Introduction to Pharmacology for Allied Health Final Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Pharmacology for Allied Health offers students a foundational understanding of how drugs interact with the human body and the essential principles governing their use in healthcare settings. Covering key topics such as drug classifications, mechanisms of action, absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, this course emphasizes common medications used in the treatment of various diseases and conditions. Students will learn about safe medication administration, potential side effects, drug interactions, and the legal and ethical responsibilities associated with pharmacologic therapies. Designed for students pursuing allied health professions, the course prepares learners to communicate effectively about medications within interdisciplinary healthcare teams and contribute to optimal patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) Prescription use of a drug to treat conditions other than those that the drug was originally approved to treat (off label prescribing)
A) is illegal and punishable by revoking a physician's license
B) is legal only if the Center for Disease Control provides written permission to the physician
C) is legal only if the drug is not a controlled substance
D) is legal and quite common in the United States
E) is legal only after the patent for a drug has expired
Answer: D
Q2) The use of specific drugs to prevent,treat,or diagnose disease is known as A) toxicology
B) pharmacokinetics
C) pharmacotherapeutics
D) toxicokinetics
E) dynamic equilibrium
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This first pass effect is of particular concern when drugs are administered A) topically
B) by intravenous injection
C) by subcutaneous injection
D) by inhalation
E) orally
Answer: E
Q2) Osmosis refers to the special case of diffusion where the diffusing substance is
A) a lipid soluble drug
B) a non-lipid soluble drug
C) a protein
D) a carbohydrate
E) water
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of time required for 50 percent of the drug remaining in the body to be eliminated is known as the
A) median effective dose
B) median toxic dose
C) median efficacy
D) median threshold dose
E) half-life
Answer: E
Q2) Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by
A) the liver
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a drug to bind to its receptor can be influenced by local chemicals such as guanine nucleotides,ammonium ions,and divalent cations.These local regulators are commonly known as _____.
A) competitive agonists
B) noncompetitive agonists
C) allosteric modulators
D) partial antagonists
E) chelators
Q2) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
Q2) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diazepam (Valium)and other benzodiazepines bind to specific GABA receptors in the CNS,and inhibit neuronal activity by _____ the conductance of ______ ions into the neuron.
A) increasing; sodium
B) decreasing; sodium
C) increasing; potassium
D) decreasing; potassium
E) increasing; chloride
Q2) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cornerstone of drug treatment for bipolar syndrome (manic-depression)consists of
A) tricylic antipressants
B) monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
D) lithium
E) dopamine agonists
Q2) Lithium has a tendency to accumulate in the body and reaches toxic levels (lithium toxicity)because
A) lithium elimination takes place almost exclusively through excretion in the urine
B) lithium is metabolized by hepatic enzymes
C) lithium is not absorbed easily from the GI tract
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of _______ pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
Q3) Newer or "atypical" antipsychotics are often preferred because
A) they bind more effectively to dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia
B) they offer a greater chance of curing schizophrenia
C) they are less expensive than traditional agents
D) they have a reduced risk of causing motor side effects
E) they are available without prescription
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Barbiturates are considered to be very safe and effective in the treatment of seizures,but their use is often limited because of their strong tendency to produce
A) sedation
B) myopathy
C) cardiac dysrhythmias
D) hair loss
E) glaucoma
Q2) Benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (Klonopin)are effective in controlling certain seizures because they increase the inhibitory effects of ______ in the CNS.
A) norepinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
E) gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA)
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs such as selegiline (Eldepryl)and rasagiline (Azilect)that inhibit the monoamine oxidase type B (MAOB)enzyme may be helpful in Parkinson disease because
A) they increase dopamine absorption from the GI tract
B) they increase the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the bloodstream
C) they decrease the movement of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier
D) they decrease the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
E) they increase the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain
Q2) Parkinson disease typically occurs because of the slow,progressive degeneration of specific _______-secreting neurons in the ______.
A) acetylcholine; cortex
B) norepinephrine; cerebellum
C) dopamine; basal ganglia
D) serotonin; limbic system
E) glutamate; brain stem
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
Q2) Adipose tissue is a primary site for the absorption and temporary accumulation of general anesthetics because
A) adipose tissues are highly perfused by the bloodstream
B) general anesthetics are very water soluble
C) general anesthetics are very lipid soluble
D) adipose tissue is the primary site where general anesthetics are metabolized
E) none of the above are true; general anesthetics are not absorbed by adipose tissue
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Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Local anesthetics inhibit action potential propagation along neuronal axons by blocking the opening of ________ channels.
