Introduction to Biology Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides students with a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles of living systems. Topics covered include cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and discussions, students gain an understanding of scientific methods and critical thinking skills necessary for exploring biological concepts. This course equips learners with the foundational knowledge essential for advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fireflies are nocturnal beetles that emit flashes of light to attract mates.A scientist studying the firefly population over the past 5 years observes that the firefly population has declined significantly as the area that she has been studying has become more developed (more buildings).The scientist proposes a series of hypotheses to explain the decline.Which of her hypotheses is most likely to be correct?
A)Due to excess amounts of artificial light,the firefly is now active during the day;the scientist is trying to study them at the wrong time leading to incorrect counts of the number of fireflies.
B)Excess amounts of artificial light prevent the female fireflies from seeing the male's flashing mating signal.
C)Excess amounts of artificial light resulted in the evolution of a different mechanism in the male firefly for attracting females and the females no longer recognize this signal.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Nitrogen (N)normally forms only three covalent bonds because it has a valence of five.However,ammonium has four covalent bonds,each to a different hydrogen (H)atom (H has a valence of one).Make a sketch of this molecule.Count the number of electrons in your sketch.Compare this number to the number of valence electrons in one N and four H's.What is the charge on this molecule most likely to be?
A)+1
B)-1
C)+2 D)-2
Answer: A
Q2) Why is water such a good solvent?
A)Most polar and charged substances dissolve in it.
B)It is highly polar.
C)It can participate in hydrogen bonds.
D)All of the above apply.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following is not true when comparing an uncatalyzed reaction to the same reaction with a catalyst?
A)The catalyzed reaction will be faster.
B)The catalyzed reaction will have a different G.
C)The catalyzed reaction will have lower activation energy.
D)The catalyzed reaction will not consume any of the catalyst.
Answer: B
Q2) In solution,why do hydrolysis reactions occur more readily than condensation reactions?
A)Hydrolysis increases entropy and is exothermic.
B)Hydrolysis raises G,or Gibbs free energy.
C)Hydrolysis decreases entropy and is exothermic.
D)Hydrolysis increases entropy and is endothermic.
Answer: A
Q3) How many times does the protein in Figure 3.1 cross the cell membrane?
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) When doing gel electrophoresis,why do researchers add a "ladder" made up of molecules of known size?
A)to help the molecules they are studying get through the gel more easily
B)to help the researchers identify the size of each molecule after the separation has occurred
C)to make sure the radioactivity doesn't interfere with the movement of the molecules that are being studied
D)The molecules being studied would not show up without the ladder.
Q2) The work of Bartel's group on the ribozyme RNA replicase supports which conclusion?
A)An RNA world could produce molecules that could self-replicate.
B)Natural selection does not work unless humans are present to help it.
C)DNA must have come before RNA.
D)Life cannot come from nonlife.
Q3) Is Nakano's quote consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?
A)yes
B)no
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Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) How do the and forms of glucose differ?
A)Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
B)Their linear structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
C)The form can be involved in 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic linkages;the form can participate only in 1,4 linkages.
D)The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position.
Q2) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A)the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B)the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C)whether glucose is in the or form
D)the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
Q3) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in glycogen?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cholesterol decreases the permeability of biological membranes?
A)Cholesterol binds to the outside surface of a membrane,thus blocking the movement of solutes.
B)Because cholesterol is amphipathic,it forms tiny vesicles that trap solutes.
C)Because cholesterol is amphipathic,it fits in between the phospholipids and blocks diffusion through the membrane.
D)Cholesterol has four rings in its structure that can sequester (trap)solutes.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of osmosis?
A)It is a special case of diffusion.
B)It is an energy-demanding or "active" process.
C)Water moves from areas of high water concentration to areas of low water concentration.
Q3) Phospholipid bilayer membranes are selectively permeable.What does that mean?
A)They allow everything but water to cross.
B)They allow only water to cross.
C)They allow everything nonpolar to cross.
D)They allow some things to cross while restricting others.
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic that chloroplasts and mitochondria share?
A)They both have their own DNA.
B)They both have multiple membranes.
C)They are both part of the endomembrane system.
D)They are capable of reproducing themselves.
