Introduction to Life Science Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Life Science provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts that govern living organisms and life processes. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students will explore how living systems interact with each other and their environments, the role of energy in biological systems, and the scientific methods used to study life. This course aims to develop scientific reasoning and critical thinking skills, preparing students for more advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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1618 Verified Questions
1618 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Humans in the World of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An educated guess or a testable statement used to answer a question about observations is referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: hypothesis
Q2) A testable explanation for an observation.
A)Adaptive trait
B)Ecosystem
C)Metabolism
D)Informed consent agreement
E)Hypothesis
F)Homeostasis
G)Theory
H)Critical thinking
I)Placebo
J)Epidemiologic studies
Answer: E
Q3) ________ reasoning involves gathering of facts that lead toward a logical generalized statement or conclusion.
Answer: Inductive
Q4) A(n)________ is a group of similar cells that perform the same function. Answer: tissue
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes to Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen,with an atomic number of 8,is a neutral atom and would have ________ electrons in the first electron shell and ________ electrons in the second electron shell.
A)1; 7
B)5; 3
C)4; 4
D)2; 6
E)3; 5
Answer: D
Q2) The hydrogen,ionic,and covalent bonds that stabilize the shape of a protein contribute to which level of structure of a protein?
A)primary
B)quaternary
C)secondary
D)tertiary
Answer: D
Q3) The energy storing polysaccharide that can be found mainly in liver and muscle cells is called ________.
Answer: glycogen
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Chapter 3: The Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium ions are normally in higher concentrations outside most living cells compared to the amounts within.Which of the following processes is most likely responsible for this condition?
A)simple diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)osmosis
D)active transport
Answer: D
Q2) A process by which the NADH and FADH pass their electrons through the inner membrane of the mitochondria,producing ATP and metabolic water.
A)Microtubules
B)ATP
C)Glycolysis
D)Electron transport chain
E)Plasma membrane
F)Flagella
G)Cristae
H)Citric acid cycle
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Body Organization and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is a group of cells of similar type that work together to serve a common function.
Q2) Compare and contrast the three types of muscle tissue.
Q3) ________ glands secrete fluids that consist of water,salts,and metabolic wastes,but mainly function to regulate body temperature.
Q4) Which of the following types of skin damage are the most superficial?
A)first-degree burns
B)second-degree burns
C)third-degree burns
D)All of these have the same level of pain.
Q5) A group of organs in the body that have a common function would make up a(n)________.
A)organism
B)brain
C)organ system
D)tissue
Q6) Under warm conditions,you will not have goose bumps because the arrector pili muscles ________.
Q7) Carla has serious acne.What caused it and what can she do to treat it?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the structure and function of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis is the most threatening form of arthritis and often results in a replacement prosthesis of the damaged joint.Explain how this form of arthritis differs from other forms.
Q3) Osteoblasts deposit ________ on the secreted collagen during the transformation from cartilage to a mature bone.
Q4) Eight bones that form the wrist and are connected to the radius and ulna.
A)Carpals
B)Osteoclasts
C)Femur
D)Lumbar
E)Sacrum
F)Humerus
G)Tarsals
H)Metatarsals
I)Osteoblasts
J)Foramen magnum
K)Temporal
Q5) Briefly explain the formation of bone in the human body.
Q6) Behind the palate lie two ________ that form the roof of a human's mouth.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these structures is part of a muscle cell's plasma membrane that delivers signals to the sarcomere?
A)myosin heads
B)actin fibers
C)endoplasmic reticulum
D)T-tubules
Q2) The striations of skeletal muscles are caused by the arrangement of many elongated ________.
Q3) Caused by a neuron,stimulating muscle cells to contract.
A)Lactic acid
B)Transverse tubules
C)Tendons
D)Muscle twitch
E)Fast twitch muscle fibers
F)Tropomyosin
G)Myosin
H)Troponin
I)Slow twitch muscle fibers
J)Calcium ions
K)Actin
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Chapter 7: Neurons: the Matter of the Mind
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific neurons that carry information away from the brain and spinal cord to an effector such as a muscle or a gland.
A)Synaptic knobs
B)Interneurons
C)Dendrite
D)Excitatory synapse
E)Motor neuron
F)Axon
G)Inhibitory synapse
H)Synapse
I)Sensory neuron
J)Ion channels
Q2) ________ involves an insufficient amount of several neurotransmitters,such as serotonin,dopamine,and norepinephrine,for extended periods of time.