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
Q2) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
Q3) In order to provide symptomatic relief of minor surface irritation and injury (minor burns,abrasions,and so forth),local anesthetics are typically applied
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) topically
D) by inhalation
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrathecal administration of baclofen typically refers to drug delivery into
A) the epidural space
B) the subarachnoid space
C) a sympathetic chain ganglion
D) the third ventricle of the brain
E) the gray matter of the spinal cord
Q2) Muscle relaxant effects of botulinum toxin appear to diminish or wear off after several months because
A) the immune system destroys the toxin
B) the muscle hypertrophies and generates more muscle fibers
C) a new presynaptic terminal "sprouts" from the axon was originally affected by the toxin
D) the liver metabolizes the toxin
E) the toxin is excreted intact in the urine
Q3) Botulinum toxin is used to treat spasticity by injecting this drug
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) subcutaneously
D) directly into the spastic muscle
E) none of the above are true; botulinum toxin is not used to treat spasticity
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid analgesics are also known commonly as _______ because they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
A) narcotics
B) narcoleptics
C) neuroleptics
D) naturopathics
E) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Q2) By blocking all opioid receptors,opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone are used primarily to
A) treat severe, acute postoperative pain
B) treat severe chronic pain
C) treat opioid overdose
D) treat diarrhea
E) opioid antagonists have no therapeutic value
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16
Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin ______ be used to treat fever in children because this drug may cause
A) should; elevated body temperature
B) should not; elevated body temperature
C) should; Reye syndrome
D) should not; Reye syndrome
E) should; aspirin intoxication
Q2) Aspirin and other NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effects by interfering with the biosynthesis of
A) leukotrienes
B) catecholamines
C) prostaglandins
D) cyclic AMP
E) endogenous opioids
Q3) Prostaglandins are
A) small proteins that inhibit cellular inflammation
B) a specific type of lymphocyte involved in the inflammatory process
C) carbohydrates that regulate cell division
D) steroids that increase cellular metabolism
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drugs are considered "disease-modifying" antirheumatic drugs
EXCEPT
A) NSAIDs such as aspirin
B) gold compounds such as auranofin (Ridaura),
C) tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept (Enbrel)
D) antimalarials such as chloroquine (Aralen)
E) methotrexate
Q2) Because they may supply key ingredients needed for the production of articular cartilage and synovial fluid,dietary supplements such as _________ are used by some patients with osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin and acetaminophen
B) prednisone and methylprednisone
C) chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine
D) ibuprofen and ketoprofen
E) glucosamine and chondroitin
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Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
Q2) During patient-controlled analgesia (PCA),the lockout interval is
A) the time between the end of surgery and the start of PCA
B) the time between activation of the delivery device and the onset of analgesia
C) the number of days that PCA is used before switching to more traditional pain medications
D) the minimum amount of time between each demand dose
E) the minimum amount of time between each loading dose
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19
Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
Q2) Alpha and beta receptors are the two primary subcategories of A) muscarinic cholinergic receptors
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors
C) dopamine receptors
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) adrenergic
Q3) A drug that inhibits muscarinic cholinergic receptors will selectively
A) increase sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
B) decrease sympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
C) increase parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
D) decrease parasympathetic responses on peripheral tissues
E) increase responses in all tissues innervated by the autonomic nervous system
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
Q2) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q2) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q3) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonselective beta blockers may produce bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma and similar respiratory disorders because nonselective beta blockers
A) stimulate beta-1 receptors on the lungs
B) block beta-1 receptors on the lungs
C) stimulate beta-2 receptors on the lungs
D) block beta-2 receptors on the lungs
E) stimulate alpha-1 receptors on the lungs
Q2) Certain beta-blockers such as pindolol and acebutolol are valuable because they block the effects of excessive endogenous catecholamines while still producing a normal background level of sympathetic stimulation to the heart.These beta blockers are said to have
A) nonselective sympatholytic activity
B) intrinsic sympatholytic activity
C) intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
D) extrinsic sympatholytic activity
E) selective sympatholytic activity
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
Q2) Nitroglycerin patches are typically used intermittently (e.g.,12 hours on,12 hours off)to prevent
A) skin irritation from the patch
B) liver toxicity
C) kidney damage
D) pulmonary toxicity
E) tolerance to the drug
Q3) Beta blockers help prevent angina pectoris in certain patients because these drugs
A) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
B) increase myocardial oxygen supply
C) decrease oxygen demand in peripheral tissues (skeletal muscle)
D) increase cardiac output
E) decrease blood flow to the heart
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antiarrhythmic drug used to treat bradycardia inadvertently creates tachycardia.The most likely reason is that this drug causes _____ of the ______.