Q2) A cell is found to contain a series of damaged organelles.Which process will play a role in removal of these damaged organelles from the cytosol?
A)Phagocytosis
B)Exocytosis
C)Autophagy
D)Pinocytosis
Q3) Which of the following components would you expect to find in any type of living organism?
A)nucleus
B)chromosome
C)mitochondria
D)lysosome
E)microtubule
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Integrins are integral membrane proteins.They are often attached to A)membranes of intracellular organelles.
B)cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix.
C)pathogens.
D)glycogen molecules and other cellular inclusions.
Q2) If cancer cells detach from neighboring cells,what is a likely outcome of this event?
A)loss of desmosomes
B)loss of surface hormone receptors
C)loss of G-proteins
D)loss of second messenger molecules
Q3) Scientists have found that extracellular matrix components may induce specific gene expression in embryonic tissues such as the liver and testis.For this to happen,there must be direct communication between the extracellular matrix and the developing cells.Which kind of transmembrane protein would most likely be involved in this kind of induction?
A)integrins
B)collagens
C)actins
D)fibronectins
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) In cellular respiration,electrons are moved along a series of membrane proteins during the electron transport chain.If there was a mutation in the DNA coding for each of the proton pumps of the electron transport chain such that these proteins became non-functional,what would you predict to occur?
A)Protons would not be moved from the matrix to the intermembrane space and so ATP synthase would not be activated.
B)Protons would no longer be moved from the intermembrane space to the matrix and so ATP synthase would not be activated.
C)NADH and FADH would have to donate their electrons directly to ATP synthase in order for ATP synthesis to occur.
D)All electrons would have to be stripped from water instead of NADH and FADH2 to create the proton gradient needed to power ATP synthase.
Q2) What is the function of coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle?
A)It is the coenzyme of carboxylation reactions.
B)It is the coenzyme of redox reactions.
C)It is a coenzyme of dehydration reactions.
D)It is the coenzyme of acetylation reactions.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What is a difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b?
A)Chlorophyll a is a pigment,and chlorophyll b is the enzyme that transfers excited electrons from chlorophyll a to electron carriers of the thylakoid membrane.
B)Chlorophyll a absorbs yellow light,and chlorophyll b absorbs green.
C)Chlorophyll a contains Mg in a ring structure,whereas chlorophyll b contains iron.
D)Chlorophyll a and b absorb light energy at slightly different wavelengths.
Q2) Besides proteins,thylakoid membranes must contain a large number of ________ molecules in the reaction centers in order to harvest light energy.
A)phospholipid
B)oligosaccharide
C)pigment
D)electron carrier
Q3) The process of photosynthesis probably originated
A)in plants.
B)in prokaryotes.
C)in fungi.
D)three separate times.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) The term contact inhibition refers to the A)exchange of signals between cells using cell surface receptions. B)cessation of cell growth when two cells touch each other.
C)action of non-competitive inhibitors on the catalytic activity of enzymes.
Q2) The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in A)splitting of the cell (cytokinesis)following mitosis.
B)triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes.
C)disassembly of the nucleolus.
D)separation of sister chromatids.
Q3) At which stage does chromosome organization change from diffuse/uncondensed to a compact/condensed state?
A)Prophase
B)Metaphase
C)Interphase
D)Anaphase
E)Telophase
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) Which of the following would enable you to detect aneuploidy?
A)autosomy
B)karyotyping
C)syngamy
D)synapsis
Q2) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
A)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis I.
B)DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis,but not before meiosis I.
C)Prophase is longer and more complex in mitosis.
D)Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.
Q3) Chromosomes and their homologues align at the equator of the cell during
A)prophase I.
B)metaphase I.
C)prophase II.
D)metaphase II.
Q4) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?
A)Turner's syndrome (XO)
B)Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY)
C)Down's syndrome (21,21,21)
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele.If a woman and her husband are both carriers,what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl?
A)1/4
B)1/16
C)1)0
D)3/16
E)3/8
Q2) A man is heterozygous for two genes (R and L)that are located on different chromosomes.Which of the following processes would result in different combinations of the alleles for these two genes in his sperm?