Q3) The synaptic ________ is the narrow space between two neurons.
Q4) If a drug had the side effect of destroying dopamine-producing neurons,what effect would this have on a person?
Q5) Motor neurons that carry information away from the brain or spinal cord are known as ________ neurons.
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your neighbor tried to lift a propane tank onto the back of his pickup truck and ruptured the cartilaginous disk between two of his vertebrae.What is most likely to happen to him?
A)He will have bloody stools.
B)He will suffer pain from a compressed spinal nerve.
C)He might have severe brain damage.
D)His spinal nerve cord will enlarge.
Q2) Which of these structures is located under the cerebral hemispheres and is important in sensory experience,motor activity,stimulation of the cerebral cortex,and memory?
A)hypothalamus
B)thalamus
C)pons
D)cerebellum
Q3) Arnold was involved in a major traffic accident and some of his spinal nerves were cut.What are his chances for a full recovery? Please explain your answer.
Q4) Enrique was working with chemicals in a paint factory and suddenly lost the ability to detect odors.Could this loss have anything to do with a failure in the thalamus?
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is a sheet of tissue that separates the outer ear from the middle ear.
Q2) Samantha gets into a new elevator in a large skyscraper and the doors close.She hears no noise,feels no vibration,and sees no movement,but she nevertheless knows that she is on her way up.What specific part of her ear is allowing her to know that she is ascending?
A)saccule
B)utricle
C)organ of Corti
D)stapes
Q3) What factors can contribute to external ear infections and middle ear infections? Why are children more prone than adults to getting middle ear infections?
Q4) When pressure builds in this area,the blood vessels supplying the rods and cones may collapse.The area where the pressure may rise is called the ________.
A)vitreous humor
B)posterior chamber
C)anterior chamber
D)tear glands
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In males,the primary source of estrogens is the ________.
A)hypothalamus
B)heart
C)adrenal cortex
D)ovaries
Q2) When a woman breast-feeds,oxytocin causes the milk to move from the mammary glands toward the nipples.What other organ might also react when a woman breast-feeds right after giving birth?
A)uterus
B)rectum
C)thymus
D)perilymph
Q3) Hormones responsible for the fight-or-flight response are produced in the ________.
Q4) Lian,at 12 years old,was barely 3 feet tall.What hormone might she take to grow taller?
A)growth hormone
B)estrogen
C)aldosterone
D)calcitonin
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why someone with blood type O negative is called the universal donor.
Q2) Some of these blood proteins are antibodies.
A)albumins
B)fibrins
C)glucoses
D)globulins
Q3) If a person cannot make enough of the plasma protein ________,then they might have problems with water balance.
Q4) The ________,or thrombocytes,play a vital role in clotting.
Q5) The liquid portion of the blood that consists of about 55% of the total volume of blood is referred to as ________.
A)stem cells
B)distilled water
C)plasma
D)platelets
Q6) Explain the steps involved in the clotting process.
Q7) White blood cells are different from red blood cells because mature red blood cells lack a (an)________.
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Q8) Platelets are formed by breaking off fragments from large cells called ________.
Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is the most correct sequence of signals?
A)SA node > Purkinje fibers > AV node > AV bundle > walls of the ventricle
B)SA node > AV bundle > AV node > ST segment > Purkinje fibers
C)SA node > AV bundle > AV node > ST segment
D)SA node > AV node > AV bundle > Purkinje fibers > walls of the ventricle
Q2) Site of lymphocyte production that functions to remove old red blood cells,foreign debris,and microorganisms from the blood.
A)Veins
B)Thymus
C)Tonsils
D)Jugular veins
E)Circulatory
F)Aorta
G)Capillaries
H)Exercise
I)Pulmonary veins
J)Spleen
Q3) Explain the structure and functions of the arteries.
Q4) Explain the mechanics of muscle contraction during a heartbeat.
Q5) A (an)________ is a recording of the electrical activities of the heart.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Body Defense Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eye is a warm,moist environment favored by many harmful bacteria.Nevertheless,eye infections are relatively rare.Why is this?
A)The enzyme tearase inhibits bacterial growth.
