Introduction to Health Professions Question
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Course Introduction
Introduction to Health Professions offers an overview of the wide array of careers within the healthcare sector, exploring the roles, responsibilities, and required qualifications of various health professionals. The course examines the fundamental principles of patient care, ethical and legal standards, and the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration in clinical settings. Students are introduced to the structure of healthcare systems, current trends, and emerging challenges facing health professionals today. This foundational course helps students make informed decisions about their future educational and career paths in the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Kinns The Medical Assistant 13th Edition by Deborah B. Proctor
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Competency-Based Education and the Medical
Assistant Student
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methods for determining possible solutions to a conflict are to brainstorm or to make a(n) ___________ list.
Answer: pros and cons
Developing a pros and cons list helps the individual identify possible solutions.
Q2) A comprehensive portfolio includes which of the following?
A) Examples of work completed in each course
B) Certificates or awards
C) Proof of the skills achieved
D) Letters of recommendation
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) Summarize the characteristics of nonassertive communication.
Answer: Keeping the eyes downcast, shifting one's weight when talking, slumping the shoulders or wringing the hands, whining or using a hesitant tone of voice. Also, using terminology such as "maybe," or "I guess," "I wonder if you could," "Would you mind very much if," or "It's not really important."
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3
Chapter 2: The Medical Assistant and the Healthcare Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) DO refers to which of the following physicians?
A) Doctor of medicine
B) Osteopathic physicians
C) Doctor of chiropractic
D) Doctor of optometry
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are examples of specific tasks that are beyond the scope of practice of medical assistants except one. Which is the exception?
A) Giving out drug samples with provider permission
B) Making recommendations about OTC drugs and remedies
C) Operating laser equipment
D) Analyzing test results
Answer: A
Q3) The first national organization formed for medical assistants was the A) CAAHEP.
B) ABHES.
C) AMT.
D) AAMA.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Professional Behavior in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) Employees should be aware of the attendance policies in their facility's policy and procedures manual.
A)True
B)False
Answer: TRUE
Q2) The best way to earn a favorable evaluation on your externship is to
A) show integrity and practice high ethical standards.
B) be friendly with your supervisor and other senior staff members and keep co-workers at a distance.
C) impress the physician with your knowledge about medicine.
D) show your willingness to help by performing tasks that have not been assigned to you, even if your regular duties are not yet completed.
Answer: A
Q3) The name of the AAMA's bimonthly journal is __________.
Answer: CMA Today
The AAMA publishes CMA Today.
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a message is ___________, it is converted into intelligible form.
Q2) In which of the following situations is it important to use more descriptive language when communicating?
A) Patient with diminished hearing
B) Patient with a visual disturbance
C) Non-English-speaking patient
D) Adolescent patients
Q3) Which of the following is true about most patients?
A) They do not want to follow the physician's instructions.
B) They have unrealistic expectations for their recovery.
C) They have no medical background and need to have medical terms explained.
D) They understand all the medical terms used in the physician's office.
Q4) Obtaining ___________ from patients helps medical assistants understand and better interpret patients' medical problems, so that they can be accurately conveyed to the physician.
Q5) Active listening is the skill of _____________ and clarifying what the speaker has said.
Q6) The perception of the receiver in communication is important.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Medicine and Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each state has its own consent laws that it must follow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The improper performance of a lawful act is called
A) malfeasance.
B) misfeasance.
C) nonfeasance.
D) feasance.
Q3) A written defamatory statement or representation that conveys an unjustly unfavorable impression is called libel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following include compensation for pain and suffering?
A) Nominal damages
B) Punitive damages
C) Compensatory damages
D) General damages
E) Special damages
Q5) __________ are a type of testimony that is not limited to the parties in a lawsuit.
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Chapter 6: Medicine and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of ethical problem in which two or more agents think that each knows what is best for the patient but only one agent can prevail is called
A) distributive justice.
B) locus of authority.
C) an ethical dilemma.
D) ethical distress.
Q2) Which statement best defines the practice known as fee splitting?
A) The unethical practice of basing the physician's fee on the success of the treatment
B) The unethical practice in which physicians are paid for referring patients
C) The lowering of the physician's fee as a way to help poor patients
D) An appropriate method of allowing two physicians to work together in treating a patient
Q3) Certain kinds of news, such as births and deaths, are considered part of the public domain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ are defined as claims that a person or group makes on society.
