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Introduction to Human Biology offers a foundational exploration of the biological principles underlying human life. This course covers the structure and function of the human body, including major systems such as the circulatory, respiratory, digestive, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems. Students will also examine basic genetics, the role of cells and tissues, aspects of human development, and the impact of lifestyle choices on health and disease. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, learners will gain an understanding of how the human body works, preparing them for more advanced studies in biology and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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Q1) Based on the figure above, which group of organisms is most closely related to members of the Kingdom Animalia?
A) Protista
B) Fungi
C) Plantae
D) Bacteria
E) Archaea
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following is the lowest level of biological organization in which evolutionary change can occur?
A) cell
B) organism
C) community
D) population
Answer: D
Q3) The kingdom Protista primarily includes multicellular eukaryotic organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) ________ bonds hold the hydrogens to the oxygen within a water molecule, and ________ bonds attract one water molecule to other water molecules.
A) Ionic, hydrogen
B) Hydrogen, ionic
C) Hydrogen, covalent
D) Covalent, hydrogen
E) Ionic, covalent
Answer: C
Q2) All matter is made up of atoms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In order for this atom to develop a positive charge, it would have to lose ________. Answer: A
Q4) Which solution has more free hydrogen ions: pH = 9 or pH = 3?
Answer: pH = 3
Q5) A substance that helps to maintain a stable pH is a(n) ________.
Answer: buffer
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Q1) At the end of the electron transport system, oxygen combines with electrons and hydrogen ions to form ________, a waste product.
A) urea
B) FAD
C) water
D) NAD
E) glucose
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of microscope provides tremendous (100,000-fold) magnification and enables viewing of fine internal structural details of cells?
A) light microscope
B) scanning electron microscope
C) transmission electron microscope
Answer: C
Q3) ________ are long slender structures that enable a cell, such as a sperm, to swim.
Answer: Flagella
Q4) Glycolysis occurs in the ________ of a cell.
Answer: cytoplasm
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Q1) Which one of the following types of tissues surrounds hollow organs that change shape or size regularly?
A) loose connective tissue
B) dense connective tissue
C) elastic connective tissue
D) reticular connective tissue
Q2) The type of tissue that makes up the sweat glands, salivary glands, and endocrine glands is ________.
Q3) Calcium levels in the body are maintained by hormones. If the blood calcium level rises above a set point, calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland and sets into motion responses to lower the blood calcium back to the set point. If the blood calcium level falls below a set point, the parathyroid gland secretes parathyroid hormone that sets into motion responses to raise the blood calcium. These homeostatic responses are examples of
A) positive feedback
B) effectors
C) sensors
D) negative feedback
Q4) Glands that secrete their product into a duct are classified as ________ glands.
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Q1) Stem cells in red bone marrow give rise to ________ and ________ blood cells.
Q2) A number of different hormones work together to influence bone growth and integrity. Explain how each of the following hormones affects the development for the maintenance of bone: growth hormone, estrogen, testosterone, calcitonin, parathyroid hormone
Q3) The foramen ovale is a large opening in the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
A) It stimulates the release of growth hormone.
B) It is released when blood calcium levels are high.
C) It has the same function as calcitonin.
D) It causes the breakdown of bone.
E) It causes decreased activity of osteoclasts.
Q5) Chondroblasts produce ________.
Q6) Bone is composed only of nonliving material.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The following events are associated with muscle contraction. Which one of the following best describes the order in which these events occur, following the initiation of a contraction by a nerve impulse? 1. T tubules transmit electrical impulses throughout the muscle cell.
2) Myosin contacts actin and pulls it toward the center of the sarcomere.
3) Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the muscle.
4) Troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts to expose myosin binding sites.
5) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
D) 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
E) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Q2) Slow-twitch fibers contain many mitochondria and are well supplied with blood vessels, and can make ATP as they need it.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of activating more motor units when more force must be exerted is called ________.