B)Tears contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme.
C)The eyes are constantly exposed to UV light, which inhibits bacterial growth.
D)Antibodies, particularly IgM, are secreted in abundance in the tears.
Q2) These white blood cells attack virus-infected cells in the body.
A)helper T cells
B)cytotoxic T cells
C)suppressor T cells
D)plasma cells
Q3) Antigens are substances that the immune system does not recognize as self.Which of the following are antigens?
A)strep throat bacteria
B)cancer cells in the lung
C)HIV
D)All of these can act as antigens.
Q4) ________ are lymphocytes that mature in the thymus.
Q5) A (n)________ is an overreaction by the immune system to an antigen.
Q6) An example of a(n)________ barrier is lysozyme found in tears and saliva.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen between the blood and the cells is called ________.
A)external respiration
B)breathing
C)internal respiration
D)RDS
Q2) Cockroach feces and shed skins can cause a severe inflammatory response in the bronchioles and muscle spasms in the bronchiole smooth muscles.When this happens,we say the person has ________.
A)laryngitis
B)emphysema
C)asthma
D)TB
Q3) The pitch of the voice depends on the tension of the ________.
Q4) ________ are tiny chambers within the lungs that allow for gas exchange.
Q5) The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath is ________.
A)vital capacity
B)residual volume
C)tidal volume
D)total lung capacity
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Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This organ in the digestive system functions to store food and break down proteins before transferring chyme to the duodenum.
A)Gallbladder
B)Appendix
C)Stomach
D)Rectum
E)Esophageal cancer
F)Large intestine
G)Mouth
H)Cirrhosis
I)Small intestine
J)Salivary glands
Q2) These sharply pointed teeth on the sides of the mouth tear food.
A)incisors
B)canines
C)premolars
D)molars
Q3) The ________ is connected to the GI tract and has no digestive function,but may have a role in the defense of the body against disease.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the male,an enlarged ________ gland may squeeze the urethra,causing urinary retention.
Q2) A 30-year-old female complains of frequent and painful urination.A urinalysis is performed and the results indicate the presence of bacteria in the urine.What problem does this woman have? From an anatomical perspective,explain to the patient why she is more likely to suffer from this disorder than her husband.What sort of treatment would be appropriate?
Q3) Cocaine would be eliminated from the body by the kidneys by this process.
A)Respiratory
B)Urinalysis
C)Urinary
D)Kidneys
E)Tubular secretion
F)Nephrons
G)Digestive
H)Urinary bladder
I)Urethra
J)Ureters
Q4) ________ refers to a decrease or complete cessation of glomerular filtration.
Q5) Relaxation of the ________ releases urine from the body.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these can be described as the release of the oocyte from an ovary?
A)menstruation
B)ovulation
C)implantation
D)fertilization
Q2) Glands that produce secretions just before ejaculation that may function to lubricate or rinse urine from the urethra are called ________.
A)prostate
B)vas deferens
C)bulbourethral
D)endometrium
Q3) What do the cells that form the outer sphere of the mature Graafian follicle become once luteinizing hormone transforms the cells?
A)ovum
B)follicle
C)corpus luteum
D)endometrium
Q4) The ________ serves for sperm storage and maturation in males.
Q5) The ________ is the layer in the uterus where an embryo should implant.
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Chapter 18: Development Throughout Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the nervous system change with aging?
Q2) The fetal period is characterized by ________.
A)the formation of organ systems
B)neurulation
C)germ layer formation
D)growth and preparation of fetal organ systems for their eventual functions
Q3) The union of the sperm and the egg that results in a cell with 46 chromosomes is called a(n)________.
A)embryo
B)zygote
C)fetus
D)trophoblast
Q4) A baby is born with spina bifida,which is a neural tube defect.This problem most likely initiated at which time in development?
A)the pre-embryonic period
B)the embryonic period
C)early in the fetal period
D)late in the fetal period
Q5) The ________ develops where the vertebral column will later form.
Q6) The period that begins at week 9 of development is the ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Chromosomes and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) One out of every 800 to 1000 infants born will have three copies of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21),a condition known as ________.
Q2) A specific segment of the chromosome's DNA that directs the synthesis of a single protein.
