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Introduction to Nursing Practice provides students with a foundational understanding of the essential roles, responsibilities, and skills required in the nursing profession. This course covers the basic concepts of patient care, professional standards, and ethical practices, while promoting critical thinking and effective communication within a healthcare team. Through a combination of classroom instruction, laboratory simulations, and clinical experiences, students gain hands-on exposure to core nursing procedures, infection control, patient safety, and holistic care. The course also explores historical perspectives, emerging trends, and the importance of cultural competence in nursing, preparing students for further study and entry-level practice in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is formulating a nursing care plan for a postpartum patient. Which actions by the nurse indicate use of critical thinking skills when formulating the care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Using a standardized postpartum care plan
B) Determining priorities for each diagnosis written
C) Writing interventions from a nursing diagnosis book
D) Reflecting and suspending judgment when writing the care plan
E) Clustering data during the assessment process according to normal versus abnormal Answer: B, D, E
Q2) Which response by the nurse is the most therapeutic when the patient states, "I'm so afraid to have a cesarean birth"?
A) "Everything will be OK."
B) "Don't worry about it. It will be over soon."
C) "What concerns you most about a cesarean birth?"
D) "The physician will be in later and you can talk to him."
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) A couple asks the nurse about the procedure for surrogate parenting. Which correct responses should the nurse provide for this couple? (Select all that apply.)
A) Donated embryos can be implanted into the surrogate mother.
B) The surrogate mother needs to have carried one previous birth to term.
C) You both need to be infertile to be eligible for surrogate parenting.
D) Conception can take place outside the surrogate mother's body and then implanted.
E) The surrogate mother can be inseminated artificially with sperm from the intended father.
Answer: A, D, E
Q2) The clinic nurse often cares for patients who are considering an abortion. Which responsibilities does this nurse have in regard to this issue? (Select all that apply.)
A) Informing the patient about pro-life options
B) Informing the patient about pro-choice support groups
C) Being informed about abortion from a legal standpoint
D) Being informed about abortion from an ethical standpoint
E) Recognizing that this issue may result in confusion for the patient
Answer: C, D, E
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly pregnant patient asks the nurse, "What is a false pelvis?" Which statement by the nurse will best explain this anatomy to the patient?
A) It is the total anterior portion of the pelvis.
B) It is considered to be the lower portion of the pelvis.
C) It provides support for the internal organs and the upper part of the body.
D) It is the narrowest part of the pelvis through which a fetus will pass during birth.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is explaining the function of the male's cremaster muscle to a group of nursing students. Which statement accurately describes the function of the cremaster muscle?
A) Assists with transporting sperm
B) Aids in temperature control of the testicles
C) Aids in voluntary control of excretion of urine
D) Entraps blood in the penis to produce an erection
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) the baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) The nurse is teaching prenatal patients about avoiding substances or conditions that can harm the fetus. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elimination of use of alcohol
B) Avoidance of supplemental folic acid replacement
C) Stabilization of blood glucose levels in a diabetic patient with insulin
D) Avoidance of nonurgent radiologic procedures during the pregnancy
E) Avoidance of maternal hyperthermia to temperatures of 37.8°C (100°F) or higher
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Q1) Which statement best describes the changes that occur during the fetal period of development?
A) Maturation of organ systems
B) Development of basic organ systems
C) Resistance of organs to damage from external agents
D) Development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange
Q2) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant due to which anatomical adaptation?
A) Maternal blood flow is lower.
B) Placenta attaches most firmly.
C) Uterine endometrium is softer.
D) Developing baby is best nourished.
Q3) The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant patient. Which statement indicates to the nurse that further clarification is necessary?
A) "My baby gets oxygen from the placenta."
B) "The placenta functions to help excrete waste products."
C) "The nourishment that I take in passes through the placenta."
D) "The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby."
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Q1) Which physiologic finding is consistent with normal pregnancy?
A) Systemic vascular resistance increases as blood pressure decreases.
B) Cardiac output increases during pregnancy.
C) Blood pressure remains consistent independent of position changes.
D) Maternal vasoconstriction occurs in response to increased metabolism.
