Introduction to Criminal Justice Study Guide Questions

Course Introduction

Introduction to Criminal Justice offers an overview of the American criminal justice system, examining its key components, including law enforcement, courts, and corrections. The course explores the history and development of each segment, their interrelationships, and the processes involved from the commission of a crime to punishment and rehabilitation. Students will analyze major theories of crime causation, the nature and extent of crime, criminal law, and the rights of the accused, as well as contemporary issues and challenges within the system. This foundational course provides a framework for understanding how society responds to crime and aims to equip students with critical thinking skills essential for further study or careers in criminal justice.

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CJ2 2nd Edition by Larry K. Gaines

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Chapter 1: Criminal Justice Today

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Q1) Public order crime is defined as:

A) behavior that has been labeled criminal because it is contrary to shared values, customs and norms.

B) illegal acts carried out by illegal organizations engaged in the market for illegal goods or services.

C) nonviolent crimes committed by business entities or individuals to gain a personal or business advantage.

D) the interlocking network of law enforcement agencies, courts, and corrections institutions designed to enforce criminal laws.

Answer: A

Q2) Explain the three different purposes of the criminal justice system.

Answer: -To control crime - arresting, prosecuting, and punishing wrongdoers

-To prevent crime - in the process, the system also hopes to prevent new crimes from occurring through deterrence

-To provide and maintain justice - Above all, we want our laws and the means by which they are carried out to be fair

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Chapter 2: Causes of Crime

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Q1) Which of the following is a proposition that can be tested by researchers or observers to determine if it is valid?

A) theory

B) corroboration

C) hypothesis

D) verification

Answer: C

Q2) According to the 2010 National Survey on Drug Use and Health, most drug users are male?

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Labeling theory suggests the hypothesis that delinquents and criminals must be taught both the practical and emotional skills necessary to participate in illegal activity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q4) __________ is the scientific study of crime and the causes of criminal behavior. Answer: Criminology

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Chapter 3: Defining and Measuring Crime

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an argument in support of the National Crime Victimization Survey's?

A) It measures both reported and unreported crime.

B) It does not rely on victims directly reporting a crime to the police.

C) It is unaffected by police bias and distortions in reporting crime to the FBI.

D) It is compiled by the FBI as a supplement to the Uniform Crime Reports.

Answer: D

Q2) First degree felonies, punishable by a maximum penalty of _______ ________.

Answer: life imprisonment

Q3) Which of the following was the most likely culprit for the increase in correctional populations in the 1970s and 1980s?

A) gang-crime relationship

B) alcohol-crime relationship

C) drug-crime relationship

D) juvenile-crime relationship

Answer: C

Q4) When the crime is __________ it means that it was planned and decided on after a process of decision making.

Answer: deliberate

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Chapter 4: Inside Criminal Law

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Q1) Which of the following tests is considered the easiest standard for a defendant to meet to show insanity as a defense?

A) the M'Naghten rule

B) the substantial-capacity test

C) the irresistible-impulse test

D) the right-from-wrong test

Q2) The Eight Amendment to the Constitution protects against which of the following?

A) unreasonable searches and seizures

B) self-incrimination

C) cruel and unusual punishment

D) double jeopardy

Q3) The requirement that a person claiming self-defense prove that he or she first took reasonable steps to avoid the conflict that resulted in the use of deadly force is called:

A) necessity

B) duress

C) duty to retreat

D) self-defense

Q4) __________ _________ is a person's mental state, or intent.

Q5) __________ __________are the rules of law announced in court decisions.

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Chapter 5: Law Enforcement Today

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Q1) A motorist who is belligerent toward a highway patrol officer is much more likely to be ticketed than one who is contrite and apologetic.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The branch of the Department of Justice that is responsible for investigating violations of federal law is the __________.

Q3) Of the three levels of law enforcement, municipal agencies have the broadest authority to apprehend criminal suspects, maintain order, and provide services to the community.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is the primary factor that influences police discretion?

A) the nature of the criminal act

B) the attitude of the wrongdoer towards the officer

C) the race or ethnicity of the offender

D) departmental policy

Q5) List and explain the four basic responsibilities of the police.