A) inhibition; sinoatrial node
B) excitation; sinoatrial node
C) inhibition; bundle of His D) excitation; bundle of His E) inhibition; atrioventricular node
Q2) Calcium channel blockers are useful in treating certain cardiac arrhythmias because they
A) decrease the rate of discharge of the SA node
B) increase conduction velocity through the AV node
C) block the effects of catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine) on cardiac tissues
D) inhibit the ability of sodium to excite cardiac membranes
E) none of the above are true; calcium channel blockers are not used to treat arrhythmias
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing fluid accumulation and congestion in the lungs and peripheral tissues are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q2) Phosphodiesterase inhibitors such as inamrinone and milrinone may help increase myocardial contraction in heart failure by ______ breakdown of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP),which leads to a(n)______ in calcium in cardiac cells.
A) inhibiting; increase
B) stimulating; increase
C) inhibiting; decrease
D) stimulating; decrease
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug strategies would NOT be indicated in conditions like deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) drugs that increase the ability of antithrombin to inhibit the activity of several clotting factors (e.g., heparin)
B) drugs that inhibit vitamin K metabolism in the liver (e.g., warfarin)
C) drugs that inhibit fibrinolysis (e.g., aminocaproic acid [Amicar], tranexamic acid [Cyklokapron])
D) drugs that directly inhibit the active form for clotting factor X (e.g., fondaparinux [Arixtra], rivaroxaban [Xarelto])
E) drugs that directly inhibit thrombin activity (e.g., lepirudin [Refludan], dabigatran [Pradaxa])
Q2) Patient taking statins to improve plasma lipid profiles may be at increased risk for statin-induced myopathy if they
A) are elderly
B) have multiple diseases
C) have frail stature
D) are taking immunosuppressant drugs
E) all the above
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To selectively produce bronchodilation,a drug should _____ receptors in airway smooth muscle
A) stimulate beta-1
B) inhibit beta-1
C) stimulate beta-2
D) inhibit beta-2
E) stimulate alpha-1
Q2) Drugs that antagonize (block)the H1 subtype of histamine receptors
A) are effective in treating gastric ulcers
B) are effective in treating sedation
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
Q3) The primary associated problem with most traditional sedative and antihistamine medications is
A) increased coughing
B) watery eyes
C) runny nose
D) gastric ulcers
E) sedation
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Q1) Natural and synthetic opioid drugs _____ gastrointestinal motility,and are therefore useful in treating _____.
A) increase; diarrhea
B) decrease; diarrhea
C) increase; constipation
D) decrease; constipation
E) none of the above are true; opioids do not affect gastrointestinal motility
Q2) Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole (Prilosec)and esomeprazole (Nexium)are useful in reducing gastric acid secretion because they
A) contain a base that chemically neutralizes gastric acid
B) block the effects of histamine on stomach H2 receptors
C) inhibit the enzyme that secretes acid from gastric parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach
D) inhibit the enzyme that transports sodium out of gastric parietal cells, and transports potassium into these cells
E) none of the above are true; these drugs are not useful in reducing gastric acid secretion
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Q1) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
Q2) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
Q3) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Q1) Drugs with mineralocorticoid-like activity (aldosterone agonists)are typically administered
A) to treat hypertension
B) to treat inflammation
C) as replacement therapy in people with low renin-angiotensin system activity
D) as replacement therapy whenever the natural production of mineralocorticoids is impaired
E) all the above are true
Q2) Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone act on the kidneys to _____
A) increase sodium excretion
B) increase water excretion
C) increase potassium reabsorption
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Glucocorticoids are released from the adrenal cortex
A) on a daily basis, usually around 8:00 a.m. in most humans
B) in response to stressful stimuli (trauma, fever, and so forth)
C) in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Q1) In adult men,testosterone synthesis is stimulated by ______ hormone via a direct effect on _____ cells in the testes.
