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Course Introduction
Introduction to Mental Disorders explores the fundamental concepts, causes, and classifications of mental health conditions affecting individuals across the lifespan. This course examines the symptoms, diagnostic criteria, and prevailing theories regarding various disorders such as depression, anxiety, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder. Students will gain an understanding of the biological, psychological, and social factors that contribute to mental disorders, as well as contemporary approaches to treatment and prevention. Emphasis is placed on reducing stigma and fostering empathy through real-world case studies and current research findings, preparing students for further study or related careers in the mental health field.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 8th Edition by David H. Barlow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr. Smith is interested in how separation anxiety changes over time from childhood to adolescence in the general population. What is his main field of study?
A) Oedipal theory
B) Behaviorism
C) Child psychopathology
D) Developmental psychology
Answer: D
Q2) In Jill's psychotherapy sessions, the therapist has been using systematic desensitization to gradually make her more comfortable with social situations. Similar to the treatments used for individuals with social phobia, the therapist has given Jill homework assignments that require her to practice talking to strangers, join informal groups, and speak in front of small groups. Most likely, she is being treated for personality disorder.
A) avoidant
B) dependent
C) Antisocial
D) histrionic
Answer: A
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Q1) Bullying studies in mice suggest that the functions of the mesolimbic system
A) can be switched from avoidance to reinforcement.
B) can be switched from reinforcement to avoidance.
C) cannot be changed by experience.
D) can only be changed with drugs.
Answer: B
Q2) The fact that some behaviors can be symptoms of many different disorders (e.g., delusions can be a result of amphetamine abuse or of schizophrenia) is an example of .
A) equifinality
B) psychopathology
C) pathogenesis
D) orthogonal causation
Answer: A
Q3) Rescorla (1988) demonstrated that simply pairing two events closely in time
A) demonstrates the simplicity of classical conditioning.
B) does not allow us to make predictions.
C) becomes more meaningful as the pairings continue.
D) is not what's important in this type of learning.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is a reason why MRIs are used less in diagnosis:
A) they are costly.
B) they usually require that the participant be closed-in and still for a long period of time.
C) both a and b are correct.
D) neither a or b are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) Mr. J., a 40-year-old recent immigrant to the United States, comes from a working-class background and is just learning to speak English. He applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared to others who have taken the test, mostly young college graduates whose native language is English. Mr. J. thinks this is unfair. In fact, this is an issue of __________.
A) reliability
B) classification
C) validity
D) standardization
Answer: D
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Q1) External validity is:
A) an educated guess or statement to be supported by the data
B) the extent to which the results of the study can be generalized or applied outside the immediate study
C) the extent to which the results of the study can be attributed to the independent variable
D) none of the above are correct
Q2) A researcher separates participants into two groups. Group A receives an active medication, and Group B receives an empty capsule that looks and feels like the real medication. Group B is the group.
A) treatment
B) analog
C) control
D) experimental
Q3) The single-case experimental design
A) always uses a single case.
B) is not concerned with external validity.
C) is not concerned with internal validity.
D) often incorporates several people at once.
Q4) Why is studying behavior across cultures important?
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Q1) Describe posttraumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder, and discuss the difference between the two.
Q2) When diagnosing separation anxiety disorder in children, clinicians must
A) determine whether the anxiety matches that expected for the child's age.
B) differentiate between separation anxiety and social anxiety disorder.
C) consider the various types of medication that will be therapeutically effective.
D) be wary for the psychotic episodes that often precipitate this condition.
Q3) An observation has been made between children presenting with OCD and tics after a bout of strep throat. The resulting syndrome was called
A) Strep Throat Acquired Compulsive Disorder (STACD).
B) Streptococcal Caused Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (SCOCD).
C) Pediatric Autoimmune Disorder associated with Streptococcal Infection (PANDAS).
D) Tic Activated by Strep Throat Exemplar (TASTE).
Q4) Many of the DSM-5 criteria specify that the diagnosis must not be "better explained by another disorder." Why do you think that this is the case?
Q5) Why do anxiety conditions differ from person to person?
Q6) Discuss the different types of specific phobias and how they are acquired.
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Q1) In non-Western cultures, trance and possession are
A) extremely rare.
