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Introduction to Patient Care offers students a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles and practices involved in delivering quality healthcare to patients. Focusing on the roles and responsibilities of healthcare professionals, the course covers essential topics such as patient communication, medical ethics, safety protocols, infection control, patient assessment, and basic clinical skills. Through a combination of theoretical learning and practical exercises, students develop a patient-centered approach, emphasizing empathy, cultural sensitivity, and professionalism. This foundational course prepares students for further study and future clinical experiences in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pierson and Fairchilds Principles Techniques of Patient Care 5th Edition by Sheryl L. Fairchild
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13 Chapters
260 Verified Questions
260 Flashcards
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Q1) Which four-phased system of medical record keeping uses a common list of patient problems as its base in addition to a series of progress notes to assess the effectiveness of treatment plans?
A) POMR
B) SOAP
C) HIPAA
D) NVC
Answer: A
Q2) Which term is used to describe a dynamic process in which the practitioner makes clinical judgments based on gathered data and identifies problems pertinent to patient management?
A) Assessment
B) Examination
C) Evaluation
D) Treatment
Answer: C
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Q1) Which list of diseases describes those that are more commonly transmitted through contact?
A) Herpes simplex virus, Staphylococcus aureus, VRE, and C.difficile
B) Strep throat, meningitis, pneumonia, and influenza
C) The common cold, pertussis (whooping cough), smallpox, and mumps
D) Measles, varicella (chickenpox), and M. tuberculosis
Answer: A
Q2) What is the recommended length of time for hand washing with ordinary soap and water?
A) 0-10 seconds
B) 10-15 seconds
C) 15-30 seconds
D) More than 30 seconds
Answer: C
Q3) What are the most common modes of transmission of pathogenic microorganisms?
A) Gloves, masks, and gowns
B) Tables, chairs, and beds
C) Water and food
D) Contact, droplet, airborne
Answer: D
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Q1) How should the arm be positioned when blood pressure is measured at the brachial artery?
A) Above the level of the heart
B) At the level of the heart
C) Below the level of the heart
D) Near the patient's chest
Answer: B
Q2) What systolic/diastolic value of blood pressure is recognized as normal for an adult?
A) 180/110
B) 160/100
C) 140/90
D) 120/80
Answer: D
Q3) What is the normal resting pulse range for an adult?
A) 40-80 beats per minute
B) 60-100 beats per minute
C) 80-120 beats per minute
D) 100-140 beats per minute
Answer: B
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Q1) How should objects above shoulder or head height be approached?
A) Standing on your toes with arms stretched above your head
B) Standing on a rolling chair
C) Standing on a wide-based footstool or ladder
D) By jumping and grasping quickly
Q2) At what level is the approximate center of gravity (COG)of a standing person?
A) The iliac crest
B) The navel
C) The first lumbar segment
D) The second sacral segment
Q3) In an attempt to lift an object,which two measures are recommended for proper body mechanics?
A) Increasing your base of support, positioning your COG near the object's COG
B) Decreasing your base of support, positioning your COG near the object's COG
C) Increasing your base of support, positioning your COG far from the object's COG
D) Decreasing your base of support, positioning your COG far from the object's COG
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Q1) Following a total knee replacement,in what position is it important to keep the affected extremity at rest?
A) Knee flexion
B) Knee extension
C) Hip flexion
D) Hip extension
Q2) Why is patient draping important?
A) To provide for the modesty of the patient
B) To maintain appropriate body temperature
C) To provide access to areas to be treated while protecting other areas
D) All of the above
Q3) Which areas of a supine patient are at greatest risk for pressure sores?
A) Occipital tuberosity, spines of the scapula, sacrum, and heels
B) Acromions, lateral epicondyles, anterior iliac crests, and metatarsal heads
C) Posterior iliac crests, mandibular condyles, patellae, and medial malleoli
D) Inferior angles of the scapula, tibial tubercle, and transverse processes of the vertebrae
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Q1) In general,according to the length-tension curve of a muscle,during which portion of a muscle's range is it capable of developing the greatest tension during an isotonic contraction?
A) Beginning ranges
B) Midranges
C) End ranges
D) Tension develops equally throughout a muscle's range
Q2) How should patients be instructed to breathe when performing active resistive exercises?
A) Slowly
B) Normally
C) Rapidly
D) Breath should be held
Q3) In which condition is full lengthening of the extrinsic finger flexors contraindicated?
A) Spinal cord injury with C6 nerve root sparing
B) Radial head fracture
C) Medial epicondylitis
D) Shoulder impingement
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Q1) How should a patient in a wheelchair be instructed to react to a backward fall?