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Q1) Which one of the following formed element in the blood is not a cell, but actually a fragment of a cell?
A) monocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) platelet
E) plasma
Q2) Oxygen, but not carbon dioxide, can bind to the heme group of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following components of blood increase in number in response to the presence of an infectious agent?
A) clotting factors
B) albumins
C) white blood cells
D) red blood cells
E) platelets
Q4) In addition to the circulatory system, the ________ system is also characterized by possessing a series of fluid-filled vessels.
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Q1) Each of the following mechanisms plays a role in the return of blood to the heart via veins EXCEPT which one?
A) osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins in the blood
B) squeezing action of skeletal muscles
C) valves that permit the one-way flow of blood returning to the heart and prevent backflow
D) pressure changes in the abdominal and thoracic cavities associated with breathing
Q2) represents the end of electrical activity in the ventricles
Q3) The atrioventricular valves are closed when the heart is in complete diastole.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following parts of the brain regulates heart activity?
A) cerebrum
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) midbrain
E) medulla oblongata
Q5) ________ prevent the backflow of blood in veins.
Q6) Spontaneous contractions of the heart muscle begin in the ________.
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Q1) Which one of the following best explains why people get so many colds in their lifetime?
A) The immune system has a hard time identifying the viruses that cause the colds.
B) The viruses that cause these colds constantly produce new antibodies, which cause the symptoms.
C) These individuals do not produce enough white blood cells.
D) The viruses that cause colds evolve rapidly, which results in a change in their antigenic structure.
E) The B cells of these individuals destroy their T cells.
Q2) Body defenses that respond to generalized tissue damage and many common pathogens are referred to as
A) phagocytic
B) antipathogenic responses
C) nonspecific mechanisms
D) lymphomas
E) specific mechanisms
Q3) Bacterial infections are generally treated with ________.
Q4) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
Q5) Tears and saliva contain ________, an enzyme that kills bacteria.
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Q1) Carbaminohemoglobin differs from hemoglobin in that carbaminohemoglobin
A) is found in blood plasma
B) binds carbon monoxide instead of carbon dioxide
C) is found in red blood cells
D) is bound to carbon dioxide
E) transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells
Q2) During the cough reflex, the trachea ________ slightly to increase the velocity of air movement.
Q3) Burning of carbon-based fuels can produce which one of the following, an odorless gas that competes with oxygen for binding to hemoglobin.
A) carbon tetrachloride
B) nitrogen
C) ozone
D) hydrogen
E) carbon monoxide
Q4) Lung diseases, such as emphysema, can be diagnosed by measuring lung volumes and the rates at which these volumes change.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Drugs that cause changes in emotions, consciousness, or behavior are known as
Q2) Electrical impulses are transmitted between components of the central nervous system via which one of the following?
A) glial cells
B) motor neurons
C) sensory neurons
D) interneurons
E) macrophages
Q3) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a demyelinating disease that results from nerve damage in the A) brain
B) diaphragm
C) intercostal muscles
D) spinal cord
E) sensory nerves
Q4) Cells in nerve tissue that support and protect neurons are called ________ cells.
Q5) Removal of the ________ would prevent any type of decision making.
Q6) the membrane has repolarized
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Q1) Pain receptors and receptors that monitor and maintain homeostasis typically do not adapt.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The malleus and incus function to
A) channel sounds in the inner ear
B) amplify sound
C) convert a sound wave into an electrical impulse
D) convert a long wave light into an electrical impulse
E) sense static position
Q3) A fifth primary taste quality called ________ allows people to taste foods like parmesan cheese, mushrooms, and soy sauce.
Q4) Taste hairs contain chemoreceptors that are specific for specific chemicals or tastants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hearing loss resulting from damage to the tympanic membrane or the bones of the middle ear is known as ________ deafness.
Q6) The ________ sorts sounds by tone and converts them into electrical impulses.
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Q1) All of the following may result from untreated diabetes mellitus EXCEPT which one?
