Introduction to Communication Sciences and Disorders
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Communication Sciences and Disorders provides an overview of the fundamental concepts related to human communication, including speech, language, and hearing. The course explores the normal processes of communication across the lifespan as well as the nature, causes, and effects of various communication disorders. Students will learn about the broad spectrum of communication disorders such as speech, language, voice, fluency, and hearing impairments and their impact on individuals, families, and society. The course also introduces basic principles of assessment, intervention, and the roles of speech-language pathologists and audiologists in clinical and educational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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Chapter 1: Audiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An audiologist and mentee of Raymond Carhart who is particularly well-known for developing clinical diagnostic hearing tests is _____________.
Answer: James Jerger
Q2) Harvey Fletcher worked at the _______ Laboratories. Answer: Bell
Q3) According to the American Academy of Audiology 2011 Compensation and Benefits Report,which setting employs the highest percentage of audiologists?
A)Veterans Administration
B)Otolaryngology practice
C)Private practice
D)University hospital
Answer: B
Q4) _____________ is considered to be the Father of Audiology. Answer: Raymond Carhart
Q5) Who won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on the physiology of the ear?
Answer: Georg von Bekesy
Q6) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.
Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology
3
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is related to the amplitude of vibration
A)Intensity
B)Wavelength
C)Frequency
D)Phase
Answer: A
Q2) The faintest intensity level that can be detected is termed ___________________.
Answer: Threshold of audibility
Q3) The abbreviation RETSPL stands for ________________________. Answer: Reference equivalent threshold sound pressure level
Q4) The amount of force exerted on a specific area is called _____________. Answer: Pressure
Q5) The speed of sound in air is ________ m/s. Answer: 345
Q6) Name three noises used by audiologists in their daily practice. Answer: Broadband noise,narrow band noise, speech spectrum noise
Q7) The complete formula to calculate dB SPL is _______________. Answer: 20 log P<sub>2</sub>/P<sub>R</sub>)
Q8) List three properties of sound that are manipulated by audiologists. Answer: Intensity,frequency,duration Page 4
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Page 5
Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) List similarities and differences in the function of outer versus inner hair cells.
Answer: Outer hair cells are capable of changing their length and shape motility), and this contributes to the active processes within the cochlea cochlear amplifier). Inner hair cells do not have the property of motility. Both outer and inner hair cells are important for the normal functioning of the cochlea.
Q2) What is the function of the middle ear?
Answer: The middle ear compensates for the loss of sound that occurs due to the mismatch of impedance between air in the external ear and fluid in the inner ear.It does so through three mechanisms:
1)The area ratio between the tympanic membrane and the stapes footplate
2) ossicular lever action
3) the conical shape of the tympanic membrane. The middle ear is also involved in the acoustic reflex, a protective mechanism that attenuates intense low- and mid-frequency sounds.
Q3) State four specific locations of tonotopical organization within the auditory system:
Answer: Cochlea, Auditory Nerve, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calibration of hearing test equipment is optional.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are some examples of universal precautions for patient safety?
Q3) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
Q4) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.
Q5) The main reason the patient presents for hearing testing is called __________.
Q6) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
Q7) A patient history should be taken after hearing testing is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________.
Q9) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.
Q10) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q12) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic. Page 7
Q11) What types of noise are used to mask the non-test ear?
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Page 8
Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe briefly what is meant by vibrotactile response.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of insert earphones versus supra-aural earphones?
A)Attenuation of background ambient sound
B)Increased comfort
C)Better infection control
D)All of the above
Q3) What is a hearing threshold?
Q4) A warble tone is used in sound-field testing with loudspeakers to minimize the chance of
A)A hearing loss.
B)Constructive and destructive interference problems.
C)Bone conduction hearing.
D)A difference in hearing thresholds between the right ear and the left ear.
Q5) What are some important steps that should precede pure tone audiometry?
Q6) What are the advantages of forehead and mastoid approaches for bone conduction testing?
Q7) What is a clinically important air-bone gap?
Q9) Name the three mechanisms for bone conducting hearing. Page 9
Q8) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
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Page 10
Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q2) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q3) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________.
Q4) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is a spondee word?
Q6) List three disadvantages to relying on the MLV approach for measurement of word recognition.
Q7) In word recognition testing,the phrase "Say the word " is known as a _________________ phrase.
Q8) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
Q9) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q10) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:
A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds
B)Speech reception threshold
C)Speech awareness threshold
D)Articulation index Page 11
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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the amount of masking noise is insufficient to prevent cross-over,what type of masking would this be?
A)Sufficient masking
B)Undermasking
C)Overmasking
D)None of the above
Q2) What criteria are used to determine if AC masking is required?
Q3) Minimum interaural attenuation for supra-aural earphones in air-conduction testing is:
A)0 dB
B)40 dB
C)60 dB
D)80 dB
Q4) Masking is almost never required in speech audiometry.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the occlusion effect.
Q6) Explain the difference between minimum and maximum masking.
Q7) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q8) Define the masking dilemma.
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.
Q2) Which of the following is the correct description of the measurement of a contralateral acoustic reflex in the right ear?
A)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the left ear
B)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the right ear
C)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the right ear
D)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the left ear
Q3) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.
