Introduction to Dental Hygiene
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Dental Hygiene provides students with foundational knowledge of dental hygiene principles, practices, and the role of dental hygienists within the broader field of oral healthcare. The course covers topics such as oral anatomy, infection control, preventive dental care, patient education, and ethical responsibilities. Students will learn techniques for dental assessments, plaque control, and maintenance of oral health, as well as explore current trends and professional standards in dental hygiene practice. This introductory course prepares students for more advanced study and clinical experiences in dental hygiene programs.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles
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26 Chapters
1191 Verified Questions
1191 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Schedule III controlled substances may be telephoned to the pharmacist and may be refilled no more than five times in 6 months.
A)Both parts of the statement are true.
B)Both parts of the statement are false.
C)The first part of the statement is true;the second part is false.
D)The first part of the statement is false;the second part is true.
Answer: A
Q2) Two drug formulations that produce similar concentrations in the blood and tissues after drug administration are termed _____ equivalent.
A)chemically
B)biologically
C)therapeutically
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is true concerning generic and trade names of drugs?
A)A drug may only have one generic name and one trade name.
B)A drug may only have one generic name,but it may have several trade names.
C)A drug may have several generic names,but it may only have one trade name.
D)A drug may have several generic names and several trade names.
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing the pH of a solution will cause
A)a greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the ionized form.
B)a greater percentage of a weak acid in the solution to be in the un-ionized form.
C)the hydrogen ion concentration to increase.
D)a greater percentage of a weak base in the solution to be in the un-ionized form.
E)no change in the relative ionization of weak acids or weak bases.
Answer: D
Q2) If redistribution occurs between specific sites and nonspecific sites,a drug's action will be
A)prolonged.
B)extended.
C)decreased.
D)terminated.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An acute,life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension,bronchospasm,laryngeal edema,and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
Answer: A
Q2) Which hypersensitivity reaction causes antibody-antigen (immune complex)deposition?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
Answer: C
Q3) The greater the therapeutic index is,the greater the toxicity will be.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The post-synaptic tissue of the para-sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system can be differentiated from the pre-synaptic tissue by response to which chemical?
A)Atropine
B)Hexamethonium
C)Muscarine
D)Nicotine
Q2) a-Adrenergic agonists cause A)vasoconstriction.
B)vasodilation.
C)tachycardia.
D)miosis.
Q3) Salivation,lacrimation,urination,and defecation refer to toxic effects seen with adrenergic agents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fight-or-flight response refers to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system in response to stress.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common side effect from aspirin?
A)Gastrointestinal effects
B)Bleeding
C)Hepatic and renal effects
D)Hypersensitivity
Q2) The action of nonopioid analgesics is related to their ability to inhibit
A)the CNS.
B)prostaglandin synthesis.
C)release of epinephrine.
D)release of acetylcholine.
Q3) Which of the following choices is currently the most popular COX II-specific agent on the market?
A)Celecoxib
B)Rofecoxib
C)Valdecoxib
D)Indomethacin
Q4) Aspirin should not be given to children until they are 18 years of age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Codeine activates the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following conditions can be managed or treated with opioids?
A)Diarrhea
B)Depression
C)Infections
D)Hypertension
Q3) Which opioid is commonly used as an antitussive?
A)Propoxyphene
B)Codeine
C)Diphenoxylate
D)Pentazocine
Q4) A patient who feels nauseated after taking codeine is allergic to it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Opioids are the first choice for the treatment of chronic pain,such as temporomandibular joint and muscle disorders.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these agents do not inhibit bacterial cell-wall synthesis?
A)Vancomycin
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin G
D)Cefazolin
Q2) _____ is the drug of choice for prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis before a dental procedure.
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Ampicillin
D)Amoxicillin
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the pharmacokinetics of erythromycin?
A)Erythromycin is broken down in gastric fluid and absorbed through the stomach wall.
B)Erythromycin is not available in a topical preparation because of allergenicity.
