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Introduction to Dental Materials provides a foundational understanding of the various materials used in dental practice, including their properties, applications, and handling characteristics. The course covers the composition and structure of metals, ceramics, polymers, and composite materials, emphasizing their suitability for different dental procedures such as restorations, prosthetics, and preventive treatments. Students learn about material selection based on clinical requirements, biocompatibility, and the latest advancements in dental material science, preparing them to make informed decisions in both clinical and laboratory settings.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Materials 3rd Edition by W.
Stephan Eakle DDS FADM
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Q1) Since 2005,the American Dental Association (ADA)Seal of Acceptance is awarded to _____ products.
A) both professional and consumer
B) professional but not consumer
C) consumer but not professional
D) neither professional nor consumer
Answer: C
Q2) Silver paste was first mentioned as a restorative material for teeth by the:
A) Chinese.
B) Greeks.
C) Romans.
D) French.
Answer: A
Q3) Regulation over dental devices
A)Food and Drug Administration
B)American Dental Association
C)International Standards Organization
Answer: A
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Q1) List and describe the three basic types of force.
Answer: Compressive force.Force applied to compress an object.Posterior teeth are ideally suited for this type of force.The large occlusal surface and the multirooted base will resist a crushing force.
Tensile force.Force applied in opposite directions to stretch and object.When biting forces are used to stretch a material,the tooth is exerting tensile forces.
Shearing force.Force applied when two surfaces slide against each other or in a twisting or rotating motion.An incisor used for cutting is an example of shearing forces.
Q2) Most modern dental materials are made to be moisture resistant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What causes microleakage?
A) A poorly placed restoration
B) A fracture within a restoration
C) Expansion and contraction of a restoration
D) All of the above could cause microleakage.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following forms of matter has/have both shape and volume?
1)Solid
2)Liquid
3)Gas
A) 1,2,3
B) 1,2
C) 2,3
D) 1
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of bond occurs when two atoms share electrons in their outer shell,creating full shells for both?
A) Ionic bond
B) Covalent bond
C) Metallic bond
D) Hydrogen bond
Answer: B
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Q1) If a staff member is splashed in the face with a caustic chemical and some goes into the eye,what should he or she do?
A) Flush eyes at the eye wash station.
B) Wash eyes with soap and water.
C) Wipe eyes with a damp cloth.
D) Shower immediately.
Q2) What would a mercury spill kit include?
A) 2 × 2 gauze
B) Vinyl gloves
C) A special brush
D) Absorbent powder
Q3) Which of the following is true concerning the labeling of chemicals in the dental office?
A) All chemicals in the dental office must be labeled.
B) There is an official labeling system that must be used.
C) When a chemical is transferred to a different container,the new container does not require labeling.
D) A photocopy of the label from an original container affixed to a new container is not acceptable.
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Q1) Which etch or tooth conditioner is used when seating or repairing ceramic restorations?
A) Acetic acid
B) Phosphoric acid
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Hydrofluoric acid
Q2) Etch gel is typically a/an _____ solution of phosphoric acid.
A) 5%
B) 18%
C) 24%
D) 37%
Q3) Which of the following materials would not be used when placing a direct resin restoration?
A) Bond
B) Etch
C) Cement
D) Curing light
Q4) What are the three modes of curing for resin bonding agents?
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Q1) Macrofilled composite
A)A light-cured,low-viscosity composite resin that contains fewer filler particles
B)An early generation of composite that contained filler particles ranging from 10 to 100 mm in diameter
C)A composite that contains all nano-sized fillers to enhance physical properties
D)A composite that contains both macrofill and microfill particles
E)A composite that contains very small filler particles averaging 0.04 mm in diameter
Q2) The use of two different restorative materials in the same restoration is referred to as what?
A) Veneer technique
B) Hybrid technique
C) Layered technique
D) Sandwich technique
Q3) List the advantages and disadvantages of glass ionomer cements.
Q4) List the three different types of composite resins and describe how they each polymerize.
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Q1) At which level,parts per million (ppm),of excess systemic fluoride will fluorosis begin to affect developing teeth?
A) 1.5 ppm
B) 2.0 ppm
C) 2.5 ppm
D) 3.0 ppm
Q2) The accepted optimal level of fluoride in the drinking water is in the range of ____ mg/L or parts per million.
