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Introduction to Nutrition explores the fundamental principles of human nutrition, emphasizing the role of nutrients and their impact on health, growth, and disease prevention. The course covers the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals, as well as the relationship between diet and chronic diseases. Students will learn about dietary requirements across the lifespan, evaluate nutritional information, and examine contemporary issues such as food safety, nutrient supplementation, and developing healthy eating patterns. This course provides a foundation for understanding the science of nutrition and its application to personal and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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1975 Verified Questions
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Q1) Orange juice fortified with calcium to help build strong bones is an example of a(n):
A)phytochemical.
B)functional food.
C)organic food.
D)convenience food.
Answer: B
Q2) The kcalorie content of a food depends on how much it contains of each of the following except:
A)carbohydrate.
B)fat.
C)water.
D)protein.
Answer: C
Q3) A package of prunes states that the product is a good fiber source and the Nutrition Facts panel indicates the product contains 12% of the Daily Value for dietary fiber.This product can legally make this claim.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Chyme is:
A)a semiliquid mass of partially digested food.
B)a portion of food swallowed at one time.
C)an enzyme in the stomach needed for the digestion of protein.
D)an esophageal secretion.
Answer: A
Q2) Leftovers should be used within _____ days.
A)5-7
B)3-4
C)2-3
D)1-2
Essay
Answer: B
Q3) To prevent foodborne illnesses:
A)Fresh produce should be washed before it is eaten.
B)Only new sponges and towels should be used in the kitchen.
C)Leftovers can safely be covered and left at room temperature until the next meal.
D)Meats should be marinated at room temperature.
Answer: A
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Q1) The nonnutritive sweetener that is unsafe for people with phenylketonuria is:
A)aspartame.
B)neotame.
C)sucralose.
D)stevia.
Answer: A
Q2) Jeff consumed the following foods for a meal: small baked potato, <sup>1</sup>/<sub>2</sub> cup of carrots, 1 cup skim milk, and 1 small banana.Approximately how many grams of carbohydrate did Jeff consume?
A)47
B)57
C)66
D)69
Answer: A
Q3) A client consumes 2000 kcalories per day and 200 grams of carbohydrate.This person meets the current dietary recommendations for carbohydrate intake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) A 2000-kcalorie diet that provides 25% of kcalories from fat would contain _____ grams of fat.
A)500
B)550
C)55
D)15
Q2) To replace saturated with unsaturated fats in your diet, which of the following would you spread on a bagel at breakfast?
A)peanut butter
B)margarine
C)butter
D)cream cheese
Q3) Which of the following high-fat foods would be the least heart-healthy to consume daily?
A)avocados
B)walnuts
C)potato chips
D)canned tuna
Q4) Discuss the concept of "good fats" and "bad fats."
Q5) Describe the various functions of fat in the human body.
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Q1) What is the primary cause of the edema that accompanies kwashiorkor?
A)Albumin concentrations fall and fluid leaks into interstitial spaces.
B)Lipoprotein synthesis is diminished, causing fat to accumulate.
C)Protein is lost from the heart muscle, resulting in a weak heartbeat.
D)Synthesis of enzymes is reduced.
Q2) Essential amino acids:
A)are found mostly in plant foods.
B)cannot be synthesized by the body.
C)cannot be supplied by the diet.
D)are the best source of energy for the body.
Q3) The term "non-essential," as it applies to amino acids, means that:
A)the body does not require them.
B)they differ in their capacity to support growth.
C)the liver can produce those the body lacks.
D)they are not used to synthesize tissue.
Q4) Vegans must carefully combine their plant protein foods in order to obtain the full array of essential amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given that EER for women = [354 - (6.91 * age)] + PA * [(9.36 * wt) + (726 * ht)], estimate the energy requirements for Anne, an active 27 year old (PA = 1.27) who is 5 feet 4 inches tall and weighs 130 pounds.
A)1700-1800
B)2300-2400
C)2600-2700
D)3200-3300
Q2) The health risk associated with central obesity has to do with:
A)an imbalance in adopokines.
B)the proximity of the excess fat to the gallbladder.
C)an imbalance in cytokines.
D)the proximity of excess fat to the small intestine.