Q2) A pregnant woman has come to the emergency department with complaints of nasal congestion and epistaxis. Which is the correct interpretation of these symptoms by the health care provider?
A) Nasal stuffiness and nosebleeds are caused by a decrease in progesterone.
B) These conditions are abnormal. Refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.
C) Estrogen relaxes the smooth muscles in the respiratory tract, so congestion and epistaxis are within normal limits.
D) Estrogen causes increased blood supply to the mucous membranes and can result in congestion and nosebleeds.
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse will explain that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which condition?
A) Congenital anomalies
B) Death before or after birth
C) Neonatal hypoglycemia
D) Neonatal withdrawal syndrome
Q2) In a prenatal education class, the nurse is reviewing the importance of using relaxation techniques during labor. Which patient statement will the nurse need to correct?
A) "We will practice relaxation techniques only in a quiet setting so I can focus."
B) "Relaxation is important during labor because it will help me conserve my energy."
C) "If I relax in between contractions, my baby will get more oxygen during labor."
D) "My partner and I will practice relaxation throughout the remainder of my pregnancy."
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Q1) A pregnant patient arrives for her first prenatal visit at the clinic. She informs the nurse that she has been taking an additional 400 mcg of folic acid prior to becoming pregnant. Based on the patient's history, she has reached 8 weeks' gestation. Which recommendation would the nurse provide regarding folic acid supplementation?
A) Have the patient continue to take 400 mcg folic acid throughout her pregnancy.
B) Tell the patient that she no longer has to take additional folic acid because it will be included in her prenatal vitamins.
C) Have the patient increase her folic acid intake to 1000 mcg throughout the rest of her pregnancy.
D) Schedule the patient to go for an AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) test.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a prenatal nutrition education class for a group of nursing students. Which statement best describes the condition known as pica?
A) Iron-deficiency anemia
B) Intolerance to milk products
C) Ingestion of nonfood substances
D) Episodes of anorexia and vomiting
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Q1) A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant asks the nurse to explain the vibroacoustic stimulator (VAS) test. Which should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.)
A) The test is invasive.
B) The test uses sound to elicit fetal movements.
C) The test may confirm nonreactive nonstress test results.
D) The test can only be performed if contractions are present.
E) Vibroacoustic stimulation can be repeated at 1-minute intervals up to three times.
Q2) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Determine if a metabolic disorder exists.
B) Identify the sex of the fetus.
C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.
D) Determine fetal lung maturity.
Q3) The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following?
A) Advice to the couple
B) Information about the tests
C) Reassurance about fetal safety
D) Assistance with decision making
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Q1) A patient with no prenatal care delivers a healthy male infant via the vaginal route, with minimal blood loss. During the labor period, vital signs were normal. At birth, significant maternal hypertension is noted. When the patient is questioned, she relates that there is history of heart disease in her family; but, that she has never been treated for hypertension. Blood pressure is treated in the hospital setting and the patient is discharged. The patient returns at her scheduled 6-week checkup and is found to be hypertensive. Which type of hypertension is the patient is exhibiting?
A) Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)
B) Gestational hypertension
C) Preeclampsia superimposed on chronic hypertension
D) Undiagnosed chronic hypertension
Q2) A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
A) gastrointestinal upset.
B) effects of magnesium sulfate.
C) anxiety caused by hospitalization.
D) worsening disease and impending convulsion.
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Q1) Which is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a patient who smokes cigarettes while pregnant?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction
B) Genetic changes and anomalies
C) Extensive central nervous system damage
D) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
Q2) A patient at 24 weeks of gestation reports that she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. Which rationale should the nurse provide this patient regarding the necessity to eliminate alcohol intake?
A) The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth.
B) The fetus is at risk for severe nervous system injury.
C) The patient will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.
D) A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism.
Q3) Which data in the patient's history should the nurse recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of postpartum depression?
A) Previous depressive episode
B) Unexpected operative birth
C) Ambivalence during the first trimester
D) Second pregnancy in a 3-year period
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Q1) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
Q2) The nurse is assessing the duration of a patient's labor contractions. Which method does the nurse implement to assess the duration of labor contractions?
A) Assess the strongest intensity of each contraction.
B) Assess uterine relaxation between two contractions.