A) follicle stimulating; Leydig
B) follicle stimulating; Sertoli
C) luteinizing; Leydig
D) luteinizing; Sertoli
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Drugs that block progesterone receptors (i.e.,antiprogestins)such as mifepristone can be used clinically to
A) terminate pregnancy during the early stages of gestation
B) decrease pain and bleeding caused by benign uterine fibroid growths (leiomyomas, endometriois)
C) prevent hyperglycemia caused by excess cortisol production in Cushing syndrome
D) all the above
E) A and B only
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Q1) Vitamin D and several related metabolites enhance bone formation by _____ intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate,and _____ renal excretion of calcium and phosphate.
A) increasing; increasing B) increasing; decreasing C) decreasing; increasing D) decreasing; decreasing E) none of the above are true
Q2) Parathyroid hormone ______ plasma calcium levels by ______ calcium resorption from bone.
A) increases; increasing B) increases; decreasing C) decreases; decreasing D) decreases; decreasing. E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin _____ the storage of glucose in skeletal muscle and other tissues,thereby _____ plasma glucose levels after a meal.
A) increases; increasing B) increases; decreasing C) decreases; increasing
D) decreases; decreasing E) none of the above are true
Q2) Certain forms of biosynthetic insulin are absorbed more rapidly than regular human insulin because
A) other substances such as acetate or protamine have been added to the insulin molecule in increase absorption
B) zinc has been added to the insulin molecule to increase absorption
C) newer forms of biosynthetic insulin can be administered orally via slow-release or sustained-release preparations
D) the amino acid sequence of the insulin molecule has been altered to allow more rapid absorption
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillin,cephalosporins,and several other commonly used antibacterial drugs exert their antibacterial effects by inhibiting the function of ______,which results in impaired production of _________ that are essential for normal membrane structure and function.
A) folic acid; nucleic acids
B) penicillin-binding proteins; ribosomes
C) folic acid; ribosomes
D) penicillin-binding proteins; peptidoglycans
E) nucleic acids; folic acids
Q2) Bacteria can become resistant to antibacterial drugs by
A) developing enzymes that destroy the drug
B) modifying or masking the site where the antibacterial drug typically binds on or within the bacterial cell
C) modifying the bacterial enzymes normally targeted by the drug
D) developing drug efflux pumps that expel the drug from the bacterial cell
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although several different drugs are available to treat malaria,many of these drugs are ineffective in certain parts of the world because
A) malaria is difficult to diagnose accurately
B) the organism that causes malaria has become resistant to these drugs
C) antimalarial drugs must all be given by continuous intravenous infusion
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Many antifungal drugs selectively affect fungal cells rather than human cells by impairing the synthesis or function of specific sterols and polysaccharides that are located in the fungal cell
A) membrane
B) mitochondria
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) DNA
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the newer cancer chemotherapy agents (e.g.,cytokines)are called biological therapies or biological response modifiers because they
A) form strong alkyl bonds within the DNA of the cancerous cell
B) act as false nucleic acid precursors during DNA biosynthesis
C) encourage the body's immune system to fight cancerous cells
D) encourage the mitotic apparatus to function more effectively
E) stimulate the supply of blood and nutrients to the developing tumor
Q2) Most anticancer drugs exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because
A) these drugs have a high therapeutic index (TI)
B) most of these drugs are not approved by the FDA
C) most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells
D) these drugs all have extremely long half-lives, and tend to accumulate in the body for an extended period of time
E) the threshold dose of these drugs is typically much higher than other drugs
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyclosporine and tacrolimus suppress immune function by inhibiting the ______ protein in lymphoid tissues which results in decreased production of _____.
A) calcineurin; interleukin-2
B) interleukin-2; immunoglobulin G
C) immunoglobulin G; prostaglandins
D) prostaglandins; interleukin-2
E) interleukin-2; calcineurin
Q2) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
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