Introduction to Human Anatomy Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Human Anatomy provides a comprehensive overview of the structure and organization of the human body, covering major body systems such as skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will explore anatomical terminology, body planes, and the relationships between various organs and tissues. The course emphasizes understanding the functional relevance of anatomical features, developing spatial awareness of body structures, and applying anatomical knowledge to health sciences and clinical settings. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and visual aids, students gain foundational knowledge essential for further study in medicine, biology, and allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Used for childbirth.
A)Negative feedback
B)Positive feedback
Answer: B
Q2) Skeletal muscles respond with shivering reflex which provides heat to return the body's temperature to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" value.
A)E
B)A
C)B
D)D
E)C
Answer: A
Q3) The coxal joint is most likely found in ________ region of the body.
A) hip
B) hand
C) foot
D) groin
Answer: A
Q4) The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________.
Answer: olecranal
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bond in which electrons are shared equally.
A)Nonpolar covalent bond
B)Polar covalent bond
C)Ionic bond
D)Hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Q2) What does CH<sub>4</sub> mean?
A) This is an inorganic molecule.
B) This was involved in a redox reaction.
C) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
D) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
Answer: C
Q3) A bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved.
A)Nonpolar covalent bond
B)Polar covalent bond
C)Ionic bond
D)Hydrogen bond
Answer: C
Q4) What happens when globular proteins are denatured?
Answer: The active sites are destroyed.
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metabolic or growth phase of a cell life cycle is called ________.
Answer: interphase
Q2) Polar region of phospholipid. A)A B)E C)C
D)D
E)B
Answer: E
Q3) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disintegrate.
A)Anaphase
B)Late prophase
C)Telophase
D)Early prophase
E)Metaphase
Answer: B
Q4) Why can we say that cells are protein factories?
Answer: Most of the metabolic machinery of the cell is involved in protein synthesis since structural proteins constitute most of the dry cell material and functional proteins direct all cellular activities.
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) What tissue has lacunae,calcium salts,and blood vessels?
A) bone (osseous tissue)
B) cartilage tissue
C) fibrocartilaginous tissue
D) areolar tissue
Q2) Merocrine glands produce their secretions by accumulating their secretions internally until the cell ruptures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cardiac muscle.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q4) Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues,and may have specific names that reflect their location or specializations.What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells?
Q5) Without macrophages,wound healing is delayed.Why?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature yesterday was an uncomfortable 98°F.You unwisely chose to play tennis at noon,counting on your body's internal defenses to protect you against heat exhaustion.How did your body respond to this distress?
Q2) The surge of sex hormones that accompanies puberty has a wide range of effects on the body.One of those effects is to enhance the activity of the sebaceous glands,increasing the production of sebum.Which of the following is the most likely to result from the increased sebaceous activity?
A) Increased hair growth.
B) Decreased vitamin D synthesis.
C) Increased cooling of the skin.
D) Increased oily appearance and more acne.
Q3) Burns that result in injury to the epidermis and the upper regions of the dermis is called a ________ burn.
Q4) The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.
A) primarily uric acid
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
C) metabolic wastes
D) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone fragments into many pieces.
A)Greenstick
B)Comminuted
C)Spiral
Q2) List in order the four major healing stages of a simple fracture.
Q3) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone.
A)Lamellae
B)Osteoblasts
C)Endosteum
D)Canaliculi
E)Osteoclasts
Q4) Bones are constantly undergoing resorption (breaking bone down)for various reasons.Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?
A) osteoblast
B) stem cell
C) osteoclast
D) osteocyte
Q5) How can a tooth be moved in a bony socket during orthodontic treatment?
Q6) Why are the bones of young children much more flexible than those of the elderly?
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.
A)Maxillae
B)Temporal bones
C)Sphenoid
D)Lacrimal bones
Q2) Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek?
A) sphenoid bone
B) temporal bone
C) palatine bone
D) zygomatic bone
Q3) The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint.This mobility comes at a cost because ________.