A)Interphase
B)Telophase
C)Cytokinesis
D)Haploid
E)Metaphase
F)Gene
G)Anaphase
H)Crossing over
I)Anaphase I
Q3) The separation of daughter cells is called ________.
A)karyokinesis
B)mitosis
C)nucleosome
D)cytokinesis
Q4) The ________ are the 22 pairs of chromosomes not including the X and Y chromosomes.
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Chapter 20: Genetics and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Duplication can be advantageous for evolution,because while the correctly functioning DNA segment remains intact,duplication also provides new copies of genes that can be altered to new functions.Unfortunately,duplication can also result in human genetic disorders.Please provide an example of a human genetic disorder that occurs when certain DNA sequences are duplicated.
Q2) A genetic condition in which abnormal hemoglobin form,red blood cells become crescent shaped,and cells get stuck together is called ________.
Q3) In this heredity pattern,both alleles appear in the phenotype of the heterozygote.
A)codominance
B)complete dominance
C)pleiotropy
D)multiple alleles
Q4) The presence of the ________ chromosome means that a person will probably appear to be male.
Q5) Individuals that carry different alleles for a given gene are considered ________ for those alleles.
Q6) A cross involving one gene between two heterozygous parents is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 21: Dna and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene therapy is being explored as a means of permanently correcting a defective gene to cure a disease rather than to merely treat symptoms with drugs.Ideally it would be best to correct these defective genes before a baby is even born.But if it's possible to change diseased genes,what about changing genes that regulate other characteristics like height or eye color? Would it be desirable to change the genes of babies for more cosmetic purposes?
Q2) Some t-RNA often contains sections of non-complimentary,unusual bases (i.e.,other than U,C,A,andG)which are added after transcription.What area of the t-RNA would never contain such odd bases in a living organism?
Q3) Genes are really just segments of DNA in patterns of A's,T's,G's,and C's.How does an RNA polymerase "know" where to start transcribing at the beginning of a particular gene?
A)The polymerase finds the end of the previous gene and copies past that point.
B)The polymerase starts transcribing anywhere because the beginning point only counts during translation.
C)It looks for a specific promoter region that marks the beginning of a gene.
D)RNA polymerase does not know so it has to rely on the ribosome to help it start at the correct place.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and Our Heritage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost all cacti are native to the Americas,but there is a small,relatively uncommon group of plants closely related to cacti native to tropical western Africa.How can we explain this given the information in this chapter?
A)The plants might have floated across the Atlantic.
B)This might have been caused by divergent evolution.
C)The continents were once connected.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) What anatomical features help primates to live in trees?
Q3) A difference in appearance between males and females in a species is called ________.
Q4) Recently,the bones (not fossils)of a possible new species of humans (in the genus Homo)have been found on an island in Indonesia (an island nation southeast of Asia).These people were alive as recently as 17,000 years ago.According to the information in this chapter,why do you think they probably used tools?
Q5) DDT was first used as an insecticide in 1942.Resistance genes existed before this time in houseflies and other insects.By 1970,no farmer would bother using this chemical.Why?
Q6) The order of mammals to which humans belong is the ________.
Q7) Genetic drift that occurs in small,new colonies is called ________.
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Chapter 23: Ecology, the Environment, and Us
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Sample Questions
Q1) A developer plans to chop down several healthy trees on her property,burn them,and put a huge concrete pad in their place.Why are these activities environmentally unwise?
Q2) The animals that consume plants,algae,or cyanobacteria for their metabolic requirements.
A)Herbivores
B)Carbon dioxide
C)Producers
D)Carnivore
E)Limestone
F)Ecology
G)Primary consumers
H)Decomposers
I)Transpiration
J)Omnivores
Q3) On average,about ________% of the energy in one trophic level is transferred to the next.
Q4) Two human activities,burning fossil fuels and ________,are important causes of the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.
Q5) Why is it wiser to eat a diet with more plants in it than one with more meat?
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Chapter 24: Human Populations, limited Resources, and Pollution
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Q1) If the women of Transylpolkonia traditionally delay having their first child until they are in their late 30s but the women of Chaldokia normally start their families in their teens,which nation will be most likely to have an increasing population?
Q2) Germany is a very affluent European nation,so we would assume that its ecological footprint would most likely be ________.
Q3) A measure of the decrease in population size due to removal of individuals by disease,predation,or natural causes.