A) 0.01 to 0.07
B) 0.07 to 0.12
C) 0.12 to 0.7
D) 0.7 to 1.2
Q3) At what pH will tooth demineralization occur?
A) 3.5
B) 4.5
C) 5.5
D) 6.5
Q4) What should be done if a child has consumed an excessive amount of fluoride?
Q5) What is the oxygen-inhibited layer on cured dental sealant?
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Q1) Which stains are most effectively removed by bleaching of vital teeth?
A) Black stains
B) Green stains
C) Blue-gray stains
D) Yellow-brown stains
Q2) What is the active ingredient used for in-office bleaching materials?
A) Sodium nitrate
B) Phosphoric acid
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Carbamide peroxide
Q3) What is the best way to protect oral tissues during a power-whitening appointment?
A) Isolight
B) Dry angles
C) Cotton rolls
D) Rubber dam
Q4) What is the role of the dental assistant or dental hygienist in the delivery of whitening services for the patient?
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Q1) Pressed ceramic veneers are _____ than feldspathic porcelain veneers and are too _____ for very dark teeth.
A) thinner;translucent
B) thinner;opaque
C) thicker;translucent
D) thicker;opaque
Q2) What is the major drawback of all-ceramic restorations in the posterior of the mouth?
A) Fracture rate
B) Lack of esthetic appearance
C) Difficulty in creating an acceptable interproximal contact area
D) Inability to create an adequate occlusal anatomy versus the opposing occlusion
Q3) Describe the different techniques for fabrication of ceramic restorations.
Q4) Which of the following is a key advantage of low-fusing porcelains?
A) They have an opaque layer.
B) They are much stronger.
C) They appear opalescent.
D) They are less abrasive.
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Q1) Phase that consists of mercury reacting with tin
A)Gamma phase ( )
B)Gamma-1 phase ( 1)
C)Gamma-2 phase ( 2)
Q2) What is the result if an amalgam restoration corrodes?
A) Weakens over time
B) Stains surrounding tooth
C) Breaks down at the margins
D) All of the above are possible.
Q3) Why is the wet resin technique used under an amalgam restoration?
A) Bond the amalgam to the tooth
B) Keep the tooth from staining
C) Decrease sensitivity
D) Seal dental tubules
Q4) Which of the following is true of tarnish?
A) It is very destructive to the amalgam.
B) Polishing the restoration will increase the tarnish.
C) The smoother the surface,the more it tends to tarnish.
D) It results from contact with oxygen,chlorides,and sulfides in the mouth.
Q5) List the advantages and disadvantages of amalgam.
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Q1) During conventional root canal therapy,the root canal space is sealed with _____ so that bacteria cannot grow in the space.
A) gutta percha
B) chlorobutanol
C) zinc phosphate
D) silver amalgam
Q2) Which of the following is the most esthetic margin for a ceramic-metal crown?
A) Disappearing metal margin
B) Porcelain facial margin
C) All-metal margin
D) All-metal facing
Q3) Of the following,which is the base metal?
A) Gold
B) Gallium
C) Platinum
D) Palladium
Q4) What are silver solders used for?
A) Soldering orthodontic wires
B) Soldering crowns and pontics
C) Soldering partial denture clasps
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Q1) The _____ attaches to the impression abutment and is used to replicate the implant fixture for the laboratory cast.
A) cover screw
B) implant analog
C) healing abutment
D) impression abutment coping
Q2) Which of the following should occur during the hygiene visit for routine implant assessment and maintenance?
A) Routine probing is recommended.
B) The patient should return to the dental office at 12-month intervals.
C) The implant prosthesis should be removed for cleaning and maintenance.
D) The dentist may request periodic radiographs to check the bone level surrounding the implants.
Q3) The _____ implant is the most commonly used in dentistry today.
A) supraperiosteal
B) subperiosteal
C) transosteal
D) endosseous
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Q1) Abrasive particles:
A) lose shape over time.
B) are efficient only if large.
C) do not change size with use.
D) gradually get smaller as they are used.
Q2) Sand
A)An extremely fine abrasive used extensively as a final polishing agent for enamel and restorations
B)A natural abrasive composed of quartz and silica
C)Volcanic silica manufactured as a loose abrasive
D)A synthetic material that produces an extremely hard and efficient abrasive material
E)A synthetic abrasive;the powder form is used in sandblasting restorations in preparation for cementation
Q3) Polishing the contact area between restored teeth is:
A) desirable for esthetic reasons.