A)Independent assortment
B)Sister chromatid segregation
C)Recombination
D)Fertilization
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) The transduction experiments done by Hershey and Chase,and the transformation experiments done by Griffith,supported the same conclusion,which was that
A)pathogenic molecules affect the health of all living organisms.
B)DNA is the molecular substance of genetic inheritance.
C)organisms must be sacrificed for science to progress.
D)genetic recombination in living organisms is rare.
Q2) Refer to Figure 14.1.What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the order that they will be added.
A)C,A,G,C,A,G,A
B)T,C,T,G,C,T,G
C)A,G,A,C,G,A,C
D)U,G,U,C,G,U,C
Q3) In the polymerization of DNA,a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A)ATP
B)C
C)the 3 OH
D)a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Figure 15.5.If the codon CAC was present in the ribosome A site,which amino acid would be added?
A)phenylalanine
B)methionine
C)aspartic acid
D)histidine
Q2) What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant?
A)A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid.
B)The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms.
C)The genetic code is universal (the same for all organisms).
D)More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid.
Q3) The original DNA has the base sequence AGCGTTACCGT;a mutation in the DNA strand results in the base sequence AGGCGTTACCGT.What does this tell you about the mutation?
A)It was caused by radiation poisoning.
B)It may result in a single amino acid change in the protein being coded for by this base sequence.
C)There is no mutation.
D)It is a frameshift mutation.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) There should be a strong positive correlation between the rate of protein synthesis and
A)the quantity of DNA polymerase.
B)the size of the genome.
C)the size of mRNA.
D)the number of ribosomes.
Q2) Codons are three-base sequences that specify the addition of a single amino acid.How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?
A)Prokaryotic codons usually contain different bases than those of eukaryotes.
B)Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes.
C)The translation of codons is mediated by tRNAs in eukaryotes,but translation requires no intermediate molecules such as tRNAs in prokaryotes.
D)Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.
Q3) Which of the following processes is central to the initiation of transcription?
A)binding of sigma to the promoter region
B)formation of a phosphodiester bond in the elongating RNA strand
C)binding of DNA polymerase to the promoter region
D)formation of a DNA primer
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) E)coli and many other bacteria of the human gut need to have fine-tuned regulation of gene expression in order to
A)replicate their DNA.
B)metabolize any nutrient.
C)effectively compete for space and nutrients.
D)grow.
E)evolve.
Q2) Negative control occurs when
A)a regulatory protein binds to RNA and shuts down the process of transcription.
B)a regulatory protein binds to RNA polymerase and shuts down the process of transcription.
C)a regulatory protein binds to DNA polymerase and shuts down the process of transcription.
D)a regulatory protein binds to DNA and shuts down the process of transcription.
Q3) The trp repressor blocks transcription of the trp operon when the repressor
A)binds to inducer.
B)is not bound to inducer.
C)binds to tryptophan.
D)is not bound to tryptophan.
E)is not bound to the operator.
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) The primary difference between an enhancer and a promoter-proximal element is that
A)enhancers are transcription factors,while promoter-proximal elements are DNA sequences.
B)enhancers enhance transcription,while promoter-proximal elements inhibit transcription.
C)enhancers are part of the promoter,while promoter-proximal elements are regulatory sequences distinct from the promoter.
D)enhancers are at considerable distances from the promoter and can be moved or inverted and still function,while promoter-proximal elements are close to the promoter and their position and orientation must be maintained.
E)enhancers are DNA sequences,while promoter-proximal elements are proteins that bind proximal to the promoter.
Q2) Alternative splicing takes place in the A)nucleus.
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C)ribosome.
D)polysome.
E)cytoplasm.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) The general term for the manipulation of organisms to create products or cure disease is
A)recombinant DNA technology.
B)biotechnology.
C)gene cloning.
D)plasmid-mediated transformation.
Q2) When constructing a cDNA library from a particular organism,the choice of tissue is ________,whereas when constructing a genomic DNA library from the same organism,the choice of tissue is ________.
A)critical;critical
B)immaterial;immaterial
C)immaterial;critical
D)critical;immaterial
Q3) Plasmids are used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering.This means that plasmids allow for
A)carrying of DNA into a cell and DNA replication.