Q5) A devotion to or conformity with the truth is called ____________.
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Chapter 7: Technology and Written Communication in the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Detrimental
B) Detrimantal
Q2) A gigabyte is approximately 5 million bytes of data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following terms is spelled correctly?
A) Crediability
B) Credibility
Q4) Business envelopes are usually number _____.
Q5) Encrypted data are called
A) flash.
B) cipher text.
C) crackers.
D) firewalls.
Q6) What are used to help prevent access to private networks?
A) Network systems
B) Virus detectors
C) Scanners
D) Firewalls Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the primary goal of "screening" telephone calls?
A) Preventing calls from reaching the physician
B) Handling calls at the lowest level possible
C) Selecting which calls should be forwarded to which staff members through an understanding of the purpose of the call
D) Determining whether the calls are emergencies
Q2) Which of the following is essential to active listening?
A) Listen to what the speaker is saying
B) Listen to nonverbal clues
C) Interpret what the message is
D) Restate the message
E) All of the above
Q3) Many __________ calls require the good judgment of the medical assistant answering the phone.
Q4) Transferring a call to a staff member without announcing the caller's name is considered unprofessional.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Scheduling Appointments and Patient Processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients understand if the physician's office is not completely clean, because most offices are busy facilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The provider's habits should not influence appointment scheduling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following scheduling systems reduces the number of calls to the office and is available to the patient 24 hours a day?
A) Computerized scheduling
B) Self-scheduling
C) Appointment book scheduling
D) Paper-based scheduling
Q4) All patients should leave the medical facility feeling that they were treated with
Q5) Medical assistants should make an effort to learn the names of the patients who come to the physician's office.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 10: Daily Operations in the Ambulatory Care
Setting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of special postal service would you use for a heavy, expensive piece of medical equipment being returned to the manufacturer for a refund?
A) Registered
B) First class
C) Certified
D) Special delivery
Q2) Thieves usually approach a physician's office to steal money or ____________.
Q3) An ordered item that has not been delivered when promised or demanded but will be supplied at a later date is said to be
A) backordered.
B) front-ordered.
C) on hold.
D) circumvented.
Q4) What duties should be performed in anticipation of the day at the provider's office?
A) Turn on the lights in all examination rooms.
B) Make sure each room is fully stocked with supplies.
C) Turn on all equipment that will be used throughout the day.
D) All of the above should be performed.
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Chapter 11: The Health Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most experts agree that the EHR system will help reduce medical __________.
Q2) Which of the following are common types of filing equipment found in a medical office?
A) Rotary circular files
B) Lateral files
C) Automated files
D) All of the above
Q3) A filing system in which materials can be located without consulting an intermediary source of reference is said to be a(n) __________ system.
Q4) By legal definition, if it isn't charted, then it didn't happen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most frequently used follow-up method is a
A) tickler file.
B) transitory file.
C) practice management file.
D) None of the above
Q6) A(n) __________ is made of heavy paper stock and is used to replace an entire folder that has been temporarily removed from its proper place.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Basics of Diagnostic Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burns are coded to the site by __________.
Q2) The cause of a disorder is its __________.
Q3) The signs and symptoms of a disease are its __________.
Q4) Which of the following codes will be used for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction with no symptoms but diagnosed by means of an electrocardiogram?
A) Category I21
B) Code I25.2
C) Code I21.3
D) None of the above
Q5) Which of the following instructions in the Alphabetic Index indicates that another main term may reference additional useful index entries?
A) See
B) See also
C) See category
D) And
E) Due to
Q6) At times, the medical assistant must code a(n) __________ if the physician is not yet sure of the diagnosis.
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Chapter 13: Basics of Procedural Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as
Q2) The place of service never changes for physician billing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal, with catheterization
A) 69399
B) 69401
C) 69400
D) 69405
Q4) New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
A) 99201
B) 99202
C) 99203
D) 99204
Q5) Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Basics of Health Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Mr. Jones's insurance has a $500 deductible and a $50 surgery co-pay, how much will his insurance pay on his bill of $4,359?
A) $3,809
B) $2,809
C) $3,980
D) $3,900
Q2) Under which of the following Medicare plans for primary care and specialists' services is the patient required to pay a monthly premium?