Q3) Which of the following individuals would be classified as being very active?
A)a carpenter
B)a teacher
C)a football player
D)a gardener
Q4) Fat can be made from an excess of any energy-yielding nutrient.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) David has a difficult time gaining weight.Your recommendations to him include:
A)"Eat all you want and avoid physical activity."
B)"Limit low-kcalorie foods like fruits and vegetables."
C)"Ask your doctor for a prescription for orlistat."
D)"Consume energy-dense foods and engage in weight training."
Q2) Weight-loss surgeries:
A)reduce the capacity of the stomach.
B)are dangerous and should be avoided.
C)have no complications.
D)worsen existing health conditions associated with obesity.
Q3) The benefits of regular physical activity in weight loss include all of the following except:
A)appetite control.
B)a long-term increase in basal metabolism.
C)stress reduction.
D)loss of lean body mass.
Q4) Obese people who are maintaining weight have lower blood levels of ghrelin than thinner people on weight-loss diets.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of vitamin A is involved in gene expression?
A)retinoic acid
B)retinol
C)retinal
D)retinol-binding protein
Q2) Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin D
D)vitamin E
E)vitamin K
Q3) What vitamin needs special consideration for those eating vegan diets? Explain why and make diet planning recommendations.
Q4) Phytochemicals:
A)are essential nutrients.
B)are bioactive compounds found in foods.
C)have no biological activity in the body.
D)are nonessential nutrients.
Q5) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
Q6) Why is milk usually sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers?
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Q1) The primary regulator of extracellular fluid volume is:
A)chlorine.
B)sodium.
C)magnesium.
D)potassium.
Q2) In the U.S., low iron intake is often associated with:
A)high sugar and fat intakes.
B)high protein intake.
C)low carbohydrate intake.
D)low intake of fruits and vegetables.
Q3) Magnesium deficiency may occur as a result of all of the following except: A)vomiting.
B)diarrhea.
C)constipation.
D)alcohol abuse.
Q4) Which of the following is a trace mineral?
A)iron
B)sulfur
C)calcium
D)potassium
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Q1) If a woman gains 30 pounds during pregnancy, the net amount of body fat she gains is about _____.
A)1 pound
B)7 pounds
C)10 pounds
D)15 pounds
Q2) During pregnancy, physicians often recommend _____ for healthy-weight women.
A)multivitamin and mineral supplements and weight gain of about 25-35 pounds
B)no vitamin or mineral supplements and weight gain of at least 30 pounds
C)vitamin C supplements and weight gain of about 20 pounds
D)multivitamin and mineral supplements and weight gain of no more than 20 pounds
Q3) Most pregnant women need iron supplements because:
A)their RDA for iron is twice that of non-pregnant women.
B)the body does not conserve iron well during pregnancy.
C)iron supplements are better absorbed than iron from food.
D)their iron reserves are generally not high.
Q4) Describe the nutrient attributes of breast milk and how it is tailor-made to meet the nutrient needs of the human infant.
Page 12
Q5) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Q6) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.
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Q1) Bobby's fatigue is due to iron's role in:
A)neurotransmitter synthesis.
B)immune function.
C)energy metabolism.
D)brain tissue development.
Q2) Characteristics of school lunches include all of the following except:
A)they must include specified quantities of certain foods each week.
B)different school lunch patterns are required for different age groups.
C)they must adhere to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans.
D)enriched grains and animal protein foods are required components.
Q3) The nurse practitioner suggests that Bobby begin taking an over-the-counter children's multivitamin-mineral supplement.The multivitamin-mineral supplement provides 10 \(\mu\)g (100% Daily Value) of vitamin D.How many 8-oz.glasses of milk, each supplying 2.5 \(\mu\)g of vitamin D, will Bobby need to consume daily?
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q4) What is the role of the "gatekeeper" as applied to nutrition?
Q5) Describe an ideal treatment program for childhood obesity.
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Q1) Older adults face a greater risk of vitamin D deficiency than young people due to:
A)low consumption of meat.
B)low intake of vegetables.
C)limited exposure to sunlight.
D)low intake of fiber.
Q2) Research supports the notion that an overload of minerals in the body causes Alzheimer's disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An older adult complains about the expense of cooking for one.You suggest:
A)purchasing large bags of frozen vegetables.
