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Introduction to Criminal Justice provides a comprehensive overview of the American criminal justice system, exploring its key components: law enforcement, the courts, and corrections. The course examines the historical development of the system, core principles of criminal law, and the stages of criminal case processing. Students will analyze the roles and responsibilities of criminal justice professionals, as well as the ethical, social, and policy issues that impact the administration of justice. Critical topics such as crime measurement, criminal behavior theories, constitutional rights, and current challenges facing the justice system are emphasized, equipping students with foundational knowledge for further study in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Law for the Criminal Justice Professional 3rd Edition by Norman M Garland
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Q1) In the case of felonies,a law enforcement officer only needs reasonable suspicion to believe that a person has committed a crime before he or she may arrest the suspect.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) American law can be described by any of the following definitions except
A)the known decisions of the courts of the federal and state governments
B)the ability to impose statutes upon those who commit crimes against Americans anywhere
C)the federal,state,or local enactments of legislative bodies
D)rules and regulations proclaimed by administrative bodies
Answer: B
Q3) Many cultures do not make the distinction between secular (nonreligious)and __________ law that is so central to American culture.
A)statutory
B)federal
C)sacred
D)religious
Answer: D
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Q1) American courts will invalidate criminal statutes that are viewed as thinly veiled attempts to restrict the freedom of religion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Over time,the courts have held that ____________ encompasses the multiple procedures and processes that must be followed before a person can be legally deprived of his or her life,liberty,or property.
A)substantive criminal law
B)procedural criminal law
C)due process
D)statutory law
Answer: C
Q3) In special circumstances,state and federal agencies can legally enact or enforce criminal statutes that unnecessarily inhibit the substantive rights identified in the U.S.Constitution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) An example of a criminal omission is the failure to
A)stop a murder or rape from occurring
B)file an income tax return
C)feed one's child,leading to that child's death
D)register for the draft
Answer: A
Q2) ____________ is a criminal act.
A)"Possessing questionable moral character,such as a morbid interest in violent crime that may lead to the commission of such acts"
B)"Writing detailed stories about imagined criminal acts and thus inspiring others to commit them"
C)"Committing an omission such as neglecting to take care of a sick child,leading to that child's death"
D)"Thinking about a criminal act and planning it extensively by oneself"
Answer: C
Q3) Bigamy is a specific intent crime.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) ___________ is the mental state of intent that makes one liable as an accomplice.
A)knowledge
B)actus reus
C)purpose
D)instrumentality
Q2) An excuse that does NOT allow the principal to escape liability is that the
A)principal is not responsible for the conduct because he or she did not possess the requisite mens rea.
B)principal is not responsible because he did not commit the actus reus.
C)law provides a defense of some other excusing condition.
D)law protects anyone who is part of a certain class from being prosecuted.
Q3) Legal encouragement by the police as agents provocateur could include A)acting as the victim.
B)influencing the commission of the crime.
C)encouraging a defendant to commit a crime,whether through actions or words.
D)All the above are correct.
Q4) What are the three "complex situations" discussed in your text that affect the actor/accomplice relationship?
Q5) What is the difference between an entrapper and an agent provocateur?
Page 6
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Q1) One of the basic principles of Anglo-American criminal law is that the law does not punish people for their actions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All modern jurisdictions similarly require that the solicitor have a mental state of desiring that the crime be carried out.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name three of the four types of impossibility that are discussed in your text.
Q4) An argument against the abandonment defense is that it
A)allows a defendant who sincerely renounces crime to escape liability.
B)timing is not relevant,and people should be guilty at any stage of the criminal plan regardless of whether or not actions were taken to further that plan.
C)currently applies only to involuntary renunciations.
D)allows an actor to undo criminal plans by renunciation and avoid punishment,a possibility that may encourage persons to take preliminary steps toward a crime.
Q5) Name four of the six steps of the crime of intent.
Q6) What is abandonment?
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Q1) The current trend in criminal law is to reduce rather than increase the age at which children can be held criminally responsible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Use of deadly force by a private citizen is more restricted than for police officers,in part to prevent vigilantism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Regarding the defense of habitation,nearly all jurisdictions allow the use of deadly force only when the actor believes that the intruder intends to injure the actor or another occupant and where the deadly force is necessary to repel the intrusion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is NOT a recognized involuntary intoxication.
A)Coerced intoxication
B)Intoxication by innocent mistake
C)Pathological intoxication
D)Intoxication by addiction
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Q1) The utilitarian justification is based upon Jeremy Bentham's test for A)moral desirability of an act or social practice.
B)hedonistic calculus.
C)economic balance of forces.
D)determining ultimate culpability.
Q2) The goal of utilitarianism is
A)the greatest good for the greatest number.
B)"an eye for an eye."
C)to maintain existing social hierarchies.
D)vengeance.
Q3) The American Law Institute was established as a result of A)political rivalries and power struggles.
B)a desire to revive common law.
C)a need for more flexible common law.
D)general dissatisfaction with American criminal law.
Q4) The simplest retributive justification is when A)jurors have decided someone's punishment.
B)it is the will of the community at large.
C)people will not learn unless punished.
D)one who has violated the rights of others is penalized.
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Q1) Under modern American law,both suicide and attempted suicide are crimes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _________ is NOT an accurate definition of the behavior needed to be guilty of involuntary manslaughter.
A)Criminally negligent conduct
B)Culpable negligence
C)A non-wantonly reckless manner
D)Mere negligence
Q3) __________ is an example of an involuntary condition that excludes the actor from criminal liability?