A) Part A
B) Part B
C) Part C
D) Part D
Q3) A review of individual cases by a committee to make sure that services are medically necessary and to study how providers use medical care resources is called a(n)
A) credentialing committee review.
B) peer review committee evaluation.
C) utilization review.
D) audit committee review.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Medical Billing and Reimbursement
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Sample Questions
Q1) To examine claims for accuracy and completeness before they are submitted is to _________ the claims.
A) correct
B) audit
C) revise
D) reject
Q2) The primary insurance policy information is contained in block __________.
Q3) Which of the following is typically documented in the estimation of benefits (EOB)?
A) Patient's deductible
B) Co-insurance
C) Co-payment
D) Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q4) Claims that are done by direct billing first go to a clearinghouse.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Only physicians can be providers of medical services.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Patient Accounts, Collections, and Practice Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A record or notation of a transaction is called a(n) __________.
Q2) Who is financially responsible for a minor seeking treatment for STD without parental consent?
A) The parent who brings the child in for treatment
B) The legally emancipated minor
C) It depends; the medical assistant must determine where the statement should be sent
D) The minor
E) The legal guardian
Q3) Accounts receivable are moneys that are expected but not yet received. All invoices, statements, and operational expenses are included in accounts receivable.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q4) The recording of business and accounting transactions is called
Q5) The entire property of a person is said to be his or her __________.
Q7) Accounts __________ are debts incurred but not yet paid. Page 19
Q6) Amounts owed to the physician are accounts _____________.
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Page 20
Chapter 17: Banking Services and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) For individuals to be __________, a personal background investigation normally is necessary.
Q2) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called the __________.
Q3) A capital sum of money due as a debt or used as a fund for which interest is either charged or paid is called
A) disbursement.
B) reconciliation.
C) principal.
D) holder.
Q4) A signature on the back of a check whereby the rights of the check are transferred to another party is called a(n) __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ endorsement is used in preparing checks for deposit to the physician's checking account.
Q6) The physician uses the debit card for $782.19 to pay for medical supplies, $56 for office supplies, and $76 to stock the employee break room refrigerator. If the balance in the checkbook is $32,830.43, what is the balance after the debit card activity?
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Supervision and Human Resources Management
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Q1) No supervisor enjoys giving a(n) ____________ that is less than positive.
Q2) A remark that is said to be ___________ is completely obvious or obtrusive.
Q3) Something that spurs an individual to action or rewards an individual for performing a task is called
A) morale.
B) incentive.
C) appraisal.
D) circumvention.
Q4) Which of the following is a quality of an effective leader or office manager?
A) Has a sense of fairness
B) Has good communications skills
C) Uses good judgment
D) All of the above
Q5) The Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate is Form W-4.
A)True B)False
Q6) The best time to terminate an employee is usually at the beginning of the day. A)True B)False
Q7) The ________ is the Employee's Withholding Allowance Certificate. Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 19: Medical Practice Marketing and Customer Service
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Sample Questions
Q1) Advertising involves creating or changing attitudes, beliefs, and perceptions by influencing people with free forms of written and visual media. Public relations relies more on costly news broadcasts or reports and magazine or newspaper articles to reach the audience.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true; the second is false.
D) The first statement is false; the second is true.
Q2) Staff meetings are not good times to brainstorm about target markets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The provider's _____________ of the practice of medicine greatly influences the office's mission statement.
Q4) Providers in college towns may want to offer __________ rates for medical services.
Q5) Brochures in the provider's office can substitute for medical advice. A)True
B)False
Q7) Patients expect to be treated according to the __________ rule. Page 24
Q6) _____________ boxes are a great way to get patient and employee input.
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Page 25
Chapter 20: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reservoir hosts who are unaware of their ability to spread an infectious disease are identified as carriers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) __________ is a foreign substance that results in the production of a specific antibody.
Q3) An example of parenteral administration of a medication is a subcutaneous injection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fungal infections are also called __________ infections.
Q5) What is considered the second link in the chain of infection?
A) Infectious agent
B) Reservoir
C) Susceptible host
D) Portal
Q6) Pyemia is a condition marked by infectious microorganisms in the patient's urine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following includes demographic information?
A) Family history
B) Past history
C) Social history
D) Database
E) ROS
Q2) Which of the following is a closed question or statement?
A) "Tell me about your headaches."