Q6) Explain the three factors that affect a police officer's decision on use of discretion?

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Chapter 6: Challenges to Effective Policing

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Q1) The Tennessee v. Garner case addressed which of the following use of force issues?

A) unlawful holding during search and seizure

B) fleeing felon rule

C) probable cause

D) reasonable suspicion

Q2) The vast majority of patrol shifts are completed without a single arrest.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When a police officer accepts money or other forms of payment in exchange for "favors"

It is known as:

A) use of force

B) bribery

C) discretion

D) information gathering

Q4) _______________ is technology that allows crime analysts to identify trends and patterns of criminal behavior within any given area.

Q5) The primary police investigator of crimes is called a __________.

Q6) Describe how forensic experts use ballistics to solve crimes.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Police and the Constitution: The Rules of Law Enforcement

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Q1) In order to stop a person an officer must have which of the following?

A) probable cause

B) reasonable suspicion

C) preponderance of the evidence

D) beyond a reasonable doubt

Q2) The practice of targeting people for police action based solely on their race, ethnicity, or National origin is called:

A) fruit of the poisoned tree

B) racial disparity

C) exclusionary rule

D) racial profiling

Q3) An arrest made without first seeking a warrant for the action is known as a

Q4) A brief detention of a person by law enforcement agents for questioning is called a

Q5) One of the requirements of police officers when they are conducting a search is that they are reasonable. A)True B)False

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Chapter 8: Courts and the Quest for Justice

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Q1) Explain how the Missouri Plan of judicial selection occurs.

Q2) Which of the four functions of the courts is to protect individuals from the unfair advantages that the government-with its immense resources- automatically enjoys in legal battles?

A) due process function

B) crime control function

C) rehabilitation function

D) bureaucratic function

Q3) There are ___ U.S. Supreme Court justices.

A) 7

B) 9

C) 10

D) 12

Q4) A(n) __________ is a statement by a judge, expressing the reasons for the court's Decision in a case.

A) jurisdiction

B) dissent

C) opinion

D) docket

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Chapter 9: Pretrial Procedures: The Adversary System in Action

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Q1) If a prosecutor does not have a very strong case, but still feels that the defendant is guilty, they may turn to plea bargaining to "save" a questionable case.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A(n) __________ is a written accusation that probable cause exists to believe that a named person has committed a crime.

Q3) The chief law officer of the nation is the:

A) Director of the FBI

B) Attorney General

C) Commander in Chief

D) Public Prosecutor

Q4) The Strickland Standard deals with which of the following?

A) attorney-client privilege between a defense attorney and a defendant

B) constitutional requirements of counsel

C) professional relationship between the prosecutor and the defense attorney

D) the judge's appointment of a public defender.

Q5) Explain the factors that affect case attrition.

Q6) Explain the Strickland Standard and why it came about. Is it difficult to prove both prongs of the Strickland standard? Why or why not?

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Chapter 10: The Criminal Trial

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Q1) Direct evidence is evidence that establishes the existence of a fact that is in question without relying on inference.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A declaration following a trial that the individual accused of the crime is innocent is called a(n) __________.

Q3) A defendant is not allowed to waive his or her right to a jury trial in a death penalty case.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When is an appeal NOT required in most states?

A) in every case

B) when the sentence is longer than 10 years in prison

C) when the sentence is life without parole

D) when the sentences is capital punishment

Q5) When a defendant refuses to testify in court due to the fact that the information might incriminate them, this is known as ______________.

Q6) Explain the difference between real evidence and testimonial evidence.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Punishment and Sentencing

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Q1) Juries must be involved in both stages of the bifurcated process.

A)True

B)False

Q2) When public opinion moves toward more severe strategies of punishment, legislatures have responded by asserting their power over determining sentencing guidelines.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What U.S. Supreme Court case held that cruel and unusual punishment is defined by the changing norms of society and is not based on historical interpretations?

A) Furman v. Georgia

B) Weems v. United States

C) Roper v. Simmons

D) Gregg v. Georgia

Q4) Any circumstances accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a harsher sentence is called a(n) __________.