B)infection of cells.
C)DNA replication outside rather than inside cells.
D)carrying of RNA into a cell and RNA replication.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) If practical applications arise from this or similar metagenomic studies,what might these be?
A)New genes with useful properties may be identified and ultimately put to use.
B)New microbial species could be isolated from seawater.
C)An increased knowledge of the diversity of marine ecosystems could lead to increased appreciation of diversity in all ecosystems.
D)Species discovered in the Sargasso Sea may also be found to inhabit less-remote waters.
Q2) Sequencing eukaryotic genomes is more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea because of
A)the large size of eukaryotic genomes.
B)the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA.
C)the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA.
D)A and B only.
E)all of the above.
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22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) What was the experimental focus of the preliminary genetic screening performed by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus?
A)to evaluate the mutagenic properties of varied treatments
B)to discover the bicoid gene
C)to generate two-tailed fruit-fly embryos
D)to identify fruit flies with mutations in genes that control fruit-fly development
Q2) In combination,what do the products of gap genes,pair-rule genes,and segmentation polarity genes of fruit flies do?
A)They trigger the reorganization of the larval body into an adult body.
B)They define the segmented body plan of the embryo.
C)They set up the back-to-belly axis of the larval body.
D)They direct cell movements during differentiation.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a cell that is capable of dividing and developing into a limited number of cell types in a multicellular organism?
A)multipotent
B)pluripotent
C)totipotent
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) What happens during cleavage?
A)The neural tube-precursor of the spinal cord and brain-forms.
B)Basal and apical cells-precursors of the suspensor and embryo,respectively-form.
C)The fertilized egg divides without growth occurring,forming a ball of cells.
D)Massive movements of cells make the primary body axes visible and organize the three embryonic tissues.
Q2) Why would an increased level of calcium ions be observed in a newly fertilized sea urchin egg?
A)Calcium facilitates the binding of bindin to the bindin receptor.
B)Increased calcium allows the sperm and egg nuclei to join efficiently,resulting in the formation of a zygote nucleus.
C)Calcium promotes release of proteases from the egg,which digest the egg-cell receptor and prevent polyspermy.
D)Calcium promotes an influx of water that results in a fertilization envelope.
E)Answers C and D
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24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Auxin has an effect on plant embryos much like the Bicoid protein in Drosophila.If auxin were added to a culture of embryonic root cells,what is the likely result?
A)Root cells would elongate and mature.
B)Root cells would change into meristem cells.
C)Root cells would halt their development.
D)Root cells would not respond to auxin.
Q2) Many flowering plant species have elaborate mechanisms to prevent an individual's pollen from fertilizing its own egg cells.Why?
A)to prevent inbreeding
B)to prevent polyspermy
C)to prevent cross-species fertilization and the production of dysfunctional hybrid offspring
D)to prevent double fertilization and the formation of endosperm
Q3) Which of the following would be attributed to a lack of meristems?
A)MONOPTEROS would no longer be activated leading to underdeveloped hypocotyls.
B)The roots and shoots would only respond to certain environmental cues (i.e.a lack of water).
C)Further growth of the plant would not occur.
D) Cells would only differentiate into vascular and epidermal tissue.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) The figure above shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors in several Arizona populations found either on light-colored granite substrate or on dark volcanic rock (dark substrate).The Melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r)alleles,D and d,differ by four amino acids.Mice with DD and Dd genotypes have dark coats,whereas mice with the dd genotype are light colored.What sort of genotype frequencies might you expect to find in the Xmas,Mid,and O'Neill populations?
A)Xmas-high DD frequency;Mid-high Dd frequency,O'Neill-high dd frequency
B)Xmas-high Dd frequency;Mid-high DD frequency,O'Neill-high dd frequency
C)Xmas-high Dd frequency;Mid-high dd frequency,O'Neill-high DD frequency
D)Xmas-high dd frequency;Mid-high Dd frequency,O'Neill-high DD frequency
E)Xmas-high dd frequency;Mid-high DD frequency,O'Neill-high Dd frequency
Q2) Which of the following has the highest Darwinian fitness?