Q4) What is the peak pressure for a type C tympanogram?
A)Beyond -150 daPa
B)Beyond -50 daPa
C)Beyond +200 daPa
D)Between ± 100 daPa
Q5) What does the peak pressure in a tympanogram represent?
A)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the most compliant
B)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the least compliant
C)The maximum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without rupturing
D)The minimum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without collapsing
Q6) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three different kinds of noise used in speech-in-noise tests.
Q2) A type of noise consisting of multiple speakers speaking simultaneously in which words can be occasionally understood is called
A)Multitalker babble
B)Broadband speech noise
C)Cocktail party noise
D)Cafeteria noise
Q3) How is a click different from a tone burst?
Q4) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
Q5) ABR responses are elicited using _____ or ______.
Q6) The ABR cannot be recorded from children who are sleeping or sedated.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
Q8) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____.
Q9) A left ear advantage is normally found on dichotic listening tests.
A)True
B)False Page 15
Q10) ________________ and his colleagues are credited with discovering Auditory Brain Stem Responses.
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Page 16
Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In recent years,____ combined with _____ have become accepted alternatives to pure tone screening for preschool and young school-age children.
Q2) Risk factors for infant hearing loss include each of the following EXCEPT
A)NICU stay of more than five days.
B)In utero infections.
C)Syndromes associated with hearing loss.
D)Term birth 40-week gestational age.
Q3) The process of screening all babies for hearing loss within the first three months of birth is called _________.
Q4) Name three advantages of electroacoustic techniques such as otoacoustic emissions)over pure tone screening when performing hearing screening of preschool and school age children.
Q5) VEMP testing involves measurement of changes in the tension of the _________ muscle.
Q6) There is no role for otoacoustic emissions in screening for hearing loss in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Best practice is ___________-based practice.
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perforation in the tympanic membrane in an otherwise normal ear produces a severe-to-profound hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following diseases is associated with dual sensory impairment?
a.Usher's syndrome
b.Otitis media
c.Eustachian tube dysfunction
d.Meniere's disease
A)True
B)False
Q3) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.
Q4) Fluid in the middle ear space is called otitis media with ________________.
Q5) List a few risk factors that contribute to hearing loss in aging presbycusis).
Q6) State three different medications that can cause hearing loss.
Q7) Medical referral is never indicated in patients with idiopathic sudden sensorineural hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
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Q8) Gentamyin is an example of an _________________________ antibiotic.
Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Q1) The term APD stands for _________________________.
Q2) The term benign means a tumor will not pose any health concerns to a patient.All abnormalities affecting the central nervous system and causing auditory problems are tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Change in the brain brought about by experience is known as brain
Q4) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q5) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above True or False
Q6) Why is early identification and accurate diagnosis important for management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?
Q8) What are some major features of ANSD? Page 19
Q7) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and
Q9) What is a major distinction between acoustic tumors and neurofibromatosis II?
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Page 20
Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?
A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor
B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array
C)A receiver and amplifier
D)An amplifier and electrode array
Q2) Describe what you would immediately suspect if a patient complained that their hearing aid just died.
Q3) The development of the _____________________ was an important invention in the twentieth century,and led to smaller hearing aids.
Q4) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.
Q5) Surveys show that completion of the verification and validation process reduces the number of visits a hearing aid patient makes to a clinic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The process of deciding which hearing aid to pick for a given patient is called ______.
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Q7) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings.
Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Q1) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for?
Q2) ___________________ counseling is explaining the results of hearing assessment and what should be done next.
Q3) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q4) What is the oral approach to communication?
Q5) The _____________ approach to communication places an emphasis on the child's residual hearing through the use of amplification with the goal of developing listening skills through natural communication.
Q6) Hearing aids are the only management option for adults with hearing loss. A)True B)False
Q7) Grandparents and siblings are not affected when a family member has a hearing loss.
A)True B)False
Q9) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation? Page 22
Q8) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Q1) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?
A)Hyperacusis
B)Anacusis
C)Pseudohypacusis
D)Phonophobia
Q2) Risk factors for false or exaggerated hearing loss include:
A)The potential for financial compensation or gain
B)Sudden apparent hearing loss with no clear diagnosis
C)A history of physical,sexual,or emotional abuse
D)All of the above are risk factors
Q3) Describe the difference between false hearing loss and exaggerated hearing loss.
Q4) Tinnitus is always heard as a ringing sound.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly define the term tinnitus.
Q6) All patients with false or exaggerated hearing loss are malingerers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Q1) Team members for management of auditory processing disorders may include:
A)Audiologists and Speech pathologists
B)Educators
C)Psychologists
D)All of the above
Q2) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____.
Q3) The acronym BPPV stands for ____________
Q4) Longer patient reports are always better.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name a vestibular disorder in which the audiologist is directly involved in rehabilitation.
Q6) The audiologist's role in helping a child with hearing loss usually stops once a diagnosis is made.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The signal-to-noise ratio in a typical elementary school classroom varies between ________ and ______.
Q8) List four essential components of a patient audiology report. Page 25
Q9) Describe what the "1-3-6 Principle" is and why it is important.
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