A) these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate
B) muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
C) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate
D) the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion
Q4) If the hyoid bone is not attached to another bone why is it so important?
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________.
A) are also called collateral ligaments
B) prevent hyperextension of the knee
C) tend to run parallel to one another
D) attach to each other in their midportions
Q2) Mary has been suffering from a "bad knee" for several months.She is a tennis player who often slides in to attack a ball; she is an aerobic devotee and a jogger.She visited an orthopedic surgeon last week who told her that he would "like to have a look at her knee joint." He also told her that her symptoms indicated damage to the meniscus,and it might have to be removed.What will the doctor do to see the joint,and if the meniscus is removed will Mary be able to play tennis again?
Q3) The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________.
A) anterior ligaments
B) cruciate ligaments
C) tibial collateral ligaments
D) patellar ligaments
Q4) Why are epiphyseal plates considered temporary joints?
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) It diffuses across the cell membrane resulting in depolarization.
A)Sodium ions
B)Acetylcholinesterase
C)Calcium ions
D)Acetylcholine
E)Creatine phosphate
Q2) Activates synaptic vesicles in axon terminals to fuse with plasma membrane of axon terminal.
A)Sodium ions
B)Acetylcholinesterase
C)Calcium ions
D)Acetylcholine
E)Creatine phosphate
Q3) Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle?
A) Skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. The deepest layer being the endomysium.
B) Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.
D) The shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Q1) The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles,with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine.What is its action?
A) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major B) to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus
C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi
D) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally
Q3) The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________.
A) gluteus maximus
B) rectus abdominis
C) gastrocnemius
D) quadriceps femoris
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reflexes are rapid,automatic responses to stimuli that will produce the same effect every time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Immediately after an action potential has peaked,which of the following channels will open?
A) voltage gated calcium channels
B) chemically gated chloride channels
C) voltage gated potassium channels
D) voltage gated sodium channels
Q3) That part of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system.
Q4) The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.
A) repolarization
B) resting period
C) absolute refractory period
D) depolarization
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Q5) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier?
Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motor speech (Broca's)area.
A)Insula
B)Parietal lobe
C)Frontal lobe
D)Temporal lobe
E)Occipital lobe
Q2) In most people,the left cerebral hemisphere has greater control over language abilities,math,and logic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano?
A) motor
B) procedural
C) emotional
D) declarative
Q4) Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) fissures
B) ganglia
C) sulci
D) gyri
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lamellar corpuscle.
A)Pacinian corpuscle
B)Ruffini endings
C)Meissner corpuscle
Q2) A patient has an injury of the spine and is now suffering from a loss of motor function in his right arm.However,he still has normal sensory function in the arm.Based on this information it is likely that the patient has nervous tissue damage located at ________.
A) the dorsal root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
B) the ventral root located at one or more of the cervical vertebra
C) the dorsal rootlets located at one of the thoracic vertebra
D) spinal nerves of the cervical vertebra
Q3) If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F)on their skin,they will likely perceive much pain.Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?
A) nociceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) mechanoreceptors
D) thermoreceptors
Q4) The perineurium defines the boundary of a ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) promotes urination; sympathetic
B) gallbladder contracts to expel bile; parasympathetic
C) bronchiole dilation in lungs; sympathetic
D) penis ejaculation; sympathetic
Q2) The effect of the parasympathetic division on the penis is vasodilation causing erection,while ejaculation is due to sympathetic stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Autonomic ganglia are sights of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to postganglionic neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion,it can do all of the following EXCEPT?
A) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion
B) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
C) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron
D) synapse with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark.
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) superior colliculi
C) lateral geniculate body
D) pretectal nuclei
Q2) In the visual pathways to the brain,the optic radiations project to the ________.
A) primary visual cortex
B) medial retina
C) lateral geniculate body
D) optic chiasma
Q3) Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.