B)purchasing large bags of shredded cheese.
C)purchasing eggs in large quantities.
D)stocking up on fresh produce when in season.
Q4) Describe why energy needs decline with advancing age.
Q5) Older adults spend more money per person on foods to eat at home than other age groups.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Genomics research may be helpful in all of these areas except:
A)fine-tuning nutrient recommendations for individuals.
B)establishing indicators of nutrient status for some minerals.
C)understanding how nutrient deficiencies may alter gene expression.
D)determining environmental factors that may influence disease risk.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that an illness that interferes with the digestion or absorption of nutrients may ultimately lead to:
A)difficulty swallowing.
B)inappropriate food intake.
C)a shorter hospital stay.
D)slower healing from injury.
Q3) What is the ideal body weight of a 42-year-old female who is 5'5" tall and of medium frame?
A)108 pounds
B)113 pounds
C)132 pounds
D)149 pounds
Q4) List three different methods for obtaining food intake data and describe the major uses, advantages, and limitations of each.
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Q1) Using the Harris-Benedict equation for women (below), estimate the resting metabolic rate of Mrs.Clements, who is 72 years old, is 157 cm tall, and weighs 53 kg. RMR = 655.1 + [9.563 * weight (kg)] + [1.85 * height (cm)] - [4.676 * age (years)]
A)662 kcal
B)1115 kcal
C)1436 kcal
D)1789 kcal
Q2) Grapefruit juice affects drug absorption by:
A)increasing blood concentration of some drugs.
B)decreasing blood concentration of some drugs.
C)inactivating certain drugs.
D)altering the action of certain drugs.
Q3) Which of the following patients would most benefit from indirect calorimetry?
A)65 yo with hip fracture
B)55 yo undergoing gastric bypass
C)88 yo in the critical care unit for sepsis
D)70 yo with pneumonia
Q4) List five foods that would be appropriate on a high-kcalorie, high-protein diet, and explain why they are included.
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Q1) Which of the following medical conditions or treatments indicates the need for TPN?
A)severe swallowing disorders
B)mechanical ventilation
C)extremely high nutrient needs
D)paralytic ileus
Q2) Name and discuss five metabolic complications that may result from parenteral feedings.
Q3) Which of Mr.Edward's conditions requires that he be kept NPO?
A)history of alcoholism
B)pancreatitis with vomiting
C)malnutrition with wasting
D)end-stage cancer
Q4) Fiber in an enteral formula provides all of the following benefits except:
A)it normalizes intestinal function.
B)it helps to treat diarrhea and constipation.
C)it increases the caloric content of the formula.
D)it helps with blood glucose control.
Q5) Describe the current procedure for administering a central TPN feeding.
Q6) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
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Q1) Which of the following amino acids has been shown to have beneficial effects on critically ill patients?
A)leucine
B)glutamine
C)valine
D)isoleucine
Q2) A COPD patient who complains of abdominal discomfort and dyspnea may benefit from:
A)small, frequent meals.
B)a low-fat diet.
C)a high-fiber diet.
D)consuming more liquids.
Q3) A patient with ARDS requires mechanical ventilation.The nurse recognizes that fluid accumulation is a potential problem and understands that this may make it difficult to assess his:
A)weight.
B)temperature.
C)kcalorie intake.
D)fluid intake.
Q4) Describe the body's hormonal responses to stress.
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Q1) List the symptoms of dumping syndrome and explain the sequence of events that results in these symptoms.
Q2) Clinical studies indicate that the gastric banding procedure is more effective and has fewer long-term complications than gastric bypass surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following foods stimulates saliva flow and neutralizes acids in the mouth?
A)hamburger
B)legumes
C)orange juice
D)cheese
Q4) People with _____ often complain of food "sticking" in the esophagus.
A)esophageal dysphagia
B)oropharyngeal dysphagia
C)dyspepsia
D)gastritis
Q5) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q6) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
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Q1) The gastrointestinal symptoms Kati is experiencing are due to:
A)severe damage to the intestinal mucosa and subsequent malabsorption.
B)a lack of pancreatic enzymes and resulting malabsorption.
