Introduction to Human Resource Management Exam Practice Tests - 1993 Verified Questions

Page 1


Introduction to Human Resource Management Exam Practice

Tests

Course Introduction

Introduction to Human Resource Management provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles and practices essential to managing an organizations human assets. The course explores key functions such as recruitment, selection, training and development, performance management, compensation, and employee relations. It examines the strategic role of HR in supporting organizational objectives, the legal and ethical considerations in HRM, and the dynamic environment in which HR professionals operate. By combining theoretical frameworks with practical case studies, students gain insights into how effective people management contributes to organizational success.

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Managing Human Resources 17th Edition by Scott Snell

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16 Chapters

1993 Verified Questions

1993 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Challenge of Human Resources Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) A method of containing costs that allows a professional employer organization (PEO),typically a larger company,to takeover the management of a smaller company's HR tasks and become a coemployer to its employees is known as _____.

A)outsourcing

B)employee leasing

C)furloughing

D)nearshoring

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following is one of the largest expenditures of service companies?

A)Production costs

B)Marketing costs

C)Labor costs

D)Distribution costs

Answer: C

Q3) One of the responsibilities of HR managers is to provide advice and counsel to line managers.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Strategy and Human Resources Planning

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the knowledge,skills,and abilities of a firm's human resources are not equally available to its competitors,these resources are considered to be:

A)impossible to imitate.

B)devalued.

C)common.

D)rare.

Answer: D

Q2) Core values are the essence of corporate cultures and an expression of their personality.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) A Markov analysis can show the percentage of employees who remain in each of a firm's jobs from one year to the next.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Equal Employment Opportunity and Human Resources Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The law that enables people who enter the military for a total of five years to return to their private-sector jobs without risk of loss of seniority or benefits is:

A)the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act.

B)the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973.

C)the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972.

D)the Veterans' Readjustment Act.

Answer: A

Q2) Organizations subject to Title VII are required to post:

A)all job openings.

B)their blank applications.

C)specific employment records and reports.

D)affirmative action goals.

Answer: C

Q3) The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 strengthened the enforcement power of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Job Analysis and Job Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) The degree to which carrying out the work activities required by the job results in the individual being given direct and clear information about the effectiveness of his or her performance is known as:

A)task identity.

B)autonomy.

C)feedback.

D)task variety.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a synergistic team characteristic?

A)Support

B)Consensus

C)Acceptance

D)Agreement

Q3) Job enrichment is touted as helping employees with:

A)self-esteem and job satisfaction.

B)dissatisfaction with pay.

C)employment security.

D)dissatisfaction with benefits.

Q4) Telecommuting is effective in retaining valued employees.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Expanding the Talent Pool: Recruitment and Careers

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Sample Questions

Q1) _____ are people who are not looking for jobs but could be persuaded to take new ones giventhe right opportunity.

A)Passive job seekers

B)Transient employees

C)Global workers

D)Expendable laborers

Q2) The practice of hiring relatives is known as:

A)family-based hiring.

B)inverted familial diversification.

C)re-recruiting.

D)nepotism.

Q3) Legally,a mentor should be selected exclusively for career development purposes.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Professional employer organizations lease employees to firms and perform all the HR duties including hiring,payroll,performance appraisal,and benefits administration.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What can managers do to improve the effectiveness of external recruitment?

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Chapter 6: Employee Selection

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a work sample test includes major job functions and predicts job success,it has construct validity.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to the "Big Five" factors,_____ refers to the degree to which someone is dependable and organized and perseveres in tasks.

A)conscientiousness

B)extroversion

C)agreeableness

D)neuroticism

Q3) Regardless of the selection methods used,it is essential that the selection procedure be:

A)lengthy and thorough.

B)quick and efficient.

C)reliable and valid.

D)a positive experience for applicants.

Q4) Content validity is the most complicated type of validity to assess.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Training and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) A study by the American Society for Training and Development found that organizations conduct need assessment less than _____ percent of the time.

A)50

B)40

C)30

D)20

Q2) Utility refers to measuring one's own training services against the leaders in their industry.

A)True

B)False

Q3) An analysis of the sets of skills and knowledge needed for decision-oriented and knowledge-intensive jobs is referred to as:

A)task analysis.

B)needs assessment.

C)competency assessment.

D)job analysis.

Q4) On-the-job training has three drawbacks.Briefly discuss these and the possible solutions suggested by experts in the field.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Performance Management and the Employee

Appraisal Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) Developmental purposes for performance appraisal include identifying strengths and weaknesses and improving communication.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A performance rating error in which the rater tends to give employees either extremely high or extremely low ratings is referred to as a(n):

A)recency error.

B)error of central tendency.

C)leniency or strictness error.

D)halo error.

Q3) The three basic types of formats for providing feedback during a performance evaluation meeting or feedback session are:

A)tell-and-sell, tell-and-train, and developmental.

B)tell-and-sell, tell-and listen, and problem-solving.

C)tell-and-train, problem-solving, and developmental.

D)tell-and-listen, tell-and-train, and problem-solving.

Q4) What are the four basic considerations for establishing performance standards?