B) "Does your head hurt?"
C) "How are you feeling?"
Q3) While you are taking the medical history of a new patient, the patient mentions having occasional headaches that are quite painful. What is the best way for you to proceed with the interview?
A) Express concern and note this information in writing.
B) Ask the patient a direct question about the pain.
C) Reassure the patient that it is probably nothing serious.
D) Ask the patient open-ended questions about the headaches.
Q4) Your office manager asks whether you know anything about defense mechanisms that patients might display if they are anxious. Summarize four defense mechanisms and provide an example of each.
27
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Chapter 22: Patient Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determining which education materials will best meet your patient's needs depends on which of the following?
A) Patient's learning preference
B) Individual characteristics
C) Lifestyle factors
D) All of the above
Q2) Patient factors that have an impact on learning include the patient's __________ of disease versus the actual state of disease.
Q3) A holistic model for patient education means designing a patient teaching plan that focuses on the patient's disease without concern for the patient's ability to pay for care.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the role of the medical assistant as the patient educator.
Q5) Copies of teaching materials should be available in other __________ when possible.
Q6) Depression is not a normal part of the grief process.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 23: Nutrition and Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Foods rich in vitamin A are
A) orange fruits and vegetables.
B) oatmeal.
C) whole grains.
D) dried beans.
Q2) Whole grains contain the entire grain kernel - the bran, germ, and endosperm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following carbohydrate groups are quickly absorbed?
A) Simple sugars
B) Complex carbohydrates
C) Dietary fiber
D) All of the above
Q4) Vitamin D is an essential nutrient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe situations in which supplements would be recommended.
Q6) If a food claims to be sodium free, there can be no salt in the product.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 24: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instances contraindicate the use of a tympanic measurement system?
A) Patient complaining of pain in both ears
B) History of impacted cerumen
C) Stuffy nose
D) Both A and B
Q2) The medical term for an oral temperature above 99.5° F is
A) hyperpnea.
B) pyrexia.
C) pyuria.
D) empyema.
Q3) The range of body temperature experienced by healthy adults throughout the day is a reflection of normal diurnal rhythms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The volume of the pulse refers to the length of time between each beat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical term for fainting is __________.
Q6) A pulse rate over 100 beats per minute is identified as __________.
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Chapter 25: Assisting with the Primary Physical Examination
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Q1) Which examination position is used in emergencies for patients with severe hypotension or who are in shock?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Knee-chest
C) Lithotomy
D) Trendelenburg's
Q2) Which of the following positions is achieved by lying prone with the head down, the knees bent, and the buttocks elevated?
A) Dorsal recumbent
B) Lithotomy
C) Knee-chest
D) Sims'
E) Trendelenburg's
Q3) Which type of tissues is packed closely together with little or no intercellular material, and is classified according to shape?
A) Epithelial tissue
B) Connective tissue
C) Muscle tissue
D) Nervous tissue
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Chapter 26: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cefaclor is the generic name for the antibiotic Zithromax.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Warfarin products are examples of
A) antiarrhythmics.
B) anticholinergics.
C) anticoagulants.
D) anticonvulsants.
Q3) Kathy has been asked to train a new medical assistant in office procedures aimed at preventing drug abuse. Summarize at least three instructions she should include.
Q4) An anesthetic is used primarily to produce the sensation of numbness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _____________ dose is the summation of a drug present in the body after repeated doses of the medication.
A) maximum
B) maintenance
C) cumulative
D) average
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Chapter 27: Pharmacology Math
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician orders 75 mg of Demerol IM. The drug label states, "Demerol 50 mg/mL." How many milliliters should be administered?
A) 1 mL
B) 1.2 mL
C) 1.5 mL
D) 2.1 mL
Q2) Which of the following is a household measure?
A) Gram
B) Grain
C) Drop
D) cc
Q3) One fluid ounce is equal to ____ mL.
A) 20
B) 15
C) 25
D) 30
Q4) Which of the following is a metric unit of volume?
A) Ounce
B) mL
C) mg
Page 33
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Chapter 28: Administering Medications
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Q1) Why was Dorothy taught to aspirate before injecting most medications?