A) stretching of the receptor cells
B) movement of a cupula
C) substances in solution
D) the movement of otoliths
Q4) Ling,a 75-year-old grandmother,complained that her vision was becoming obscured.Upon examination by an ophthalmologist she was told she had cataracts.What are they,how do they occur,and how are they treated?
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eicosanoids do NOT include ________.
A) leukotrienes
B) prostaglandins
C) hydrocortisones
D) paracrines
Q2) Dave has discovered a new lipid-soluble hormone.Which of the following is true regarding this hormone?
A) can be stored in secretory vesicles
B) will be bound to a transport protein in the blood
C) receptor will be located on the plasma membrane
D) will likely act through a second-messenger system
Q3) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)________.
A) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
B) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
C) is not a tropic hormone
D) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic regulatory hormone
Q4) LH is also referred to as a gonadotropin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between autocrines and paracrines?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream.
A)Embolism
B)Polycythemia
C)Anemia
D)Thrombocytopenia
E)Leukemia
Q2) Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels.
A)Embolism
B)Polycythemia
C)Anemia
D)Thrombocytopenia
E)Leukemia
Q3) An elderly patient tells the nurse that she has been very tired lately and has difficulty walking to her mailbox without getting very short of breath.The nurse notes the mucous membranes are pale.The patient states that since her husband died three months ago,she has not been eating well.The physician confirms that she has iron-deficiency anemia.How are the patient's clinical manifestations and iron-deficiency anemia related?
Q4) What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood?
Q5) List three blood tests that might be ordered if anemia is suspected.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
A) The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
B) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
C) Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart.
D) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.
Q2) During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.
A) all of the calcium required for contraction comes from storage in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores
C) calcium is prevented from entering cardiac fibers that have been stimulated
D) the action potential is prevented from spreading from cell to cell by gap junctions
Q3) Explain the role of pacemaker cells in cardiac tissue.
Q4) Why is oxygen so much more critical to the heart muscle than to skeletal muscles?
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale become at birth?
A) ligamentum arteriosum; fossa ovalis
B) ligamentum teres; fossa ovalis
C) fossa ovalis; ligamentum arteriosum
D) ligamentum arteriosum; ligamentum teres
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding fenestrated capillaries?
A) Fenestrated capillaries in endocrine organs allow hormones rapid entry into the blood.
B) Fenestrated capillaries are essential for filtration of blood plasma in the kidney.
C) Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier.
D) Fenestrated capillaries in the small intestine receive nutrients from digested food.
Q3) Sinusoid capillary. A)A
Q4) A pregnant patient comes into a clinic and asks about a small painless dark compressible bulge that is becoming more apparent on her leg.What is it and what caused it?
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphatic capillaries are permeable to proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the consequence of obstruction of the lymphatics?
Q4) Flow of lymph through a lymph node is slowed due to ________.
A) the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages
B) fewer efferent vessels draining it compared to many afferent vessels feeding it
C) the viscous nature of lymph
D) mini-valves
Q5) In the spleen,red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Define the term MALT.What is its function?
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphylactic shock is a rare but severe allergic response that may occur if the allergen enters the blood stream.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?
A) NK cells attack cells that display abnormal or lack MHC antigens.
B) NK cells are a type of neutrophil.
C) NK cells attack cancer cells and virus-infected body cells.
D) NK cells are present in the blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow.
Q3) Plasma cells ________.
A) have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
B) are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues
C) have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens
D) are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis
Q4) Why are regulatory T cells important to the immune process?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) The law that applies to the amount of CO<sub>2</sub> you could dissolve in a soda is called ________ law.
A) Boyle's
B) Dalton's
C) Henry's
D) Murphy's
Q2) Intrapleural pressure is normally about 4 mm Hg less than the pressure in the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Ventilation perfusion coupling means that more blood flows past functional alveoli than past nonfunctional alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Increased temperature results in decreased O<sub>2</sub> unloading from hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the chloride shift and why does it occur?
Q6) Distinguish among anemic,ischemic (stagnant),histotoxic,and hypoxemic hypoxia.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.
A) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.
C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.
D) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.
