first printed report of tobacco smoking?
A) Christopher Columbus
B) A monk who had accompanied Columbus on his journey
C) Catherine de Medici French physician Jean Nicot
D) Sir Anthony Chute
Q7) Describe the effects of cigarette smoking on a developing fetus and a newborn.
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Q1) Martin states that he was born in the country that invented milk chocolate. Where is his birthplace?
A) Asia
B) England
C) Spain
D) Switzerland
Q2) Describe caffeinism.
Q3) All of the following have been identified as a possible consequence of drinking caffeine and pregnancy, EXCEPT which one?
A) Increases the rate of miscarriages
B) Increases the rate of abnormalities
C) Increase rate of smaller births
D) Reduces chances of getting pregnant
Q4) In which region of the world does the first documented existence of tea exist?
A) China
B) East India
C) England
D) Japan
Q5) What are three possible ways in which caffeine use by a woman might interfere with reproduction?
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Q1) What do the medicinal ingredients approved for OTC sleep aids include?
Q2) How are OTC drugs regulated by Health Canada?
Q3) If dextromethorphan is taken your are seeking headache remedies, arthritis formulas, cold and sinus remedies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Studies have shown that about 35% of people will receive satisfactory pain relief from a placebo.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Starting in 2007, what is the only FDA-approved OTC weight-control ingredient?
A) PPA
B) Caffeine
C) Orlistat
D) CCK
Q6) What fueled the growth in the public awareness of, and demand for NHPs?
Q7) One popular appetite suppressant of the 1970s and 80s, Ayds, was sold as a butterscotch candy and contained PCP.
A)True
B)False Page 14
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Q1) What have Siegel and his colleagues shown in animal studies regarding tolerance to opioids?
A) It is due to reduced absorption of the drug.
B) It is not very great.
C) It occurs after only a single exposure.
D) It is partly due to conditioned protective reflexes.
Q2) Which of these opioids is about 100 times as potent as morphine?
A) Codeine
B) Methadone
C) Pentazocine
D) Fentanyl
Q3) Opium smoking was widespread in China by 200 BC.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Canadian supply of opium and heroin comes primarily from South and Southwest Asia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Where does the Canadian supply of opium and heroin come from, and what trends were stated in the text?
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Q1) What was the profession/role of the first to report on the psychological effect of LSD?
A) Harvard psychologist
B) A Swiss chemist
C) A Viennese physician
D) Spiritual worshippers
Q2) What two drugs share the rave scene with MDMA?
A) DOM and Mescaline
B) 2-C-T7 and Scopolamine
C) Scopolamine and Mescaline
D) 2-CB and 2-C-T7
Q3) Describe Salvia divinorum and how it is used.
Q4) In rare cases, people who have used LSD experience similar symptoms weeks or months later. What term describes this experience?
A) Synesthesia
B) Flashbacks
C) Automatism
D) Semantic memory
Q5) Explain why PCP was thought to be a useful anesthetic and why this use failed to be practical for humans.
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Q1) What are the known reproductive effects of marijuana use?
Q2) Describe the known panic reactions effects of acute marijuana intoxication and what can be done during this form of panic reaction.
Q3) THC is suggested as a useful drug in treating all of the following EXCEPT which condition?
A) AIDS-related anorexia
B) Neuropathic pain related to MS
C) CINV
D) Epilepsy
Q4) Where does hash and hash oil smuggled into Canada predominantly originate from?
Q5) What are the contraindications to the use of marijuana?
Q6) What are the 66 chemicals that are known to be unique to the cannabis plant called?
A) Cannabinoids
B) THIQs
C) Opioids
D) Butyrates
Q7) What is anandamide?
Q8) Describe the History of Cannabis Policy in Canada.
Q9) What are the penalties for a first conviction for the possession of marijuana? Page 18
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Q1) Which of these was NOT mentioned as one of the psychological side effects of high doses of steroids?
A) Memory loss
B) Paranoid jealousy
C) Mood swings
D) Increased aggressiveness
Q2) It is acceptable for CFL athletes to use dietary supplements containing ephedrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some bodybuilders are trying to appear not only big and strong, but also lean. How is this sometimes described?
A) Hot and heavy
B) Wired or hacked
C) Cut, ripped, or shredded
D) Smooth or dry
Q4) How do anabolic steroids affect skeletal muscle size?
Q5) When applied to a drug, the word ergogenic means "energy-producing."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What has research on the DARE program exposed?
A) Most parents and community members don't approve of it
B) It has not produced statistically significant reductions in drug use
C) Gang activity is greater in schools with DARE programs
D) It consistently reduces binge drinking and marijuana initiation
Q2) In the early 1970s, why was the Knowledge-Attitudes-Behaviour model questioned?
A) Drug users didn't care much what people thought about them
B) Students with more knowledge about drugs had a more positive attitude toward drugs
C) Drug-using behaviour is unrelated to attitudes about drug use
D) It was more effective just to use scare tactics
Q3) What is the average age at which students grades 7-12 consumed their first alcoholic beverage and when they first used cannabis?
Q4) What was the "Don't be a Patsy" program, and what was the outcome?
Q5) What is Communities Mobilizing for Change on Alcohol?
Q6) What were some of the concerns of early drug education.
Q7) DARE is one of the most widespread drug prevention programs in schools.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is Project ALERT, and how effective is it?
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Q1) All of the following students reflect the goals of Tier 4 and 5 EXCEPT which one?
A) Are designed to meet the needs of larger numbers of people
B) Are highly specialized and intensive
C) Services and supports are costly
D) Eligibility to use services is regularly based on more structured admission criteria
Q2) Moderate doses of dronabinol can be used to reduce the symptoms associated with abstinence from marijuana.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Studies of court-ordered referrals to Alcoholics Anonymous versus other types of interventions have demonstrated what outcomes?
A) They found that none of these approaches are effective.
B) They found that AA is more effective than other approaches.
C) They found that other approaches are more effective than AA.
D) They did not find any differences in effectiveness between AA and other approaches.
Q4) Define the term concurrent disorder.
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