B) never considered a disorder.
C) the most common forms of dissociative disorders.
D) the rarest forms of dissociative disorders.
Q2) The disorder in which more than one distinct personality exists within one individual was changed from multiple personality disorder to ___________ in the DSM-IV.
A) dissociative identity disorder
B) dissociative trance disorder
C) schizophrenia
D) multiple personality disorder
Q3) One aspect of the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder is .
A) patient awareness of the distinct personalities
B) existence of three or more personality fragments
C) amnesia
D) history of abuse
Q4) Discuss the controversy surrounding false memories.
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Q1) In regard to most disorders, serotonin is thought to A) function independently of other neurotransmitters.
B) regulate other neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and dopamine.
C) be unrelated to symptoms.
D) none of the above.
Q2) A child raised by depressed parents is likely to A) struggle with depression as well.
B) learn how to avoid depression.
C) be inoculated against depression.
D) deny stress symptoms.
Q3) When individuals who are biologically vulnerable to depression place themselves in high-risk stressful environments, it is called A) humoral theory.
B) the cognitive-behavioral model.
C) the gene-environment correlation model.
D) a stress-depression linkage effect.
Q4) Discuss the relationship between depression and anxiety.
Q5) Describe how Cognitive Behavior Therapy works for depression.
Q6) Identify and explain the risk factors associated with suicide.
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Q7) Discuss the symptoms, causes and treatments for seasonal affective disorder.

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Q1) Cataplexy as experienced by patients with narcolepsy can be characterized by
A) sudden, minor loss of muscle tone.
B) physical collapse.
C) slight muscle weakness.
D) any of these
Q2) Eating Disorders are common in:
A) Western countries
B) Sub-Saharan Africa
C) people who have Bipolar Disorder.
D) Basketball players
Q3) Describe primary insomnia and contrast it with hypersomnolence disorder and narcolepsy.
Q4) Studies have found that adolescent girls of which race/ethnicity had less body dissatisfaction, fewer weight concerns, and a more positive body image when compared to Caucasian adolescent girls?
A) African Americans
B) Hispanics
C) Native Americans
D) Asians
Q5) Discuss possible treatments for eating disorders.
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Q1) Josh goes to the doctor to talk about his risks for heart disease. Based on this chapter, what is his doctor likely to ask?
A) Do you have any family history of heart disease?
B) Do you smoke?
C) Is your diet rich in fruits and vegetables?
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) The procedure known as biofeedback involves a process by which a person is first helped to become aware of his/her ________________.
A) physiological functions
B) psychological state of mind
C) negative thoughts
D) level of pain
Q3) Carla and Carlos have recently learned that they are HIV positive. According to research studies involving people who are HIV positive, what is most likely to occur?
A) Carla will now have sex only if her partner uses a condom.
B) Carlos will abstain from sex completely.
C) Both Carla and Carlos will stop sharing needles with other drug users.
D) Neither Carlos nor Carla is likely to change any of their previous behaviors.
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Q1) The largest difference in sexual behavior for men versus women is that
A) men are more likely to engage in premarital sex.
B) women are more likely to engage in premarital sex.
C) men are more likely to masturbate.
D) women are more likely to masturbate.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the three stages of sexual response?
A) Desire
B) Arousal
C) Orgasm
D) Refractory period
Q3) Sexual dysfunctions are
A) more common in heterosexuals than homosexuals.
B) more common in homosexuals than heterosexuals.
C) equally common in heterosexuals and homosexuals.
D) generally not reported, so little is known about their incidence.
Q4) Describe and contrast male erectile disorder and female sexual arousal disorder with inhibited orgasmic disorders.
Q5) Are there gender differences in masturbation? If so, what might cause them?
Q6) According to your text, what is "normal" sexual behavior?
Q7) What does the research suggest about frequency of sex in older adults? Page 12
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Q1) Your shy and introverted friend tells you that she has discovered a wonder drug that produces feelings of euphoria and is not addictive. When you realize that she is talking about cocaine, you inform her that
A) scientists agree that it is a wonder drug just as she describes.
B) in the early 20<sup>t</sup><sup>h</sup><sup> </sup>century cocaine was an ingredient in Pepsi-Cola.