B) undesirable because it may leave an open contact.
C) undesirable because it increases treatment time.
D) desirable for esthetic and functional reasons.
Q4) Describe the rationale for selective polishing.
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Q1) Try-in paste is used to:
A) tack the restoration in place to check the shade of the final product.
B) bond orthodontic brackets.
C) verify proper seating of crowns.
D) cement posts before restorative treatment.
Q2) When would a cement be mixed to a secondary consistency?
A) Cement a veneer
B) Cement a permanent crown
C) Cement an orthodontic band
D) Cement an intermediate restoration
Q3) Which cement is recommended for metal-free restoration?
A) Glass ionomer cement
B) Resin-based cement
C) Hybrid ionomer cement
D) Resin-modified glass ionomer cement
Q4) Which of the following cements is highest in mechanical strength?
A) Resin cement
B) Hybrid ionomer
C) Zinc polycarboxylate
D) Glass ionomer cement

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Q1) Alginate
A)An alginate impression material that is mixed to a sol state and as it sets converts to a gel by a chemical reaction that irreversibly changes its nature
B)Gluelike material composed of two or more substances in which one substance does not go into solution but is suspended within another substance
C)An agar impression material that can be heated to change from a gel into a fluid state that can flow around the teeth
D)A water-based colloid used as an elastic impression material
E)A versatile irreversible hydrocolloid that is the most used impression material in the dental office
Q2) What is occurring when an alginate impression appears to sweat,showing droplets on the surface?
A) Syneresis
B) Hysteresis
C) Imbibition
D) Dehydration
Q3) List and describe the different types of impression materials suitable for crown and bridge procedures.
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Q1) -Hemihydrate is commonly used for:
A) die stone.
B) working casts.
C) diagnostic models.
D) dental investment.
Q2) Which kind of wax is used to construct the metal framework of partial and complete dentures?
A) Utility wax
B) Boxing wax
C) Casting wax
D) Baseplate wax
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding dimensional accuracy of gypsum products?
A) Plaster has the least amount of setting expansion.
B) Plaster has the least amount of setting contraction.
C) High-strength stones have the least amount of setting expansion.
D) High-strength stones have the least amount of setting contraction.
Q4) List and describe the use of the different types of gypsum products used in dentistry.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true about cross-linked polymers?
A) The bonds are weak.
B) The bond is stronger and stiffer.
C) They have short chain atoms attached.
D) The material is not easily manipulated.
Q2) What is the result of the loss of monomer or inadequate pressure during processing?
A) A brittle material
B) Shrinkage of the material
C) Porosities in the material
D) Discoloration of the material
Q3) Which of the following is true about polymers?
A) They are large,long-chain molecules.
B) They are small,long-chain molecules.
C) They are large,short-chain molecules.
D) They are small,short-chain molecules.
Q4) Why must dentures be relined periodically?
A) Dentures absorb odors from plaque and food.
B) Dimensional changes in acrylic occur.
C) Alveolar ridges shrink over time.
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Q1) Indirect fabrication
A)The continuous margin that borders the preparation to which the restoration is fit or finished
B)A restoration that covers all or part of the external surface of the tooth and may extend over the cusp tips on facial or lingual surfaces or include the removal of cusps
C)Provisional restoration made on a cast outside the patient's mouth
D)A restoration within the crown of the tooth,such as an inlay
E)Provisional restoration made directly inside the patient's mouth
Q2) Why are one or two small holes usually placed in the occlusal portion of the preformed celluloid or polymer crown form?
A) To establish occlusion with the opposing dentition
B) To create a proximal contact with the adjacent tooth
C) To capture the occlusal contour of the opposing dentition
D) To allow excess resin or composite material to flow out when the crown form is seated
Q3) List and describe the four criteria for provisional coverage.
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Q1) Removable appliances that are designed to gently move teeth into predetermined positions
A)Mouth guard
B)Obstructive sleep apnea
C)Space maintainer
D)Orthodontic tooth aligners
Q2) A sports guard thickness of about _____ mm is desirable for heavy contact sports in which injuries are more likely.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
Q3) A hard or pliable material that protects teeth from trauma during sporting activities or from grinding of the teeth
A)Mouth guard
B)Obstructive sleep apnea
C)Space maintainer
D)Orthodontic tooth aligners
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