Q5) Discuss the various types of rating errors that may exist in performance evaluation.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Managing Compensation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Because management positions are more difficult to evaluate and involve certain demands not found in jobs at the lower levels,some organizations do not attempt to include them in their job evaluation programs for hourly employees.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The _____ collects and displays the results for all the measures that a company uses to monitor and compare compensation among internal departments or units.

A)red circle rate

B)competence-based pay system

C)compensation scorecard

D)point system

Q3) Seniority,merit,and individual incentive plans are factors affected under the Equal Pay Act.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain competence-based pay including its advantages and disadvantages.Include in your discussion the practice of broadbanding.

Q5) Briefly discuss the motivating value of pay equity for employees.

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Chapter 10: Pay-For-Performance: Incentive Rewards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Management should guard against incentive payments being seen as _____.

A)too competitive

B)equitable

C)permanent

D)an entitlement

Q2) Discuss the advantages of incentive pay programs.

Q3) Noncash incentive rewards are most effective as motivators when the award is:

A)a complete surprise to the recipient.

B)combined with a meaningful employee recognition program.

C)increased every year it is given.

D)tailored to individual employees.

Q4) Generally,a bonus plan does not become part of an employee's base pay.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Employers use stock ownership incentive plans to increase employee ownership in the company.

A)True B)False

Q6) Briefly discuss three individual incentive plans.

Q7) Briefly describe the Scanlon Plan.

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Chapter 11: Employee Benefits

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Social Security insurance program is funded by:

A)employer contributions.

B)Old Age, Survivors, and Disability Insurance (OASDI).

C)employee contributions with matching employer contributions.

D)employee contributions and general tax funds.

Q2) The Family and Medical Leave Act permits substitution of paid leave and vacation during leave.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Vesting is a guarantee of accrued benefits to participants at retirement age,provided they are currently employed.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A pension plan where contributions are made jointly by employees and employers is referred to as a:

A)contributory plan.

B)noncontributory plan.

C)defined-benefit plan.

D)defined-contribution plan.

Q5) Describe the requirements and provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Promoting Safety and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss the four major factors that impact employee stress.

Q2) Frequently,employers will create a group consisting of representatives of various segments of an organization to work on safety-related issues.These groups are commonly referred to as:

A)safety committees.

B)monitors.

C)labor-management committees.

D)human resources assistants.

Q3) Career burnout is primarily due to lack of personal fulfillment or lack of positive feedback about performance.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When dealing with stress,receiving inadequate feedback on performance and no recognition for a job well done is known as:

A)high demand.

B)high effort.

C)low control.

D)low reward.

Q5) What is the role of supervisors in promoting workplace safety?

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Chapter 13: Employee Rights and Discipline

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Sample Questions

Q1) Peer-review boards consist only of people whose jobs are similar to that of the person appearing before the board.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The employment-at-will doctrine states that either employees or their employers may terminate the employment relationship for any reason.

A)True

B)False

Q3) If managers want to maintain an effective open-door policy,they must:

A)formalize the procedure and encourage employees to start at the top.

B)ensure that employees come to them only with job-related concerns.

C)emphasize that they can offer solutions only on an advisory basis.

D)encourage employees to voice their complaints and listen honestly to those concerns.

Q4) Employees do not have the right to have an attorney present during an investigative interview.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is progressive discipline? How does it differ from positive discipline?

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Chapter 14: The Dynamics of Labor Relations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first step in organizing begins when employees and union officials meet to explore the possibility of unionization.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The majority of research on why employees unionize comes from the study of white-collar employees in the private sector.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The Landrum-Griffin Act was passed in 1959 in an effort by Congress to safeguard Union member rights and prevent racketeering and other similar practices by employers and union officers.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The first federal law pertaining to labor relations was the:

A)Norris-LaGuardia Act.

B)Railway Labor Act.

C)Taft-Hartley Act.

D)Wagner Act.

Q5) List some typical and some progressive clauses found in a labor agreement.

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Chapter 15: International Human Resources Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Different cultural environments require different organizational behaviors.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Foreign workers with H2B visas can come to the United States for a maximum of six months to perform temporary,agricultural seasonal work that is onetime only.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Guest workers:

A)are another name for home-country nationals.

B)may involve substantial indirect costs.

C)are not required to obtain a work permit.

D)are used when adequate numbers of skilled workers are available.

Q4) The first step in selecting individuals for an international assignment is: A)self-selection.

B)to assess core skills.

C)to assess augmented skills.

D)to create a candidate pool.

Q5) A global corporation has fully autonomous units operating in multiple countries. A)True

B)False

17

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Chapter 16: Creating High-Performance Work Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Many high-performance work systems begin with highly directive recruitment and selection practices.

A)True

B)False

Q2) One of the best ways to communicate the business needs to employees is to show them the gap between the organization's current performance and capabilities and where it needs to be in the future.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following principles is critical for the success of empowerment and involvement initiatives in organizations?

A)Shared information

B)Knowledge development

C)Totalitarianism

D)Linking rewards with performance

Q4) Today's organizations are relying on the expertise and initiative of employees to react quickly to incipient problems and opportunities.

A)True

B)False

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