Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology Study Guide Questions
Introduction to Biology provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental concepts in the biological sciences. The course explores the structure and function of living organisms, cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will gain an understanding of the scientific method, the chemical basis of life, and how organisms interact with each other and their environment. Laboratory exercises and real-world examples help reinforce core biological principles and foster critical thinking skills essential for more advanced study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook Biology The Essentials 2nd Edition by Hoefnagels
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2108 Verified Questions
2108 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are independent variables in this experiment?
A)amount of ammonium nitrate and light
B)amount of water
C)amount of carbon dioxide
D)height of the plants and amount of light
E)height of the plants
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following are dependent variables in this experiment?
A)Amount of ammonium nitrate and light
B)Amount of carbon dioxide
C)Amount of water
D)Height of the plants
E)Height of the plants and amount of light
Answer: D
Q3) The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A process by which cells break polymers down into smaller units is A)hydrolysis.
B)dehydration synthesis.
C)reproduction.
D)hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis.
E)unrelated to chemical bonds.
Answer: A
Q2) The four major groups of organic compounds are
A)fats,waxes,carbohydrates,and amino acids.
B)carbohydrates,lipids,steroids,and monosaccharides.
C)lipids,fats,waxes,and steroids.
D)carbohydrates,lipids,proteins,and nucleic acids.
E)carbohydrates,proteins,amino acids,and nucleic acids.
Answer: D
Q3) A base
A)has a value of 7 on the pH scale.
B)is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution.
C)is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution.
D)has a value below 7 on the pH scale.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the nucleolus is
A)protein synthesis.
B)photosynthesis.
C)transport of material into and out of the nucleus.
D)assembly of components of ribosomes.
E)assembly of DNA.
Answer: D
Q2) A cell membrane is not
A)a fluid structure.
B)a rigid structure.
C)a mosaic structure.
D)a bilayered structure.
E)composed of phospholipid molecules.
Answer: B
Q3) If you found a piece of animal tissue that did not allow fluid to leak across it,you would predict that it contained tight junctions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis is
A)an example of exocytosis.
B)an example of passive transport.
C)an example of diffusion.
D)an example of endocytosis.
E)an example of facilitated diffusion.
Q2) The chemical formula for glucose is
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>6</sub>.
B)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>12</sub>.
C)C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>.
D)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>O<sub>12</sub>.
E)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>.
Q3) Oxidation-reduction reactions
A)transfer electrons from one molecule to another.
B)are not used by living cells.
C)transfer protons from one molecule to another.
D)reduce the amount of oxygen in the cell.
E)increase the amount of oxygen in the cell.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The light reactions harvest _______,while the carbon reactions produce _______.
A)energy,carbohydrates
B)energy,phosphate
C)phosphate,carbohydrate
D)energy,nucleic acids
E)lipids,nucleic acids
Q2) The reactions of photosynthesis are summarized as
A)6CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6O<sub>2.</sub>
B)6CO + 6H<sub>2</sub>O C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O.
C)12CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O
C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O.
D)6CO + 6H<sub>2</sub>O C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>?6</sub> + 6O<sub>2.</sub>
E)No answer is correct.
Q3) If oxygen could be traced,the oxygen in the water in a leaf would end up in carbohydrates after photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrons that are transferred during cellular respiration are carried in the molecules
A)NADP and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
B)NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)NADH<sub>2</sub> and glucose.
E)acetyl CoA.
Q2) You have discovered a gene that is mutated in some patients with a mitochiondrial disease.When you analyze the gene,you find that the protein encoded forms a channel in the inner membrane of the mitochondria and adds phosphate to ADP.You conclude that the disease is caused by malfuntion of the A)ATP synthase.
B)NADH synthase.
C)FADH<sub>2</sub> synthase.
D)ADP synthase.
E)NADPH synthasE.
Q3) Cellular aerobic respiration includes glycolysis,the Krebs cycle,and electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A highly wound circle of RNA without a protein coat is a A)virus.
B)virion.
C)viroid.
D)prion.
E)prophagE.
Q2) In a "silent" mutation
A)the codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid specified.
B)the codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid specified.
C)the codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid.
D)the mutation does not occur in a codon.
E)the mutation is not in DNA.
Q3) Many viruses are inhibited by antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) RNA processing involves splicing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication, binary Fission, and Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A discrete package of DNA and associated proteins in eukaryotes is a A)chromosome.
B)nucleus.
C)ribosome.
D)Golgi body.
E)centriolE.