C) Assess from the beginning to the end of each contraction.
D) Assess from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next.
Q3) Which assessment finding would cause a concern for a patient who had delivered vaginally?
A) Estimated blood loss (EBL) of 500 mL during the birth process
B) White blood cell count of 28,000 mm3 postbirth
C) Patient complains of fingers tingling
D) Patient complains of thirst
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the labor and birth area for emergent birth. Vaginal exam reveals that the patient is fully dilated, vertex, +2 station, with ruptured membranes. The patient is extremely apprehensive because this is her first childbirth experience and asks for an epidural to be administered now. What is the priority nursing response based on this patient assessment?
A) Use contact anesthesia for an epidural and prepare the patient per protocol.
B) Tell the patient that she will not need any pain medication because the birth will be over in a matter of minutes and the pain will stop.
C) Assist the patient with nonpharmacologic methods of pain distraction during this time as you prepare for vaginal birth.
D) Call the physician for admitting orders.
Q2) To improve placental blood flow immediately after the injection of an epidural anesthetic, the nurse should
A) give the woman oxygen.
B) turn the woman to the right side.
C) decrease the intravenous infusion rate.
D) place a wedge under the woman's right hip.
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Q1) Which of the following is the priority intervention for a supine patient whose monitor strip shows decelerations that begin after the peak of the contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends?
A) Increase IV infusion.
B) Elevate lower extremities.
C) Reposition to left side-lying position.
D) Administer oxygen per face mask at 4 to 6 L/minute.
Q2) When the mother's membranes rupture during active labor, the fetal heart rate should be observed for the occurrence of which periodic pattern?
A) Early decelerations
B) Variable decelerations
C) Nonperiodic accelerations
D) Increase in baseline variability
Q3) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is gravida 3, para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments include
A) contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history.
B) fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth.
C) last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.
D) identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and access to a support person.
Q2) The labor nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient admitted in active labor with spontaneous rupture of the membranes 6 hours prior to admission with clear fluid. On admission, vital signs were as follows: maternal heart rate (HR) 92 bpm; fetal rate (FHR) baseline, 150 to 160 bpm; blood pressure, 124/76 mm Hg; temperature
F). What is the priority nursing action for this patient?
A) Fetal acoustic stimulation
B) Assess temperature every 2 hours
C) Change absorption pads under her hips every 2 hours
D) Review white blood cell count (WBC) drawn at admission
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Q1) Birth for the nulliparous patient with a fetus in a breech presentation is usually
A) cesarean birth.
B) vaginal birth.
C) vacuumed extraction.
D) forceps-assisted birth.
Q2) Which assessment finding indicates a complication in the patient attempting a vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC)?
A) Complaint of pain between the scapulae
B) Change in fetal baseline from 128 to 132 bpm
C) Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 70 seconds
D) Pain level of 6 on scale of 0 to 10 during acme of contraction
Q3) Which action by the nurse prevents infection in the labor and birth area?
A) Using clean techniques for all procedures
B) Keeping underpads and linens as dry as possible
C) Cleaning secretions from the vaginal area by using a back to front motion
D) Performing vaginal examinations every hour while the patient is in active labor
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Q1) Which clinical finding should the nurse suspect if the fundus is palpated on the right side of the abdomen above the expected level?
A) Distended bladder
B) Normal involution
C) Been lying on her right side too long
D) Stretched ligaments that are unable to support the uterus
Q2) The nurse is developing a plan of care for the patient's fourth stage of labor. One nursing intervention is to promote bonding. Specifically, which nursing action will facilitate the bonding process?
A) Encourage the patient to call the baby by his or her first name.
B) Stimulate the grasp reflex by placing the patient's finger in the infant's palm.
C) Ask the patient if she wants her baby placed on her chest immediately after birth.
D) Assess for familial characteristics and remark on the resemblance to the patient or the father.
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Q1) Prior to ambulating the patient whose admission hemoglobin level was 10.2 g/dL to the bathroom, the nurse should
A) request repeat hemoglobin and hematocrit.
B) assess the resting pulse rate.
C) dangle her on the side of the bed.
D) administer the ordered oral analgesic.