C)Erythromycin is available in oral but not injectable forms.
D)Erythromycin should be administered 2 hours before or 2 hours after meals.
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dental hygienist should receive postexposure prophylaxis within __ hours following exposure to the HIV virus?
A)24
B)48
C)72
D)96
E)Zero hours because the medication must be administered prior to exposure.
Q2) Which of the following describes ketoconazole? (Select all that apply. )
A)It binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane.
B)It requires an acidic environment for adequate systemic absorption.
C)It may interact with warfarin.
D)It is the drug of choice for treatment of tinea.
Q3) Ketoconazole should not be used with _____ because it could reduce the absorption of ketoconazole.
A)penicillin V
B)metronidazole
C)anticholinergic agents
D)acyclovir
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Levonordefrin is more potent than epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Plain anesthetics without vasoconstrictor will exhibit a _____ duration of action and result in a _____ rapid buildup of a systemic blood level.
A)shorter;less B)shorter;more C)longer;less D)longer;more
Q3) The rate of local anesthetic absorption is increased by the presence of local inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which local anesthetic will have the shortest duration of action?
A)Lidocaine (plain)without vasoconstrictor
B)Lidocaine with vasoconstrictor
C)Mepivacaine with vasoconstrictor
D)Prilocaine with vasoconstrictor
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of patient instructions prior to the administration of nitrous oxide except one.Which is the exception?
A)The patient should eat a light meal before the appointment.
B)The patient should avoid eating a large meal within 3 hours of the appointment.
C)The patient must bring another person to transport them home as the patient should not drive himself or herself home alone following administration of nitrous oxide.
D)Nitrous oxide is an excellent choice for a needle-phobic patient.
Q2) Nitrous oxide is contraindicated for use in a patient with which of the following conditions?
A)Diabetes
B)Emphysema
C)Hypertension
D)Glaucoma
E)None of the above
Q3) Nitrous oxide is a complete anesthetic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiety control is only necessary for the first third of a dental appointment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ______ is an intravenously (IV)administered benzodiazepine that is used for conscious sedation in oral health care.
A)Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B)Lorazepam (Ativan)
C)Triazolam (Halcion)
D)Midazolam (Versed)
Q3) When benzodiazepines are used in dentistry to produce conscious sedation,the appearance of __________ is used as an initial endpoint for the dose administered.
A)flushed skin
B)miosis
C)ptosis
D)rapid eye movement
Q4) Sedatives potentiate analgesic agents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) b-Adrenergic blockers lower blood pressure primarily by
A)reducing peripheral resistance.
B)decreasing cardiac output.
C)lowering plasma volume.
D)lowering plasma renin levels.
Q2) Common adverse reactions associated with thiazides include
A)hypokalemia and hypouricemia.
B)hyperkalemia and hypouricemia.
C)hypokalemia and hyperuricemia.
D)hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning hyperlipidemia and cholesterol?
A)Hyperlipidemia includes elevations in cholesterol or triglycerides and is associated with the development of arteriosclerosis.
B)High-density lipoprotein (HDL)is good cholesterol.
C)Foam cells become filled with lipid.
D)Both A and B are correct.
E)Both B and C are correct.
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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antacids are the best treatment for peptic ulcers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sucralfate can be thought of as a "bandage" for ulcers because it inhibits the action of pepsin and absorbs the bile salts.
A)Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct and related.
B)Both parts of the statement and the reason are correct,but not related.
C)Both parts of the statement are correct,but the reason is not.
D)Both parts of the statement are not correct,but the reason is correct.
E)Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) Certain gastrointestinal drugs such as _____ have been abused by patients with
A)antiemetics;low blood sugar
B)laxatives;bulimia
C)nitroglycerin;familial hypercholesterolemia
D)antispasmodics;diabetes
Q4) Most ulcers are due to excess stomach acid from worrying.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lamotrigine is an effective treatment for myoclonic seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which antiepileptic agent is commonly prescribed for trigeminal neuralgia?