Q2) Each newly replicated molecule of DNA contains one conserved strand from the original DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "DNA and associated proteins in the nucleus" defines the term A)centromere.
B)nucleosome. C)histone.
D)chromatin.
E)chromosomE.
Q4) Bacteria and archaeans do not receive new genetic material from binary fission,but from mutations and gene transfers.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who have a single X chromosome are female,while those with XXY sex chromosomes are males.In order to be a female,a human
A)must have two X chromosomes.
B)cannot have a Y chromosome.
C)must have only one X chromosome.
D)must have only one Y chromosome.
E)cannot have an X chromosomE.
Q2) A gamete having more than one complete set of chromosomes
A)cannot be produced by meiosis.
B)cannot participate in fertilization.
C)is polyploid.
D)will undergo mitosis.
E)is not yet through meiosis.
Q3) Sexual reproduction and meiosis generate genetic variety by A)random fertilization.
B)All answers are correct.
C)independent assortment.
D)crossing over.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The segregation of alleles for a gene on one chromosome does not influence the segregation of alleles for a gene on another chromosome during gamete formation is Mendel's
A)law of independent assortment.
B)law of random fertilization.
C)law of population dynamics.
D)law of crossing over.
E)law of segregation.
Q2) If you cross two pea plants,one with green peas and the other with yellow peas,and all of the offspring have yellow peas,you conclude
A)green is dominant over yellow.
B)yellow and green are codominant.
C)yellow is incompletely dominant over green.
D)yellow is dominant over green.
E)color is random in pea plants.
Q3) On a diagram of linked genes on a chromosome,the distance between the genes would be based on thefrequency of crossing over between the genes during meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Dna Technology
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is polymerase chain reaction (PCR)a very common tool since its invention in the 1980s?
A)rapidly replicates DNA sequences with the use of bacterial cells
B)rapidly replicates DNA sequences with the use of animal cells
C)rapidly replicates DNA sequences without the use of living organisms
D)eliminates need for recombinant DNA
E)reduces the size of plasmids and speeds their insertion
Q2) Transgenes for herbicide resistance have been accidentally transferred from crop plants to their weedy wild relatives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gene probes locate specific DNA sequences by
A)binding with the complementary sequence in a genome.
B)turning off genes in specialized cells.
C)creating cloned genes.
D)electrophoresis.
E)All answers are correct.
Q4) All of the human genome encodes proteins.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems,while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight.Together this leads to ______ for babies of average birth weight.
A)stabilizing selection
B)disruptive selection
C)directional selection
D)artificial selection
E)sexual selection
Q2) The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate phenotype is
A)directional selection.
B)disruptive selection.
C)stabilizing selection.
D)artificial selection.
E)uniformitarianism.
Q3) Natural selection is random because no individuals are eliminated from reproducing due to different environments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potassium-40 is useful in determining the age of a fossil in samples
A)less than 25,000 years of age.
B)of 40,000 to 50,000 years of age.
C)300,000 years of age and older.
D)aged between 50,000 and 100,000 years of age.
E)aged between 100,000 years and 250,000 years.
Q2) The half life of <sup>14</sup>C is 5,730 years.11,460 years after an organism dies what percent of the initial <sup>14</sup>C will still be present in the organism bones?
A)50%
B)25%
C)75%
D)100%
E)0%
Q3) Data from embyros can be used to help establish evolutionary relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dinosaurs lived essentially during the Paleozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying two populations of dung beetles,one of which rolls their dung balls at noon,resting at night,and the other of which reverses this.These could speciate due to
A)behavioral isolation.
B)gametic isolation.
C)mechanical isolation.
D)temporal isolation.
E)sexual selection.
Q2) A discontinued line in an evolutionary tree indicates A)extinction.
B)gradualism.
C)punctuated equilibrium.
D)convergent evolution.
E)temporal isolation.
Q3) Humans are placed into what kingdom and domain?
A)Animalia,Archaea
B)Chordata,Archaea
C)Archaea,Eukarya
D)Animalia,Eukarya
E)Archaea,Animalia
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rigid barrier that surrounds most prokaryotes is the A)cell membrane.
B)flagellum.
C)ribosome.
D)cell wall.
E)cytoplasm.
Q2) Why do scientists hypothesize that RNA was the first form of genetic material?
A)All answers are correct.
B)RNA can catalyze reactions.
C)RNA can store genetic information.
D)RNA can self-replicate.
E)RNA can use genetic information to make proteins.
Q3) The structure that assembles proteins in the prokaryote is the A)plasmid.
B)ribosome.
C)cell membrane.
D)endospore.