A)"Disregarding advice from doctors by driving or operating dangerous equipment knowing that he or she is subject to heart failure or epilepsy"
B)"Deaths to others that occur while the actor is unconscious (for instance,suffering from a heart attack or epileptic seizure)or during a genuine case of sleepwalking"
C)"Knowingly driving while sleepy"
D)"Knowingly drinking to the point of passing out"
Q4) Name the five elements of criminal homicide.
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Q1) Police can provide rape victims with various resources that can assist in her or his recovery,including A)counseling.
B)names of other victims.
C)rehabilitation centers.
D)rape survivor support groups.
Q2) Elder abuse usually occurs in the rest homes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In order for a defendant to be guilty of battery,not only must he or she intend to cause harmful or offensive touching,but he or she must also A)intentionally scare the victim.
B)threaten the victim.
C)actually cause such a result to the victim.
D)annoy the victim.
Q4) What four typical signs will a social worker look for to find out if physical discipline toward a child is excessive and can be considered abuse?
Q5) What are the four general types of child abuse?
Q6) Explain the three categories that comprise the actus reus of mayhem.
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Q1) Under common law,burglary was viewed as a forcible invasion and disturbance of a person's right of habitation,and had a high risk of being punished by death.
A)True
B)False
Q2) "The unauthorized entering of any dwelling,vehicle,water craft,or other structure,movable or immovable,with the intent to commit a felony or any theft therein" describes
A)aggravated burglary.
B)attempted burglary.
C)simple burglary.
D)breaking and entering.
Q3) Your text gives some examples of homes that are legally considered to be uninhabited.Name three of these.
Q4) The MPC classifies an entry into a public place as a burglary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Almost universally today,arson is a specific intent crime.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If force or fear is missing from a larceny or theft,a robbery has taken place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is one of the elements of the common law crime of extortion.
A)A fee that is actually received by a private citizen
B)Seeking a lawful fee
C)an unlawful fee collected under color of office
D)None of the above is correct.
Q3) __________ is NOT a technique that when used to procure a genuine signature on a writing that has legal significance becomes forgery.
A)threats
B)artifice
C)trick
D)other fraudulent devices
Q4) Joyriding is usually committed by serious offenders,who take a car without permission and dismantle it for its parts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the three essential elements of receiving stolen property?
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Q1) As an anti-competitive measure,certain boycotts are considered illegal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The U.S.Supreme Court established that ignorance of the law is a defense when it comes to tax evasion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A plaintiff must show the __________ to succeed in a suit based on the Trademark Law Revision Act of 1988.
A)advertiser made a questionable statement
B)deception is manipulative
C)deception is implied and can negatively affect consumers' self-perceptions
D)advertising is made about services offered in one state
Q4) Name three of the examples given in your textbook as examples of affirmative acts of tax evasion.
Q5) The FDCA definition of food includes
A)articles used for food or drink for man or other animals.
B)chewing gum.
C)articles used for components of food or drink.
D)All the above are correct.

Page 14
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Q1) The MPC contains several provisions relating to fornication and adultery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ is one of the elements of hit and run.
A)Failure of the driver to furnish information about his identity.
B)Failure to render assistance to any persons injured.
C)Reporting an accident to the police the next day.
D)Operating a motor vehicle with a blood or breath alcohol concentration above a prohibited level.
Q3) The MPC establishes an affirmative defense to a charge of obscenity if dissemination is restricted to noncommercial dissemination to personal associates of the actor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is important to note that the offense of prostitution does not consist of the sexual act itself; rather,it is the agreement to participate in sexual activity for compensation.
A)True
B)False

Page 15
Q5) Name four of the forms of gambling that are discussed in your textbook.
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Q1) What are the three criteria for placing a drug into Schedule I?
Q2) Both federal and state systems have,in general,set up two penal categories for controlled substances for offenses involving
A)the sale,distribution,and manufacture of controlled substances.
B)simulated controlled substances.
C)cultivation.
D)the undercover use of controlled substances.
Q3) In criminal law,voluntary intoxication
A)cannot be used as a defense in any circumstance.
B)cannot disprove the existence of mens rea necessary for crimes of specific intent.
C)is no defense against crimes of general intent.
D)is always a defense to assault.
Q4) The Harrison Narcotics Act.Was enacted to
A)ensure doctors and pharmacists were licensed.
B)ensure that only people with proper registration were allowed to sell narcotics.
C)lower taxes on medicines.
D)"prohibit the use or sale of narcotics.
Q5) What is a drug conspiracy,and how can this offense be established?
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Q1) Under common law,if a false statement did not take place in a judicial proceeding,it was a false swearing and only a misdemeanor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An example of _________ contempt is the failure to comply with a judicial order.
A)criminal
B)civil
C)direct
D)constructive
Q3) Quasi-bribery has the same essential effect as standard bribery,but its recipients are private citizens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Constructive contempt occurs in the presence of the court when a person resists the court's power.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the crime of escape.
Q6) Summarize the two elements of the federal perjury statute.
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Q1) Explain how money laundering works,and what happens to money once it is laundered.
Q2) When a member of the organization uses the threat of violence to get someone to do something for the group,such as pay protection money,it is called
A)loan sharking.
B)bookmaking.
C)a shakedown.
D)criminal usury.
Q3) A typical organized crime structure can be compared to that of any type of legitimate business or organization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Premeditated,politically motivated violence perpetrated against noncombatant targets by subnational groups or clandestine state agents is called
A)military action.
B)terrorism.
C)political action.
D)an uprising.
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