A)Death rate
B)Carrying capacity
C)Ozone
D)Desertification
E)Density-dependent
F)Skin cancer
G)Emigration
H)Carbon footprint
I)Chlorofluorocarbons
J)Age structure
Q4) ________ describes how populations change in size.
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Chapter 25: Food Safety and Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your friend has developed some gastrointestinal symptoms that appear to be related to something she ate.She wants to let them run their course without seeing a doctor.However,her symptoms seem to be getting worse.For which of the following would you recommend that she visit her health care provider?
A)blood in her stool
B)diarrhea lasting more than 3 days
C)a temperature of 102 F
D)All of the above are signs your friend should see a doctor.
Q2) In reviewing the list of food storage guidelines,certain meats expire more quickly than others.In comparing chicken,seafood,and bacon,the bacon has the longest shelf life of the three.Speculate on why this is so.
Q3) A biological agent that is moderately easy to disseminate and that results in moderate morbidity and low mortality is considered ________ by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
A)Category A
B)Category B
C)Category C
D)Category D
Q4) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.
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Chapter 26: Drugs and the Mind
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Q1) Which are synthetically produced stimulants that resemble the brain's natural neurotransmitters?
A)caffeine
B)amphetamines
C)marijuana
D)opium
Q2) This drug is normally injected but can also be processed into forms that can be smoked or inhaled.It is a synthetic opiate that produces feelings of ecstasy.
A)marijuana
B)caffeine
C)alcohol
D)heroin
Q3) A psychoactive drug that delays the removal of a neurotransmitter from the synapse will ________.
A)dampen the response of the receiving neuron
B)prolong the effect of the neurotransmitter on the receiving neuron
C)prevent the neurotransmitter from working
D)bind to the receptor and affect the receiving neuron in the same way as the neurotransmitter
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Chapter 27: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Which of the following is a likely side-effect of gestational diabetes?
A)impotence
B)preeclampsia
C)low blood pressure
D)low birth weight
Q2) Saito has diabetes mellitus type 1 and requires frequent insulin injections.He would much prefer to swallow pills instead of giving himself injections.Explain to him why this is not possible.What other option does he have besides an injection or an insulin pen?
Q3) Which of the following is true of diabetes mellitus type 1?
A)Patients always require insulin.
B)Cells become resistant to insulin.
C)Most people with diabetes mellitus have this form.
D)It can be delayed or prevented.
Q4) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
Q5) Susan Littlehorse (28 years old,obese,and pregnant)complains of burning urine to you,her physician at the Indian Health Service.Blood tests show hemoglobin A1c concentrations over 9%.What is your initial diagnosis? How do you test your idea? How should her condition be treated? What are some potential problems she may experience in the future?
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Chapter 28: a Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is caused by nicotine in cigarette smoke?
A)faster heart rate
B)constriction of blood vessels
C)increased stickiness of platelets
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Ashante is having surgery for a blocked coronary artery.The physician is inserting a catheter with a tiny balloon to open the blocked vessel.What is this procedure called and what else might the physician do to keep the artery open in the long term?
Q3) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?
Q4) Which of the following lifestyle changes might be used to treat or prevent high blood pressure?
A)limit dietary salt
B)exercise regularly
C)control body weight
D)All of the above could help with high blood pressure.
Q5) Viagra® works by dilating the arteries to the penis and other parts of the body.Why shouldn't a person use nitroglycerin at the same time that they are using Viagra®?
Q6) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
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Chapter 29: a Special Topic: Infectious Disease
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26 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/29107
Sample Questions
Q1) A pathogen is a disease-causing organism,but not all pathogens are alike.Some pathogens are more dangerous than others.When describing the relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease,we are considering its ________.
A)pathogenicity
B)virulence
C)infectivity
D)emergence
Q2) Bacteria reproduce rapidly.It is possible for a few bacteria to grow in numbers sufficient to spoil milk left out overnight.What is the process by which bacteria reproduce?
A)meiosis
B)mitosis
C)binary fission
D)multiple fusions
Q3) ________ are disease-causing organisms that invade a person's body.
Q4) Explain how antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections.What are some of the problems concerning the use of these drugs?
Q5) A(n)________ is an animal that carries a disease from one host to another.