A) To prevent a clot from forming at the site
B) To make sure all the medication is evacuated from the syringe
C) To prevent injury to surrounding tissue
D) To make sure the needle is not in a blood vessel
Q2) Dorothy is responsible for making sure patients understand their drug therapy before they leave Dr. Thau's office. Discuss at least five factors she should include when delivering patient education.
Q3) When a liquid oral medication is poured, it is important to
A) hold the measuring device at eye level.
B) allow the bottle to come in contact with the measuring device.
C) palm the label of the medication.
D) A and C
Q4) When administering a subcutaneous and/or intramuscular injection, you would gently pull back on the plunger to
A) reduce discomfort to the patient.
B) make sure the needle is not in a blood vessel.
C) make sure you are in the right site.
D) make sure you have the right medicine.
Q5) In an infant, the safest site for an intramuscular injection is the __________.
Page 34
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Chapter 29: Safety and Emergency Practices
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Q1) A 26-year-old patient is being seen today for abdominal pain. The medical assistant is trying to make the patient more comfortable until the physician can see her. Which of the following should the medical assistant not do?
A) Apply a heating pad to the abdomen.
B) Have the patient lie on her back with her knees flexed.
C) Monitor the patient for signs of shock.
D) Take the patient's pulse.
Q2) An adult who suffers sudden cardiac arrest has the best chance of survival if CPR
A) is started immediately.
B) is started immediately and an AED is used within 4 minutes.
C) is started immediately, along with transport to an ED.
D) and use of an AED occur within 10 minutes.
Q3) With the physician's approval, which agent can be used to induce vomiting?
A) Lanoxin
B) Epinephrine
C) Lidocaine
D) Syrup of ipecac
E) Valium
Q4) The medical term for low blood sugar is __________.
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Chapter 30: Assisting in Ophthalmology and
Otolaryngology
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89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4225
Sample Questions
Q1) Match the hyperopia eye disorder with the appropriate description, when it occurs, and the correction. (Select all that apply.)
A) Cornea or lens is shaped like a football
B) Can be corrected with refractive surgery or a convex corrective lens
C) Occurs when light rays entering the eye focus in front of the retina
D) Occurs when the eyeball is too short from the anterior to the posterior wall
E) Can be corrected with glasses, contacts, or surgery
F) Occurs when light enters the eye and focuses behind the retina
G) Eyeball is elongated from the anterior to the posterior wall
H) Occurs when the light rays entering the eye are focused irregularly
Q2) A patient with repeated involuntary eye movements would be diagnosed with A) strabismus.
B) nystagmus.
C) astigmatism.
D) refractive errors.
Q3) A tympanogram can help detect the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is a sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging.
Q5) A form of strabismus seen in young children is __________.
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Chapter 31: Assisting in Dermatology
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91 Verified Questions
91 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4226
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about herpes zoster except it
A) can be prevented in adults over age 60 with Zostavax.
B) can cause chronic pain.
C) appears as a vesicular, erythemic, pruritic, papular rash.
D) affects bilateral nerve dermatomes.
Q2) Botox is a neurotoxin that temporarily paralyzes the muscles of the face to reduce the appearance of wrinkles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a skin disease that tends to occur in patients with a family history of allergies?
A) Eczema
B) Contact dermatitis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Psoriasis
Q4) Which statement does not describe a result of a full-thickness burn?
A) Severe pain immediately after the injury
B) The need for skin grafting
C) The danger of infection
D) Damage to all skin layers
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Chapter 32: Assisting in Gastroenterology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4227
Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatitis A virus is transmitted through contaminated blood and body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pouches or tunnels in the large intestine that can trap seeds are called
A) Crohn's disease.
B) duodenal ulcers.
C) diverticuli.
D) diverticulitis.
Q3) For each of the following diagnostic procedures of the GI system, list at least three instructions that should be included in patient teaching on how to prepare for the procedure:
a. UGI
b. Barium enema
c. Colonoscopy
d. Fecal occult blood screening
Q4) Imodium is an antiemetic that may be prescribed for a patient with food poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The appendix is located in the __________ region of the abdomen.
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Chapter 33: Assisting in Urology and Male Reproduction
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4228
Sample Questions
Q1) The diagnostic criterion for a UTI is a urinalysis finding of more than 50,000 bacteria per milliliter (mL) of urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between acute and chronic glomerulonephritis. Include in your explanation the typical signs and symptoms of each, as well as the treatment protocols.