A) Place one forehand across the knees and thighs.
B) Reach backward for protection with one hand.
C) Reach backward for protection with both hands.
D) Raise both upper extremities above the head.
Q2) How does the "hemiplegic" wheelchair differ from standard wheelchairs?
A) The seat is lowered approximately 2 inches.
B) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches posterior to their normal position.
C) The seat is widened approximately 2 inches.
D) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches anterior to their normal position.
Q3) Which of the following wheelchair maintenance activities is not recommended?
A) Lubrication of the cross-brace center pin every 6 months
B) Wiping the chair down dry after exposure to rain, snow, or other moisture
C) Immersing the chair in water or spraying it with a hose to remove debris
D) Periodic lubrication of armrest posts with a silicon spray
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Q1) During a standing,assisted pivot transfer,where should a caregiver's left leg be placed if the patient has significant right knee weakness?
A) Posterior to the weak knee
B) Anterior to the weak knee
C) Lateral to the weak knee
D) Near the patient's stronger side
Q2) In the transfer of a patient from supine to prone,how should the patient's lowermost upper extremity be positioned?
A) Folded across the chest
B) In 90 degrees of flexion
C) In 90 degrees of abduction
D) Tucked along the patient's side
Q3) To perform an assisted sitting transfer with a transfer board,where should the board be positioned?
A) Directly under the buttocks
B) Under the posterior portion of the buttocks
C) Beneath the thigh and over the drive wheel
D) Beneath the thigh and in front of the drive wheel
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Q1) If a patient is using bilateral crutches and has been instructed to bear only partial weight on the left lower extremity,what should he or she lift first when ascending a curb?
A) The right lower extremity
B) The left lower extremity
C) Either crutch
D) Both crutches simultaneously
Q2) Which muscle group functions to decelerate the limb between the midswing and initial contact phases of gait?
A) Quadriceps
B) Hamstrings
C) Hip flexors
D) Gluteus medius/minimus
Q3) Which gait pattern describes the repetitive,alternating,reciprocal forward movement of assistive devices and the person's opposite lower extremities?
A) One-point gait
B) Two-point gait
C) Three-point gait
D) Four-point gait
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Q1) What is a normal blood glucose level?
A) 30 mg/dL
B) 90 mg/dL
C) 180 mg/dL
D) 540 mg/dL
Q2) What type of exercise is recommended if a patient's INR is between 4.0 and 5.0?
A) Heavy resistive and aerobic exercise
B) Only light exercise; resistive exercises should be avoided
C) Low-intensity resistive exercises
D) Only limited bed mobility; all other physical activity should be deferred
Q3) Which platelet count permits the performance of resistive exercises?
A) 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) 40,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) 60,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) 80,000/mm<sup>3</sup>
Q4) Which medication is an anticoagulant?
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Aspirin
D) All of the above
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Q1) According to the rule of nines,what percentage of the total body area is each upper extremity assigned?
A) 9 percent
B) 18 percent
C) 27 percent
D) 36 percent
Q2) What are the goals for an infected wound?
A) Maintain a moist wound bed, and soften and remove eschar.
B) Protect the surrounding tissue, absorb exudate, and contain infection.
C) Maintain a moist wound bed, and protect surrounding tissue.
D) Maintain a moist wound bed, and absorb exudates.
Q3) Which of the following is an aspect of chest physical therapy (CPT)?
A) Postural drainage
B) Percussion and vibration
C) Airway clearance
D) All of the above
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Q1) If an AED is available,how many cycles of CPR should be performed before its application?
A) 2
B) 5
C) 15
D) 25
Q2) Which of the following are signs of hyperglycemia?
A) Dry tongue
B) Large amounts of glucose in urine
C) Drowsy behavior
D) All of the above
Q3) Over which body part should your hands be clasped when performing the Heimlich maneuver?
A) The sternum
B) The upper back
C) Below the umbilicus
D) Below the diaphragm
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Q1) What is the maximum recommended height for closet rods in a wheelchair-accessible home?
A) 36 inches
B) 42 inches
C) 48 inches
D) 54 inches
Q2) Which term refers to an action necessary to provide a reasonable accommodation that would cause an employer or owner significant difficulty or expense?
A) Undue burden
B) Reasonable accommodation
C) Undue accommodation
D) Reasonable burden
Q3) What is the recommended regular shower area in a wheelchair-accessible home?
A) 32 by 32 inches
B) 36 by 36 inches
C) 40 by 40 inches
D) 44 by 44 inches
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