E)nucleoid.
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence that algae are the closest relatives to plants is that they both
A)have chloroplasts.
B)contain chlorophyll a.
C)have cellulose-rich cell walls.
D)use starch as a nutrient reserve.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) Plants and algae most recently shared a common ancestor 480 million years ago,and plants colonized land shortly after that.In sexual reproduction,an alga releases gametes into the water and fertilization occurs.What reproductive adaptation did plants evolve on dry land?
A)stomata
B)vascular tissues
C)cuticle
D)pollen
E)lignin
Q3) The purpose of fruit is to provide nourishment for the growing plant after the seed germinates.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The embryonic germ layer of tissue in animals that develops into the skin and nervous system is the A)pachyderm.
B)endoderm.
C)mesoderm.
D)protoderm.
E)ectoderm.
Q2) What was most key in the transition of fish into amphibians?
A)limbs only
B)both lungs and limbs
C)lungs only
D)fins only
E)both lungs and fins
Q3) You are helping to prepare images for a textbook when you see a caption saying "first land vertebrates," so you look for pictures of A)amphibians.
B)reptiles.
C)tortoises.
D)lampreys.
E)lungfish.
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Chapter 18: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 2010,India had a population of 1,170,000,000,a birth rate of 0.027,and a death rate of 0.013.Approximately how much did the Indian population grow in 2010?
A)170,000,000
B)1,700,000
C)170,000
D)17,000,000
E)17,000
Q2) Ecologists study
A)prokaryotes only.
B)eukaryotes only.
C)interactions between all organisms.
D)plants and animals only.
E)animals only.
Q3) Governments of France,Canada,and China offer financial incentives to encourage citizens to have children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper and lower tidal zones in which the barnacles Balanus and Chthalamus thrive when both species are present illustrate the principle of A)symbiotic inclusion.
B)parasitism.
C)oceanic restriction.
D)competitive exclusion.
E)No answer is correct.
Q2) If two species of lizard living in different desert valleys evolve to change color,one lighter and one darker,at about the same time,this is an example of coevolution.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you were to shine a lightbulb on a puddle,and the water in the puddle disappeared,you would say that you had added energy to the puddle and had seen A)sublimation.
B)condensation.
C)convection.
D)evaporation.
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Global warming is a human-caused increase in the greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere,thereby causing climate conditions more extreme than the greenhouse effect alone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In addition to filling lakes with sediment,why is eutrophication a biological concern?
A)Filling lakes is the only major concern.
B)Excess algal growth leads to high levels of dissolved oxygen.
C)Excess algal growth makes it difficult for primary consumers to find food.
D)High levels of nutrients are toxic to algae.
E)When the algae die and decompose,dissolved oxygen levels drop.
Q3) Each year almost _____ metric tons of carbon dioxide are released into Earth's atmosphere.
A)500,000
B)6,000,000
C)1,000,000
D)3,000,000
E)4,000,000
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasitic plants donate nutrients to other plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The root cap
A)protects the meristem from abrasion.
B)is located at the tip of the root.
C)secretes a lubricant for the growing root.
D)plays a role in sensing gravity.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) In the spring before the leaves come out,maple trees are often tapped to collect sap to make syrup.The sugars were stored in the wood of the tree as starch and then released as temperatures rise above freezing in late winter.Which of the following best describes the original source of the sugars found in the sap?
A)photosynthesis during the previous summer
B)photosynthesis that winter
C)photosynthesis occurring in the spring while the sap is flowing
D)breakdown of cellulose in the tree
E)absorption from the soil
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coconuts are fruits containing seeds that are usually wind-dispersed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Angiosperms owe their widespread distribution to their production of pollen,seeds and flowers.What is the greatest advantage to the production of seeds?
A)It allows fertilization in the absence of water.
B)It protects and nourishes the embryo.
C)It is necessary for sexual reproduction.
D)It allows fertilization in moist areas.
E)It promotes pollination.
Q3) If you wanted a grass plant to bend to the right,where would you want to apply auxin?
A)on the left side of the grass,a few centimeters down from the tip
B)on the right side of the grass,a few centimeters down from the tip
C)on the left side of the tip of the grass
D)on the right side of the tip of the grass
Q4) A dry spiny fruit is probably dispersed by attaching to an animal's fur.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two features do all tissues share?
A)All tissues are composed of cells in an extracellular matrix and make up organs.
B)All tissues have DNA and are unique to a specific organ.
C)All tissues have protein fibers and are unique to a specific organ.