Q3) Balanitis is an inflammation of the A) testes.
B) meatus.
C) glans penis.
D) vas deferens.
Q4) ____________ is a painful symptom in the flank, abdomen, and groin regions that occurs when a calculus moves inside a ureter.
Q5) A(n) ___________ forms on the male genitalia within a few days of exposure to the gonorrhea bacillus.
Q6) Summarize what you learned in the chapter about the prostate-specific antigen test.
Q7) A complaint of pain on urination would be documented as ___________.
Page 39
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Chapter 34: Assisting in Obstetrics and Gynecology
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4229
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason for HIV screening of all pregnant women is
A) treatment prevents the development of AIDS.
B) properly treating the pregnant woman helps protect the fetus from HIV.
C) treating the pregnant woman extends her life.
D) the law requires that all pregnant women be screened for HIV.
Q2) The primary symptom of uterine fibroids is
A) menorrhagia.
B) an abnormal Pap smear.
C) dyspareunia.
D) uterine dysplasia.
Q3) An untreated maternal gonorrheal infection can result in what problems for the infant?
A) Fetal blindness
B) Life-threatening blood infection
C) Joint infection
D) All of the above
Q4) Compare the characteristics, contraindications, and possible side effects of OCPs, the cervical cap, and an IUD.
Q5) You are responsible for gathering a detailed gynecologic history on all female patients. What should this history include?
Page 40
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Chapter 35: Assisting in Pediatrics
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116 Verified Questions
116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DTaP vaccine provides immunity against diphtheria, tetanus, and polio.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The developmental theories of Sigmund Freud include which of the following principles?
A) Trust versus mistrust and identity versus role confusion
B) The id, ego, and superego
C) Preconventional versus conventional morality
D) Operational stages
Q3) What is the leading cause of death and injury in adolescents?
A) Accidents
B) Suicide
C) Eating disorders
D) Obesity
Q4) Myringotomy may be required when a child suffers from chronic
A) colic.
B) otitis media.
C) asthma.
D) croup.
Q5) The Hib vaccine prevents _____________.
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Chapter 36: Assisting in Orthopedic Medicine
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An avulsion occurs when severe ligament damage occurs at the site of an injury.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A pathologic fracture is caused by extreme trauma, such as a car accident or spousal abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medications used to treat rheumatoid arthritis include which of the following?
A) Remicade
B) Evista
C) Rocephan
D) Lyrica
Q4) Both bursae and joint capsules contain ______________, which nourishes joint surfaces and allows for free movement of the joint.
Q5) A TENS unit uses ultrasonography to the muscle to relieve pain and promote healing.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) __________ fracture in a young child is suggestive of a child abuse injury.
Q7) ___________ muscle has fibers that are voluntary and striated.
Page 42
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Chapter 37: Assisting in Neurology and Mental Health
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4232
Sample Questions
Q1) Violently shaking a baby is dangerous because of the baby's undeveloped neck muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement is true about the treatment of major depression?
A) Patients can wean themselves off the medication as soon as they start to feel better.
B) The preferred route of administration is SL.
C) Treatment must be continued for at least 4 to 9 months.
D) If the patient is taking antidepressants as prescribed, the family does not have to worry about suicidal tendencies.
Q3) The function of the sympathetic nervous system is to
A) increase blood glucose levels and blood pressure.
B) reducing peristalsis.
C) cause bronchodilation.
D) All of the above
Q4) MS is caused by progressive demyelination of the covering on the axon of the neuron.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 38: Assisting in Endocrinology
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is required for ovulation to occur.
Q2) Which of the following are oral hypoglycemics that are prescribed for the management of diabetes mellitus type 2?
A) Prandin, Avandia, and Glucophage
B) Lente and Lantus
C) Byetta and Symlin
D) A and C
Q3) Which disorder is caused by an overactive adrenal gland?
A) Cushing's disease
B) Addison's disease
C) Diabetes
D) Graves' disease
Q4) Diabetes mellitus type 1 has a chronic onset and is seen in patients over age 30.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The normal range for a fasting plasma glucose level is 80 to 120 mg/dL.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Diabetic __________ is the leading cause of renal failure in the United States.
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Chapter 39: Assisting in Pulmonary Medicine
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4234
Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors for developing obstructive sleep apnea include all of the following except A) fat or thick neck.