Q2) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
Q3) A positive sign of thrombophlebitis includes A) visible varicose veins.
B) positive Homans sign.
C) pedal edema in the affected leg.
D) local tenderness, heat, and swelling.
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Q1) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
Q2) The nurse is teaching the postpartum patient about newborn transitional stools. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to transitional stools? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are a greenish brown color.
B) They are of a looser consistency.
C) They have a tarlike consistency.
D) They have a consistency of mustard.
E) They are seedy, with a sweet-sour smell.
Q3) Which action by the nurse can result in hyperthermia in the newborn?
A) Placing a cap on the newborn
B) Wrapping the newborn in a warm blanket
C) Placing the newborn in a skin to skin position with the mother
D) Placing the newborn in the radiant warmer without attaching the skin probe
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Q1) A newborn that is a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant is in which percentile(s) for weight?
A) Below the 90th
B) Less than the 10th
C) Greater than the 90th
D) Between the 10th and 90th
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q3) The mother-baby nurse is providing care to a patient and her newborn 2 hours after delivery. On review of the newborn's chart, the nurse sees a notation of caput succedaneum. What will the nurse expect to find in the mother's chart?
A) Race: non-White
B) A longer than usual labor
C) Administration of an epidural
D) Delivery by cesarean birth
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Q1) A nursing student has been caring for a patient and newborn all morning. After taking the newborn to the nursery for hearing screening, the student is returning the infant to his mother. Which procedure is correct for identifying the newborn?
A) Ask the mother to state her name and the name of her infant.
B) Call out the mother's full name before leaving the infant with her.
C) Have the mother read her printed band number and verify that it matches the infant's number.
D) Return the infant with no special procedure because the student knows the mother and infant.
Q2) A new mother asks what she can do to help her infant sleep through the night. Which should the nurse suggest?
A) Bring the infant into a well-lit room for the feeding.
B) Avoid talking to the infant and keep the room quiet during night feedings.
C) Play with the infant after the feeding before putting the infant back into the crib.
D) Change the infant's diaper after the feeding to prevent waking the infant later in the night.
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Q1) A new mother asks the nurse, "How will I know early signs of hunger in my baby?" The nurse's best response is which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Crying
B) Rooting
C) Lip smacking
D) Decrease in activity
E) Sucking on the hands
Q2) A new mother asks whether she should feed her newborn colostrum because it is not "real milk." The nurse's best answer includes which information?
A) Colostrum is unnecessary for newborns.
B) Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals.
C) Colostrum is lower in calories than milk and should be supplemented by formula.
D) Giving colostrum is important in helping the mother learn how to breast-feed before she goes home.
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Q1) In comparison with the term infant, the preterm infant has
A) more subcutaneous fat.
B) well-developed flexor muscles.
C) few blood vessels visible through the skin.
D) greater surface area in proportion to weight.
Q2) Which is the most useful factor in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
Q3) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-lb infant, the nurse should evaluate
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
Q4) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because
A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
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Q1) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q2) Newborns whose mothers are substance abusers frequently exhibit which of the following behaviors?
A) Hypothermia, decreased muscle tone, and weak sucking reflex
B) Excessive sleep, weak cry, and diminished grasp reflex
C) Circumoral cyanosis, hyperactive Babinski reflex, and constipation
D) Decreased amounts of sleep, hyperactive Moro reflex, and difficulty feeding
Q3) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D10W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
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Q1) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q2) A patient presents to the Women's Health Clinic for continuation of her contraceptive method. She has been using Depo-Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) for 24 months. In preparation for instituting a plan of care, the nurse would consider which option as a priority?
A) Schedule the patient for follow-up baseline diagnostic testing to confirm that the patient is not pregnant.
B) Obtain information for an alternate contraception method.
C) Ask the patient for additional information related to her menstrual cycle.
D) Inspect the skin for site selection of contraceptive method.
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Q1) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q2) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).
B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).
C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Q3) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
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Q1) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap test?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
Q2) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a patient who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy
Q3) Which statement regarding primary dysmenorrhea is most accurate?
A) Primary dysmenorrhea is experienced by all women.
B) It is unaffected by oral contraceptives.
C) It occurs in young multiparous women.
D) It may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin.
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