Q2) Compare and contrast the structure and function of a premolar and a molar.
Q3) You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates.Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?
A) amylase
B) trypsin
C) gastrin
D) cholecystokinin
Q4) Assume you have been chewing a piece of bread for 5 or 6 minutes.How would you expect its molecular chemistry to change during this time? Why?
Q5) The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.
A) return glucose to the general circulation when blood sugar is low
B) carry toxins to the kidney for disposal through the urinary tract
C) distribute hormones throughout the body
D) collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing in the liver
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Beta oxidation is the initial phase of fatty acid oxidation,and it occurs in the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glucose serves as the initial reactant.
A)Glycolysis
B)Citric acid (Krebs) cycle
C)Electron transport chain
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?
A) derived from meat and fish only
B) must contain all the body's amino acid requirements for tissue maintenance and growth
C) derived only from legumes and other plant material
D) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet
Q4) Ten-step enzymatically driven process that converts glucose into pyruvic acid.
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) If the glomerular mesangial cells contract,reducing the overall surface area of the glomerulus which of the following is not likely to occur?
A) Systemic blood pressure will be lowered.
B) Glomerular filtration rate will decrease.
C) Net filtration rate will decrease.
D) Urine output will decrease.
Q2) Which label marks a structure at the medulla of the kidney?
A)B
B)C
C)A
D)D
E)E
Q3) If the GFR is too low,needed substances may pass so quickly through the renal tubules that they are not absorbed and instead are lost in the urine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Having a kinked ureter is called renal ptosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
Q2) Respiratory acidosis results when lungs are obstructed and gas exchange is inefficient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Possibly occurring with emphysema,extreme obesity,or narcotic overdose.
A)Metabolic alkalosis
B)Respiratory acidosis
C)Metabolic acidosis
D)Respiratory alkalosis
Q4) The main way the kidney regulates potassium ions is to excrete them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis?
Q6) Phosphate ions are highest in ________.
A)interstitial fluid
B)blood plasma
C)intracellular fluid
Q7) When the blood becomes hypertonic (too many solutes),antidiuretic hormone (ADH)is released.What is the effect of ADH on the kidney tubules?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Select the statement which is true regarding independent assortment.
A) Its effects are significant in meiosis and in mitosis.
B) It only occurs in meiosis II.
C) It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I.
D) It is a significant source of genetic variation that occurs in meiosis I and meiosis II.
Q2) Treponema pallidum.
A)Gonorrhea
B)Syphilis
C)Chlamydia
D)Genital warts
E)Genital herpes
Q3) Sperm are ejaculated from the corpora cavernosa of the penis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.
A) spermatogonia
B) sustentacular cells
C) interstitial endocrine cells
D) spermatocytes
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74917
Sample Questions
Q1) Conceptus is a term used to describe the developing human offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liver.
A)A
B)B
C)D
D)E
E)C
Q3) How long is the secondary oocyte viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?
A) 36-72 hours
B) a full week
C) 12-24 hours
D) 24-36 hours
Q4) The patient is in her first trimester of pregnancy.She complains of feeling nauseated and has vomited on occasion.She tells the nurse that she did not have this with her first pregnancy.She asks the nurse,"What is causing this and when will it end?" How should the nurse respond?
Q5) Describe the events allowing monospermy.
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Chapter 29: Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) Is the trait dominant or recessive?
Q2) Small RNAs control the timing of programmed cell death during development. A)True
B)False
Q3) Genetic variation results from the crossing over and exchange of chromosomal parts that occur during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Color blindness is a(n)________ trait.
Q5) This is a first pregnancy for a 22-year-old woman.She is in her 16th week of pregnancy.She is scheduled for an amniocentesis and expresses concern that the "baby will be stuck with the needle." What should the nurse say to the woman?
Q6) Situation in which an individual has different alleles making up the genotype for a particular trait.
A)Allele
B)Dominant
C)Heterozygous
D)Autosomes
Q7) Albinism is a good example of a(n)________ trait.
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