B) enlarged adenoids or tonsils.
C) female gender.
D) family history of sleep apnea.
E) alcohol consumption or sedative use.
Q2) The correct position for a spirometry test is
A) semi-Fowler's position on the exam table.
B) upright with the chin tucked into the chest.
C) upright with the chin slightly elevated and the neck extended.
D) standing.
Q3) Carl Rowe is to have a sleep study at the local hospital. The study is performed with what technology?
A) Electroencephalogram
B) ECG
C) Polysomnography
D) A and C
Q4) An individual with emphysema suffers from __________, which requires the person to sit upright to breathe.
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Chapter 40: Assisting in Cardiology
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86 Verified Questions
86 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bruit may be palpated over the site of an abdominal aneurysm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients taking diuretics may be prescribed a KCl supplement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________________ causes pulmonary edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, and tachycardia.
Q4) Which drug is used to treat congestive heart failure?
A) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C) Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
D) Triazolam (Halcion)
E) Warfarin (Coumadin)
Q5) What best describes the condition when the blood pressure adjusts sluggishly or not at all to rapid changes in position?
A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Orthostatic hypertension
Q6) A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to an area is called _________.
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Chapter 41: Assisting in Geriatrics
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older person diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 may have difficulty complying with treatment protocols because
A) the person is easily distracted during education interventions.
B) sensorimotor changes may interfere.
C) multiple health problems may complicate treatment.
D) B and C
E) All of the above
Q2) Disease is a normal and unavoidable part of the aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Medications that may contribute to constipation include A) calcium.
B) antihypertensives.
C) antidepressants.
D) A and C
E) All of the above
Q4) Peristalsis in the colon increases in the elderly; therefore, constipation is common.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Principles of Electrocardiography
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which deflection from the baseline represents the repolarization of the ventricles?
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) ST segment
D) QRS complex
Q2) Preparation of a patient for an ECG includes
A) placing the electrodes over bony prominences on the arms and legs.
B) making sure the bed is pushed against the wall to stabilize the unit.
C) placing the ground electrode at V6.
D) instructing female patients to remove their bra and pantyhose.
Q3) Which of the following represents the time from the beginning of atrial contraction to the beginning of ventricular contraction?
A) QRS complex
B) PR interval
C) P wave
D) Q wave
Q4) Summarize the immediate treatment of an MI. Explain why certain medications are administered.
Q5) ECG paper has horizontal and vertical lines at __________ intervals.
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Chapter 43: Assisting with Diagnostic Imaging
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4238
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most frequent concern of patients scheduled for CT studies?
A) Exposure to x-rays
B) Anxiety about entering the confined space of the tube
C) Iodine allergies
D) Magnetic pull on metal objects
Q2) Which trimester poses the greatest fetal risk from radiation to the uterus in excess of 150 mGy-t (5 rad)?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following terms is referring to the palm (anterior surface) of the hand?
A) Medial
B) Palmar
C) Plantar
D) Posterior
Q4) The radiopaque substance used to enhance the visibility of soft tissues in imaging studies is called a(n) __________.
Q5) AP stands for __________.
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Chapter 44: Assisting in the Clinical Laboratory
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4239
Sample Questions
Q1) The pledge of healthcare professionals to work to achieve the highest degree of excellence in the care given to every patient is otherwise known as
A) chain of custody.
B) quality assurance.
C) quality control.
D) incident reporting.
Q2) The clinical chemistry department performs which of the following tests?
A) Presence of ketones in urine
B) Cell morphology
C) Blood cell count
D) Lipid profile
Q3) A term used to describe a blood sample in which the red blood cells have ruptured is
A) hematoma.
B) preservatives.
C) hemolyzed.
D) teratogen.
Q4) The __________ is the substance tested for or analyzed in a specimen.
Q5) Describe the purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA).
Page 50
Q6) The microscopic analysis of cells is the science of __________.
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Chapter 45: Assisting in the Analysis of Urine
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4240
Sample Questions
Q1) Safety precautions must be taken with the Clinitest method of testing for glycosuria because the chemical reaction causes the test tube to become very hot.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?
A) Sugar
B) Red blood cells
C) Bacteria
D) Bilirubin
Q3) Polyuria is common in which of the following clinical situations?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Dehydration
C) Renal failure
D) Urinary tract infections
Q4) When a woman enters menopause, the ovaries stop producing eggs and the levels of __________ rise.