D)All tissues have carbohydrate skeletons and are unique to a specific organ.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) The systems that support and move the body are
A)skeletal and muscular.
B)nervous and endocrine.
C)circulatory and respiratory.
D)digestive and circulatory.
E)urinary and immunE.
Q3) If you were asked to list systems that are most critical for protecting the body from external threats,you would list
A)nervous and endocrine.
B)skeletal and muscular.
C)digestive,respiratory,and circulatory.
D)integumentary,immune,and urinary.
E)reproductive and respiratory.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) When you look at the water,which is being activated?
A)thermoreceptor
B)pain receptor
C)photoreceptor
D)mechanoreceptor
E)chemoreceptor
Q2) If you were working with a patient with brain damage who had serious problems with homeostasis,you would suspect that the brain damage included the A)cerebellum.
B)hypothalamus.
C)medulla oblongata.
D)pons.
E)cerebrum.
Q3) The junctions between one neuron and another neuron are called A)axons.
B)dendrites.
C)synapses.
D)cell bodies.
E)myelin sheaths.
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The endocrine gland that produces primarily testosterone is the A)testes.
B)pancreas.
C)parathyroid gland.
D)adrenal glanD.
E)pineal gland.
Q2) Peptide hormones are usually which?
A)bound to a receptor in the cytoplasm of a target cell
B)lipid-soluble
C)water-soluble and bound to a receptor in the cytoplasm of a target cell
D)water-soluble
E)lipid-soluble and bound to a receptor in the cytoplasm of a target cell
Q3) Which characteristic sets insulin and glucagon apart from steroid hormones?
A)They are lipid-soluble.
B)They alter gene expression.
C)They bind to a receptor inside the cell's cytoplasm or nucleus.
D)They bind to a receptor on the surface of the cell.
E)They are not water-solublE.
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A thin filament in a muscle cell is composed primarily of the protein
A)hemoglobin.
B)myosin.
C)myoglobin.
D)actin.
E)pectin.
Q2) What causes a muscle cell to contract?
A)Actin and myosin break down.
B)Actin heads attached to myosin bend.
C)Calcium ions form a bridge binding actin to myosin.
D)ATP forms a bridge binding actin to myosin.
E)Myosin heads attached to actin bend.
Q3) Connective tissue of the musculoskeletal system includes A)ligaments.
B)bone.
C)cartilage.
D)tendons.
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratorysystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct order for the time required to replace each blood component from shortest to longest?
A)plasma,red blood cell,platelet
B)platelet,red blood cell,plasma
C)red blood cell,platelet,plasma
D)plasma,platelet,red blood cell
E)red blood cell,plasma,platelet
Q2) One of the main reasons that we exhale a higher percentage of carbon dioxide than we inhale is that
A)we use carbon dioxide to make glucose.
B)we produce carbon dioxide as a byproduct of aerobic respiration.
C)we produce carbon dioxide as a byproduct of transmission of nerve impulses across synapses.
D)carbon dioxide is a byproduct of photosynthesis.
E)carbon dioxide dissolves better in blood than does oxygen.
Q3) An increase in the number of red blood cells is called anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help a patient who is malnourished for vitamin C,you would prescribe eating more A)red meat.
B)beans.
C)citrus fruit.
D)fish.
E)nuts.
Q2) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics. A)True
B)False
Q3) The enzyme that breaks down fats is A)pactase.
B)amylase.
C)pepsin.
D)lipase.
E)bilE.
Q4) Heterotrophs must eat to obtain some organic compounds. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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68 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunological memory results from the production of
A)both B and T memory cells.
B)both mast and B memory cells.
C)mast memory cells only.
D)B memory cells only.
E)T memory cells only.
Q2) If you see cytotoxic T cells,you know that a humeral response is underway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rh incompatibility is due to an immune reaction to what by a pregnant woman?
A)a self antigen on red blood cells
B)a foreign antibody on red blood cells
C)a foreign antigen on red blood cells
D)a self antibody on red blood cells
E)No answer is correct.
Q4) The type of cell that is primarily responsible for initiating and coordinating the adaptive immune response is the B cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cilia sweep the released mature oocytes from ovaries into the A)cervix.
B)uterine tubes.
C)labia majora.
D)uterus.
E)vagina.
Q2) The tube-like structure that serves as the birth canal in the human female is the A)cervix.
B)vulva.
C)vagina.
D)uterus.
E)uterine tubE.
Q3) Fruit fly development clearly exemplifies direct development,since the worm-like larva is so unlike the adult fly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sperm production in the human male is governed by estrogen and progesterone.
A)True
B)False
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