A)Lamotrigine
B)Phenytoin
C)Gabapentin
D)Carbamazepine
E)Valproic acid
Q3) Which antiepileptic medication has been known to produce osteomalacia?
A)Carbamazepine
B)Phenytoin
C)Ethosuximide
D)Gabapentin
E)Lamotrigine
Q4) The cause of phenytoin gingival enlargement is
A)inhibition of fibroblast activity.
B)accumulation of hemosiderin.
C)alteration of chemotaxis.
D)unknown.
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous
System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following second-generation antipsychotics is associated with agranulocytosis?
A)Aripiprazole
B)Clozapine
C)Quetiapine
D)Risperidone
E)Ziprasidone
Q2) The amount of any drug prescribed for a depressed patient should not exceed a _____-day supply.
A)1
B)3
C)7
D)14
Q3) Extrapyramidal reactions such as an acute spasm of the mandible caused by first-generation antipsychotics such as phenothiazines
A)can be treated with anticholinergic agents.
B)are disorders of muscle control.
C)include akathisia.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions may be exacerbated by corticosteroid use? (Select all that apply. )
A)Hypertension
B)Hypotension
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Glaucoma
E)Osteoporosis
Q2) Patients who are on which of the following corticosteroid regimens should be prescribed supplemental corticosteroids before a stressful dental procedure?
A)Currently taking less than 20 mg of hydrocortisone every day
B)Currently taking more than 40 mg of hydrocortisone every day
C)Currently taking between 20 and 40 mg of hydrocortisone every day
D)All of the above
E)None of the above
Q3) The adverse effects of glucocorticoids are primarily an extension of their therapeutic actions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory
Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergic rhinitis is primarily associated with immunoglobulin A.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients with _____ asthma experience symptoms less than two times a month,and the symptoms do not interfere with normal activity.
A)intermittent
B)mild persistent
C)moderate persistent
D)severe persistent
Q3) Which of the following classes of antibodies is triggered when an allergen is inhaled in an individual with a sensitized immune system?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q4) Antihistamines may be used to treat a mild allergic reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acarbose lowers blood glucose by
A)slowing glucose absorption.
B)enhancing insulin secretion.
C)decreasing hepatic glucose production.
D)increasing peripheral glucose uptake.
Q2) The glycosylated hemoglobin test more accurately measures the patient's overall serum glucose control than the serum glucose test.
A)True
B)False
Q3) More and more cases of type II diabetes are being reported in persons younger than 20 years because of
A)an increased incidence of autoimmune disorders.
B)a much more sedentary lifestyle and lack of exercise.
C)illicit use of legal drugs.
D)environmental changes and global warming.
Q4) The hemoglobin A C level should be more than 50% to reduce the incidence and progression of microvascular complications in patients with diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is characteristic of diffuse toxic goiter?
A)It is also known as Plummer disease.
B)It is characterized by a diffusely enlarged,highly vascular thyroid gland.
C)It occurs primarily in older patients and usually arises from long-standing nontoxic goiter.
D)Both A and B are characteristics.
E)Both B and C are characteristics.
Q2) Which of the following medications is indicated for the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women?
A)Clomiphene
B)Leuprolide
C)Tamoxifen
D)Danazol
Q3) Which female hormone promotes egg maturation?
A)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B)Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C)Estrogen
D)Progesterone
E)Chorionic gonadotropin
21
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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) The current philosophy for the use of antineoplastic agents involves treating the initial stages of the disease very aggressively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which folic acid analog antimetabolite antineoplastic drug is also used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A)Bleomycin (Blenoxane)
B)Methotrexate (Amethopterin,MTX)
C)Interferon alpha-n3 (Alferon N)
D)Vincristine (Oncovin)
E)Fluorouracil (5-FU)
Q3) Dental procedures should be performed for a patient taking bisphosphonates
A)during bisphosphonate-free holidays.
B)before starting bisphosphonate therapy or within 3 months of beginning therapy.