Q5) ___________ may be the first indication of diabetes mellitus.
Q6) The sugar most commonly found in urine is __________.
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Chapter 46: Assisting in Blood Collection
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86 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Securing a patient in a blood collection chair helps prevent injuries if the patient experiences ____________.
Q2) A syringe is preferred over a Vacutainer collection device when
A) the patient's veins are fragile.
B) the sample must be drawn from the hand veins.
C) many tests have been ordered, and multiple tubes must be drawn.
D) All of the above
Q3) Light blue tubes for coagulation studies should be inverted how many times following removal and prior to placing them in the rack?
A) Two times
B) Three or four times
C) Five times
D) Eight to ten times
Q4) The slant at the open end of a needle used for venipuncture is called the A) lumen.
B) bevel.
C) shaft.
D) bore.
Q5) __________ is the liquid portion of the blood that contains clotting agents.
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Chapter 47: Assisting in the Analysis of Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests is used to determine renal function?
A) Ferritin
B) Total bilirubin
C) pH
D) Creatinine
Q2) Which of the following is not detected in a liver panel test?
A) GGT
B) ALT
C) ALP
D) CBC
Q3) An RBC that is larger than normal is described as ______________.
Q4) A(n) ________________ is performed by the immunohematology department to determine blood compatibility before a transfusion.
Q5) A(n) ____________ is an immature neutrophil.
Q6) A(n) ____________ is used to separate blood parts from plasma.
Q7) Platelets
A) assist in the delivery of oxygen to tissues.
B) are elevated in thrombocytopenia.
C) are fragments of a larger cell called a poikilocyte.
D) None of the above
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Chapter 48: Assisting in Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathologist tests for Lyme disease by examining a blood sample for the infecting spirochetes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An organism that is unlikely to be transmitted by airborne droplets is
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B) Legionella pneumophila.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Treponema pallidum.
Q3) Microscopically, a sputum specimen containing positive AFB appears
A) pink.
B) blue.
C) purple.
D) green.
Q4) Which color indicates gram-positive bacteria?
A) Pink
B) Purple
C) Blue
D) Green
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Chapter 49: Surgical Supplies and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ophthalmologic and otolaryngologic instruments is used to remove foreign bodies or polyps?
A) Krause Nasal Snare
B) Hartmann "Alligator" Ear Forceps
C) Ivan Laryngeal Metal Applicator
D) "Buck" Ear Curette
E) All of the above
Q2) These instruments have very sharp hooks.
A) Bayonet forceps
B) Needle holders
C) Splinter forceps
D) Towel forceps (towel clamps)
Q3) Surgical sponges used to absorb blood and drainage during a surgical procedure do not have to be sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and explain the purpose of at least four supplies that may be used in a minor surgical procedure.
Q5) Explain the system for identifying suture sizes.
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Chapter 50: Surgical Asepsis and Assisting with Surgical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ can result if a bandage is applied too tightly.
Q2) Autoclave wrapping material must be __________ so that steam can circulate around the instruments.
Q3) __________ is the destruction of microbes after they leave the body.
Q4) Sterilization __________ placed in the center of a large pack are the best indicators of proper sterilization in an autoclave.
Q5) With __________ healing, a wound heals by granulation from the bottom of the wound outward.
Q6) Which of the following aseptic procedures is performed on blood pressure cuffs and stethoscopes after each use?
A) Sanitization
B) Disinfection
C) Sterilization
D) Either A or B
Q7) A(n) __________ wound is infected with pathogens.
Q8) In the __________ phase of wound healing, fibrin is deposited at the site and clotting begins.
Q9) Very low temperatures are used in __________ to destroy tissue by freezing it on contact. Page 56
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Chapter 51: Career Development and Life Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Having a clear, decisive relevance to the matter at hand" is the definition of subtle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The probationary period for newly hired medical assistants is a time for both the employee and the employer to decide whether the job is a good fit for the individual.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A new employee may arrive late to work as long as it happens no more than twice a month.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Never speak __________ about former employers.
Q5) Something that is intolerable is bearable.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Medical assistants must evaluate their own __________ and weaknesses.
Q7) Remember to be completely __________ when completing a job application and résumé.
Page 58
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