C)gastrointestinal obstructions caused by the secretion of thick mucus.
D)bacterial overgrowth causing a disruption in fat digestion and absorption.
Q2) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
Q3) The treatment for irritable bowel syndrome includes all of the following except: A)surgery.
B)dietary adjustments.
C)stress management.
D)behavioral therapy.
Q4) Sarah is a 21-year-old college student who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease.She is underweight and has a poor appetite.Realizing that Sarah is at nutritional risk, the nurse advises that Sarah:
A)consume an oral nutrition supplement two to three times a day.
B)increase the fiber in her diet.
C)increase her intake of milk to four cups a day.
D)eat more high-fat foods.
Q5) Identify the possible causes of diarrhea and describe the appropriate treatment for both acute and chronic diarrhea.
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Q1) Collaterals are:
A)small blood vessels in the intestines.
B)blood vessels that enlarge in order to allow an alternate path for blood flow.
C)induced by fatty liver disease.
D)hemorrhages in the esophagus.
Q2) Fat should be restricted in the diet of all clients with cirrhosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The dietitian assesses Mr.Jamison's protein needs based on an appropriate weight for his height and estimates that he requires _____ grams of protein per day.
A)25-51
B)52-62
C)56-83
D)98-118
Q4) Drug therapy for the treatment of cirrhosis includes all of the following except:
A)antibiotics.
B)appetite stimulants.
C)immunosuppressants.
D)diuretics.
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Q1) An obese patient with type 2 diabetes wants to begin an exercise program.The nurse recommends that the patient:
A)start by walking 30 minutes a day.
B)join a gym.
C)hire a personal trainer.
D)seek a medical evaluation.
Q2) Excessive urine production is called:
A)polydipsia.
B)polyuria.
C)ketonuria.
D)glycosuria.
Q3) Mr.Hummel's BMI indicates he is _____, which likely affects his blood glucose control.
A)underweight
B)at his healthy weight
C)overweight
D)obese
Q4) Name and describe three methods for evaluating glycemic control.
Q5) What is the "honeymoon period" associated with diabetes treatment?
Q6) Describe the different methods of insulin delivery.
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Q1) Compared to the typical American diet, the DASH diet provides:
A)more fruits and vegetables.
B)less milk and dairy products.
C)more grains and fat.
D)more meat.
Q2) In working with clients with disabilities, a valuable assessment method for health care professionals is:
A)interviewing the clients.
B)directly observing clients during mealtimes.
C)conducting nutrition histories.
D)talking with the occupational therapist.
Q3) Which of the following statements about atherosclerosis is true?
A)It can affect almost any organ in the body.
B)It results in malabsorption.
C)It can interfere with the secretion of digestive enzymes.
D)It is rare in women.
Q4) Cardiovascular diseases are the leading cause of death in both Europe and the United States.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A person on peritoneal dialysis can consume _____ more liberally than can a person on hemodialysis.
A)fluids
B)phosphorus
C)potassium
D)calcium
Q2) Recovery from kidney injury may begin with a period of diuresis and a patient's fluid status should be monitored closely.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is:
A)diabetes.
B)infectious diseases.
C)genetic disorders.
D)inflammatory diseases.
Q4) Which of the following is not appropriate after a kidney transplant?
A)calcium supplements for those on corticosteroids
B)< 300 milligrams cholesterol per day
C)protein intake of at least twice the RDA
D)< 10% of total kcalories from saturated fat
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Q1) Which of the following nutrition interventions is most appropriate for a patient who complains that food doesn't taste right?
A)"Consume foods chilled or at room temperature."
B)"Let family members prepare food for you."
C)"Avoid foods with strong odors."
D)"Talk a walk before you eat."
Q2) Most cancer patients abandon conventional treatments and use alternative therapies in the place of conventional therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ms.Arther complains that she is too tired to fix meals and eat.Appropriate recommendations for her include all of the following except:
A)Engage in physical activity regularly.
B)Let family members and friends prepare food for you.
C)Obtain foods that are easy to prepare and easy to eat.
D)Find time to rest before attempting to prepare a large meal.
Q4) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
Q5) What suggestions would you give a cancer patient concerning ways to control nausea and vomiting?
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