C) cocaine will make her more social and outgoing.
D) dependence on cocaine develops slowly over a period of years.
Q2) Relapse prevention refers to a treatment mode that views relapse as
A) a failure of cognitive and behavioral coping skills.
B) a failure of willpower.
C) proof that a person will never be able to control his/her drinking.
D) an insurmountable obstacle to treatment for substance abuse.
Q3) Cannabis use often results in .
A) mood swings
B) blunted sensory experience
C) an accurate sense of time
D) enhanced nausea
Q4) Discuss the various component treatments for substance abuse.
Q5) Discuss the effectiveness of prevention education on adolescent drug use.
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Q1) Which of the following are the two major theories that have been proposed to explain antisocial personality disorder?
A) Underarousal and fearlessness
B) Underarousal and shamelessness
C) Yerkes-Dodson and underarousal
D) Yerkes-Dodson and shamelessness
Q2) When individuals with dependent personality disorder are in therapy, they are A) seemingly "model" patients.
B) resistant to the therapeutic process.
C) too unstable to do the intellectual work that therapy requires.
D) demanding and impulsive.
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely model to explain the cause of borderline personality disorder?
A) Biological
B) Early trauma resulting in posttraumatic stress disorder symptoms that are not recognized or dealt with during childhood
C) Stressful life events
D) Biological predisposition interacting with life events such as childhood trauma and later life stressors
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Q1) Research suggests that treatments such as individual social skills training and family interventions
A) cure schizophrenia.
B) reduce schizophrenic relapses.
C) are ineffective at treating schizophrenia.
D) interfere with medication benefits.
Q2) Apathy is to not caring as avolition is to
A) an inability to initiate and persist in activities.
B) lack of communication skills.
C) poor language education.
D) a negative thought disorder.
Q3) Antoinette believes that her brother is not really her brother. He has, in fact, been replaced by a double. This is known as _______________ syndrome.
A) Capgras
B) Cotard's
C) Barlow's
D) Durand's
Q4) Describe evidence for the heritability of Schizophrenia. Be sure to include at least three examples of familial risks.
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Q1) Discuss the DSM-5 criteria for intellectual disability and the controversy regarding descriptions of the different levels of this disorder.
Q2) Johnny is a 2-year-old boy who has no motivation to interact with other people. His absence of interest in people may also lead to severe deficits in his ability to .
A) amuse himself
B) think
C) communicate
D) walk
Q3) The reason that intellectual disability was recorded on the same DSM-IV axis as personality disorders is because
A) this axis relates to relatively chronic conditions that are less responsive to treatment.
B) intellectual disability and personality disorder generally have similar causes.
C) intellectual disability and personality disorder are generally treated using similar methods.
D) this axis relates to biologically influenced conditions.
Q4) Discuss the possible causes of autistic disorder.
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Q1) The symptoms of substance/medication-induced neurocognitive disorder are most similar to the symptoms observed in _______________.
A) vascular neurocognitive disorder
B) neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease
C) Huntington's disease
D) HIV-induced neurocognitive disorder
Q2) The gene responsible for producing amyloid precursor protein (APP) appears to explain the development of
A) neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease in general.
B) late onset neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
C) non-Alzheimer's type of neurocognitive disorder that tends to affect unique populations, such as those with strong family history of the disorder.
D) early onset neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease and the higher frequency of the disorder in Down Syndrome patients.
Q3) With organic physiological causes, why are neurocognitive disorders often studied by psychologists rather than solely by medical doctors?
Q4) Discuss cross-cultural differences in the diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease.
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the ruling in the 1970s Tarasoff case, a therapist is required to
A) advise a patient of his or her rights.
B) have each patient sign a consent form.
C) warn a patient's potential victim(s).
D) file a police report if threatened by a patient.
Q2) Following the not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI) verdict for John Hinckley in 1981, of the states in
The U.S. substantially changed their insanity defense rules, making it more difficult to use this defense.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Q3) Problem-solving courts may be more helpful to both individuals with mental health problems who break the law and society because they
A) are not based on an adversarial system.
B) are based on an adversarial system.
C) provide for treatment and not punishment.
D) put the interests of the accused above the interests of society.
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