C)only when the course bisphosphonate therapy has been completed.
D)at any time deemed necessary.
Q4) Antineoplastic agents stimulate the immune system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most dental offices are well equipped to treat cardiac arrhythmias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs are not necessary for the proper management of most emergencies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is sublingual or intramuscular injection of epinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Symptoms that differentiate myocardial infarction from angina pectoris include
A)heaviness in the chest.
B)pain that radiates across the chest to other parts of the body.
C)pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin.
D)rapid pulse.
Q5) The drug of choice for opioid overdose is
A)intravenous diphenhydramine.
B)prochlorperazine.
C)naloxone.
D)flumazenil.
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Q1) Aspirin is generally considered to be the best analgesic to administer during pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following tetracyclines is (are)contraindicated in pregnancy: (1)tetracycline, (2)minocycline, (3)doxycycline?
A)1,2,3
B)1,2
C)2,3
D)1,3
E)1 only
Q3) Which antiinfective agent is least teratogenic?
A)Clarithromycin
B)Acetaminophen
C)Cephalexin
D)Tetracycline
Q4) In managing the pregnant patient,avoiding elective dental treatment is best until the third trimester.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders
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Q1) Each of the following is true of marijuana use EXCEPT one.Which is the EXCEPTION?
A)A common adverse reaction is a panic attack.
B)The agent can cause xerostomia.
C)Physical dependence,tolerance,and withdrawal symptoms are common.
D)Marijuana is effective as an antiemetic.
Q2) Abuse of _____ is the number one public health problem in the United States.
A)opioids
B)stimulants
C)alcohol
D)hallucinogens
Q3) What is "spice" or "K-2"?
A)A designer drug created by spraying natural herbs with synthetic chemicals that produce psychoactive effects similar to cannabis
B)A method of smoking oregano to get a hallucinogenic effect
C)The stems of the hemp plant rather than the leaves
D)A version of phencyclidine (PCP)
E)A British female pop group or a brand of snow skis
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Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Which statements are true about natural or herbal substances in the United States?
A)Herbal products marketed as dietary supplements are not required to comply with safety and efficacy regulations imposed on drug products.
B)Manufacturers cannot claim to cure conditions,but they can claim to improve structure or function.
C)The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)can allow a qualified health claim if scientific evidence exists to support the claim.
D)Because a prescription is not necessary for their use,most patients do not consider natural products or dietary supplements to be medicine.
E)All of the above are true.
F)Only A and C are true.
Q2) Which is true of eugenol?
A)Used in mouth rinses containing thymol,eucalyptol,and menthol.
B)Extract of aloe vera plant leaf used to treat aphthous ulcers.
C)Historically used in dentistry as a topical analgesic for dental pain.
D)Herbal-based product that significantly reduces plaque and gingivitis.
E)Naturally occurring sweetener with an anticariogenic effect.
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Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ)are associated with A)infection.
B)cancer therapy.
C)bisphosphonate therapy.
D)use of steroids.
Q2) Cheilosis can result from deficiencies of vitamins
A)B and .
B) and B .
C)B and B .
D)B and B .
Q3) Which of the following conditions involves a focal immune dysfunction in which a decreased ratio of T-helper to T-suppressor/cytotoxic cells can be seen?
A)Alveolar osteitis
B)Angular cheilitis
C)Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)
D)Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS)
E)Geographic tongue
Q4) The ulcerated area of ANUG begins at the marginal gingiva.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA has stated that triclosan is effective against A)occlusal caries.
B)proximal caries.
C)gingivitis.
D)periodontitis.
Q2) Which of the following treatments is the most effective in reducing gingivitis?
A)Sodium 2% fluoride
B)APF 1.23%
C)0.4% SnF and 1.1% NaF in APF
D)0.3% triclosan
Q3) The incidence of dental caries in children had decreased from the 1970s until the mid-1990s.This decrease has been attributed to improved oral hygiene.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q4) Dental disorders result in 7 million days of lost work each year.
A)True
B)False
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