Q5) An term of incarceration in which a judge determines the minimum and maximum terms of imprisonment is called __________.

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Chapter 12: Probation and Community Corrections

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Q1) Conditions of probation which are imposed on all probationers are called conditions.

Q2) __________ is where an offender spends a certain amount of time each week, usually during the weekend, in a jail, workhouse, or other government institution, while not detained, the offender carries on with their normal lives.

A) shock incarceration

B) split-sentence probation

C) suspended sentence

D) intermittent incarceration

Q3) A criminal sanction in which a convict is allowed to remain in the community rather than be imprisoned as long as she or he follows certain conditions set by the court is called:

A) incarceration

B) immediate sanctions

C) detention

D) probation

Q4) Explain alternative sentencing arrangements.

Q5) Explain how probation can be revoked.

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Chapter 13: Prisons and Jails

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Q1) A minimum-security prison would NOT be likely to house which of the following types of offenders?

A) white-collar criminals

B) rapists

C) first-time offenders

D) non-violent offenders

Q2) Those individuals who studying the correctional system are called:

A) criminologists

B) penologists

C) psychologists

D) correctionologists

Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons why children of convicts are more likely to engage in delinquent behavior?

A) deterioration of the family structure

B) lack of supervision

C) financial struggles

D) increased support from the state

Q4) Disparity disproportionately affects minority populations.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate

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Q1) __________ is a secret language used by inmates to make their speech difficult for outsiders to understand.

Q2) Describe at least three of the different job categories for correctional officers according to Lucien Lombardo.

Q3) A __________ is a community-based form of early release that places inmates in residential centers to allow the former inmates to reintegrate into society.

Q4) Under which sex offender notification model do authorities directly notify the community or community representatives, through bulletins or posters that are distributed and posted within a certain distance from the offender's home?

A) penal

B) mandatory

C) passive

D) active

Q5) _______________ is the practice of separating inmates based on certain characteristics, such as age, gender, race, gang affiliation, or type of crime committed.

Q6) A __________ is an agreement between the state and the offender that establishes the conditions under which the latter will be granted parole.

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Chapter 15: The Juvenile Justice System

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Q1) Explain the development of the concept of parens patriae.

Q2) The process of removing low-risk offenders from the formal juvenile justice system by placing them in community-based rehabilitation programs is called:

A) diversion

B) petitioning

C) referring

D) intake

Q3) Explain why juveniles are often thought to have lowered responsibility for their actions in a legal sense?

Q4) Which of the following is true regarding school violence?

A) students are safer in schools than they are on the streets

B) students are more likely to be killed in schools than in their neighborhoods

C) the media under reports the violence in schools

D) school violence has increased since 1995

Q5) The __________ is a hearing in which the juvenile judge or officer decides the appropriate punishment for a youth found to be delinquent or a status offender.

Q6) __________ is a doctrine that holds that the state has a responsibility to look after the well-being of children.

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Chapter 16: Homeland Security

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Q1) The Patriot Act enhances the power of the federal government to keep noncitizens under suspicion of having terrorist sympathies from entering the United States.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of WMDs?

A) biological weapons

B) chemical weapons

C) nuclear weapons

D) ecoweapons

Q3) Which of the following refers to placing undercover agents in a position to gain information from hostile foreign intelligence services?

A) electronic surveillance

B) intelligence sharing

C) open-source collection

D) counterintelligence

Q4) A court that is operated by the military rather than the criminal justice system and is presided over by military officers rather than judges is called a(n) __________.

Q5) Explain the internationalization of domestic terrorism.

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Chapter 17: Cyber Crime and the Future of Criminal Justice

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Q1) Bulk e-mails, particularly of commercial advertising, sent in large quantities without the consent of the recipient are called:

A) malware

B) spam

C) viruses

D) worms

Q2) A __________ is a person who uses one computer to break into another.

Q3) Cybercrime is a crime that occurs online, in the virtual community of the

Q4) There are _____ state laws that target cyberbulling in the United States.

A) 24

B) 36

C) 44

D) 49

Q5) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons why the Internet is conductive to child pornography?

A) speed

B) security

C) regulation

D) anonymity

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