A) neural disorders
B) kidney failure
C) blindness
D) cardiovascular disorders
E) increased susceptibility to cancer
Q2) Which one of the following hormone pairs is antagonistic, in that they have opposing effects?
A) estrogen, progesterone
B) epinephrine, norepinephrine
C) glucagon, insulin
D) oxytocin, prolactin
E) thyroxine (T ) and triiodothyronine (T )
Q3) pituitary
Q4) ________ cells function in both the nervous and endocrine systems.
Q5) thymus
Q6) Hormones from the anterior pituitary gland are secreted in response to the presence of ________ from the hypothalamus.
Q7) Acromegaly is caused by hypersecretion of ________ hormone in adults.
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Q1) Gastric juice in the stomach is composed of
A) HCL, fluids secreted from gastric glands, pepsinogen
B) chyme, HCL, mucus
C) HCL, secretin, saliva
D) pepsinogen, secretin, serosa
E) fluids from gastric glands only
Q2) Saturated fats differ from unsaturated fats in that saturated fats
A) store energy
B) are found only in plant products
C) are liquid at room temperature
D) are made up of glycerol and fatty acids
E) have two hydrogen atoms for every carbon atom in their fatty acid tails
Q3) The ________ is the region of a tooth that lies below the gum line, and the entire tooth sits in a socket in the jawbone, lined with ________, indicated by label
A) bone, periodontal membrane, C
B) pulp cavity, root canal, D
C) root, periodontal membrane, E
D) crown, gingiva, D
E) pulp cavity, root canal, A
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Q1) During times of stress, the autonomic nervous system causes the afferent and efferent arterioles to constrict, resulting in an increase in the amount of urine produced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Renin is secreted by which one of the following structures?
A) distal tubule
B) juxtaglomerular apparatus
C) renal medulla
D) glomerulus
E) Bowman's capsule
Q3) relies on countercurrent exchange to move ions and water
Q4) The hairpin design of the loop of Henle allows events on one side of the loop to influence the events on the other side, by a process referred to as
A) paratubular movement
B) countercurrent exchange
C) bulk flow
D) glomerular filtration
E) tubular reabsorption
Q5) stores urine until it is excreted out of the body
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Q1) Males are considered infertile if they do not produce sufficient numbers of normal, healthy sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A condition in females that occurs when endometrial tissue moves through the oviducts and adheres to the ovaries or other organs in the abdominal cavity is
Q3) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases can be cured by the use of antibiotics?
A) genital herpes
B) AIDS
C) pubic lice
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B
Q4) The vagina is indicated by letter ________.
Q5) The muscular layer of the uterus that provides the force necessary to expel the baby during birth is called the ________.
Q6) The head of a sperm is covered by the ________, which contains enzymes that help penetrate the layers of cells surrounding the egg.
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Q1) The development of induced pluripotent stem cells would make possible therapeutic cloning without the use of embryos.
A)True
B)False
Q2) metaphase
Q3) At which one of the following stages of the cell cycle does a chromosome develop into two sister chromatids?
A) mitotic phase
B) S phase
C) G phase
D) G phase
E) G phase
Q4) The most important checkpoint in the regulation of cell reproduction is during the ________ phase of interphase.
Q5) Differentiation is the process of sister chromatids separating from each other during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Initiation of translation begins with a tRNA binding to a(n) ________ on mRNA.
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Q1) The potential damaging effects of free radicals to DNA can be averted by
Q2) Unlike traditional vaccines, cancer vaccines are administered to an individual after he or she has developed the illness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Techniques used to increase the effectiveness of the immune system in fighting cancer are collectively known as ________.
Q4) Precancerous growths in the colon are known as ________; these can usually be removed surgically.
Q5) A mutation in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 is the most common cause of breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When a cancer remains in one location, it is referred to as
A) benign
B) dysplasia
C) in situ cancer
D) hyperplasia
E) metastasis
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Q1) A deletion occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off and is lost.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If an individual homozygous dominant for widow's peak has a child with an individual heterozygous for widow's peak, what is the chance that the child will have a homozygous dominant genotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q3) Alternative versions of the same gene are ________.