Q6) A (n)________ is a global outbreak of disease.
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Chapter 30: a Nutrition and Weight Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some people believe that an all-vegetable diet will mean that vegetarians will not have a proper balance of amino acids needed to build proteins.Explain why this is false.
Q2) Which of the following substances has the lowest glycemic index?
A)fiber
B)glucose
C)white bread
D)white rice
Q3) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height.How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia?
A)There would be evidence of water retention.
B)The teeth and gums would be damaged.
C)Extensive weight gain would be observed.
D)High blood sugar levels would be present.
Q4) Which of the following factors would increase the basal metabolic rate?
A)female gender
B)larger muscle mass
C)greater fatty tissue
D)increased age
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32
Chapter 31: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term sexually transmitted infection is used to refer to infections ________.
A)caused by bacteria
B)caused by viruses
C)that cannot be treated
D)that have no symptoms
Q2) Your former roommate went through a fairly promiscuous stage during her freshman year.Now she feels certain that she has an STD,possibly more than one STD.Too embarrassed to go to the doctor,she wants to take antibiotics that you had left over from a case of strep throat.She tells you that antibiotics will wipe out whatever she has.Which of the following STDs would your antibiotics definitely not eliminate?
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)syphilis
D)HPV infection
Q3) Concerning HIV,which of these statements is false?
A)HIV is a retrovirus.
B)HIV proofreads when copying its genetic material so mistakes are not made.
C)HIV must interact with a receptor on the host to infect it.
D)HIV utilizes the enzyme reverse transcriptase to copy its RNA to DNA.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Autism Spectrum Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A large percentage of the public believes that vaccines have a role in the development of autism.What information would you use to explain to a friend that there is no scientific evidence to suggest that vaccines cause autism?
Q2) How can autism be differentiated from Asperger syndrome?
A)Autism can involve failure to develop age-appropriate relationships with peers while children with Asperger syndrome do develop age-appropriate relationships with peers.
B)Children with autism may have no spoken language or delayed language development while children with Asperger syndrome have no clinically significant delay in speech development.
C)Children with Asperger syndrome may have repetitive patterns of behavior while those with autism do not.
D)Children with Asperger syndrome may lack the ability for imaginative play while those with autism do not.
Q3) Explain how neuroimaging brought new results to the study of ASDs,and why it is not yet recommended for use in the diagnosis of ASDs.
Q4) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
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34
Chapter 33: Stem Cells a Repair Kit for the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) As stem cell research rapidly developed,it became a political and ethical issue.Describe how the ethical and political approach towards stem cell research has changed in the past decade.
Q2) Which one of the following correctly describes the order of stem cells from the lowest degree of flexibility to the highest degree of flexibility?
A)unipotent < multipotent < pluripotent < totipotent
B)multipotent < unipotent < pluripotent < totipotent
C)pluripotent < unipotent < totipotent < multipotent
D)unipotent < multipotent < totipotent < pluripotent
Q3) At which point or stage would the majority of cells in the embryo no longer be stem cells?
A)the pre-embryo stage
B)in the blastocyst
C)after organogenesis
D)A large number of stem cells would exist in all these stages.
Q4) Describe several potential applications for embryonic stem cell research.
Q5) How is a stem cell different from a "normal" cell? (Use a liver cell as an example.)
Q6) Explain how a stem cell line would be developed.
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Chapter 34: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells can activate a genetic suicide program in response to a signal in the body.This programmed cell death is called ________.
Q2) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
Q3) The removal and analysis of a piece of tissue that is suspected to be cancerous is called a(n)________.
Q4) In order to be successful,chemotherapy drugs have to stop cell division.The most likely method for this would be to ________.
A)denature all the enzymes in the cell so division can't occur
B)speed up the cell cycle in the cancerous cells
C)stop cellular respiration so the cancerous cells don't have energy
D)interfere with the function of the spindle fibers
Q5) Which statement is not correct concerning cell division and cancer?
A)Normal cells are limited in how many times they can divide.
B)Cancerous cells can become immortal.
C)Oncogenes protect against cancer.
D)Apoptosis can be used to kill cancerous cells in the body.
Q6) Certain new cancer therapies deal with the inhibition of angiogenesis (formation of blood vessels).How would inhibition of blood vessel formation be beneficial in terms of treating cancer?
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