Q4) Failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly is called ________.
Q5) Explain why in some cases, linked genes may be separated during crossing-over, yet at other times, linked genes are not affected by the recombination during meiosis.
Q6) An individual who inherits three copies of chromosome 18 will develop ________ syndrome.
Q7) Genes for different traits located on the same chromosome are called ________.
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Q1) The idea of manipulating DNA through cutting and splicing, essential to the science of recombinant DNA technology, is not necessarily a new process since nature has been recombining DNA for billions of years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Small, circular DNA molecules that are located outside the main chromosome of bacteria and are capable of self-replication are ________.
Q3) Genetically engineered plants that contain high levels of beta-carotene are especially important additions to the diet because beta-carotene is converted to ________ in the human body.
Q4) In recombinant DNA technology, DNA is cut at specific nucleotide sequences by ________ enzymes.
Q5) Gene therapy may one day be used to cure cancer. One approach currently under investigation is to add the gene for ________ to cancer cells. This molecule stimulates the immune system to attack the cancer cells.
Q6) To create cows, sheep, and pigs that grow faster and larger, the gene for ________ has been inserted into their genomes.
Q7) Programmed cell death in somatic cells is known as ________.
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Q1) Research on the aging process shows that wounds of the elderly heal more slowly and that they are more susceptible to disease. These are problems associated with an aging ________ system.
A) respiratory
B) immune
C) integumentary
D) digestive
E) endocrine
Q2) During labor, full dilation of the cervix signifies the end of the ________ stage.
Q3) During puberty, the secretion of GnRH causes the secretion of ________, which in turn stimulate(s) the production of sex hormones.
A) LH and FSH
B) oxytocin and prolactin
C) insulin
D) growth hormone
E) oxytocin and growth hormone
Q4) Surgical delivery of a baby is called a cesarean delivery.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which one of the following taxonomic categories is defined as a group of organisms that are capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring?
A) class
B) order
C) family
D) species
E) phylum
Q2) Movement of individuals into or out of the population, called gene flow, impacts evolution of populations because
A) it can lead to extinction of one or more populations
B) it may cause genetic drift
C) it leads to a redistribution of alleles
D) adaptive radiation results
E) a founder effect will occur
Q3) RNA is believed to have evolved before DNA and proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process by which the continental plates move slowly over time is called
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the nitrogen cycle?
A) Nitrogen fixation results in the production of nitrogen from carbon.
B) Atmospheric nitrogen cannot be used by living organisms because two nitrogen atoms are held tightly together by a triple covalent bond.
C) Plants rely on animals for their source of usable nitrogen.
D) Once nitrogen is "fixed," it must then be converted to nitrogen gas before it can be used by living organisms.
E) In a balanced ecosystem, denitrification occurs more often than nitrogen fixation.
Q2) Slow weathering of sedimentary rock makes "new" ________ available in the exchange pool found in soil.
A) phosphorus
B) nitrogen
C) high energy carbohydrates
D) PCBs
E) oxygen
Q3) During photosynthesis, high energy carbohydrates are produced during the
Q4) The ________ is an organism's role in its community.
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Q1) According to public health officials, all of the following may be caused by water pollutants EXCEPT which one?
A) birth defects
B) nervous disorders
C) miscarriages
D) skin rashes
E) accommodation to allergies
Q2) Commercial logging by European countries in the Ivory Coast has reduced the pristine 70 million acres of forests that once existed to about
A) fewer than 1 million acres
B) 5-7 million acres
C) 15-20 million acres
D) 30 million acres
E) 50 million acres
Q3) The Environmental Protection Agency estimates that approximately ________% of rural wells and water systems have some type of pollutant in them.
Q4) Explain how emissions of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide create the greenhouse effect.
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