A)A personal trainer who works out at the gym every day
B)A scientist who devotes herself to science and wins the Nobel Prize
C)A sperm donor who anonymously fathers 52 children
D)A woman who home schools her two children
Q3) Evolution by natural selection changes the population but not the individual.
A)True
B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) In a population of parrots on an island,there is considerable variation in beak size.Parrots with small,thick beaks can efficiently eat locusts (insect),while birds with long,thin beaks can efficiently eat beetles.Both food types are available on the island.Which of the following types of selection,and effects on phenotypic variation would you expect to see?
A)Directional selection;phenotypic variation decreases.
B)Directional selection;phenotypic variation increases.
C)Disruptive selection;phenotypic variation decreases.
D)Disruptive selection;phenotypic variation is maintained.
E)Directional selection;phenotypic variation remains the same.
Q2) Humans have domesticated a number of plants and animals.In the domestication process,a few individuals of a species are "captured" to have a starting population and then these are bred for many generations.This is an example of a ________ and you would therefore predict that domesticated organisms would show ________.
A)founder effect;a lot of genetic variation
B)bottleneck effect;little genetic variation
C)bottleneck effect;many useful adaptations for surviving floods
D)gene flow;speciation
E)founder effect;little genetic variation
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) The two populations are
A)different subspecies,under the morphospecies concept.
B)different species,under the biological species concept.
C)different species,under the phylogenetic species concept.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following could be a vicariance event for species in that habitat?
A)The level of water in a lake recedes,creating two lakes where there used to be one.
B)Some insects get blown in a storm to a new mountain range,where they lay eggs.
C)Radiation near Chernobyl increases mutation rate,causing an increase in autopolypolidy.
D)All of the above could be vicariance events for species in that habitat.
Q3) Which of the following reproductive barriers would prevent a mating attempt?
A)behavioural isolation
B)mechanical isolation
C)hybrid sterility
D)gametic isolation
E)sexual selection
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Dicynodonts were pig-sized reptiles that lived during the Permian geologic period.An increase in dicynodont species diversity occurred soon after the Permian extinction.Given what you know of this period,this increase in dicynodont species diversity represents ________,most likely due to ________.
A)competitive exclusion;the fact that they needed new food sources
B)adaptive radiation;a morphological innovation among dicynodonts
C)adaptive radiation;the availability of previously unoccupied niches
D)competitive exclusion;intrasexual selection leading to anagenesis
Q2) To use a genetic sequence as a molecular clock,the changes in nucleotides in the sequence must have accumulated at a steady pace over time.Drawing on what you know about codons and redundancy in the genetic code,which type of change would most likely be the type that is useful for a molecular clock?
A)changes in the first nucleotide pair in the codon
B)changes in the second nucleotide pair in the codon
C)changes in the third nucleotide pair in the codon
D)All of these changes are equally useful for a molecular clock.
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Imagine that you are given some chemoorganotrophic bacteria to grow.What should you use as a source of energy for this type of bacteria?
A)light
B)methane
C)ammonia
D)sugar
E)any of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements best defines a psychrophile?
A)A micro-organism capable of living in extremely cold environments.
B)A micro-organism capable of living in environments with an extremely high salt concentration.
C)A micro-organism that lives in an environment with moderate temperatures.
D)A micro-organism capable of living in extremely hot environments.
Q3) What kind of molecules serve as electron acceptors in cellular respiration?
A)water
B)polar molecules
C)molecules with high potential energy
D)molecules with low potential energy
E)molecules in an excited state
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization)of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming.Why?
A)Photosynthetic protists give off a lot of carbon dioxide,and fertilizing them would increase carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
B)Photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide,decreasing carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
C)Photosynthetic protists use a lot of oxygen,and fertilizing them would decrease oxygen levels in the environment.
D)Photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen,and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere.
Q2) Cultures of the same species of diatom referred to in the previous question were treated with BDM,a reversible inhibitor of myosin function.Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility?
A)BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture.
B)BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture.
C)BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) According to the fossil record,plants colonized terrestrial habitats
A)in conjunction with insects that pollinated them.
B)in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil.
C)from marine habitats.
D)only about 150 million years ago.
Q2) How are the bryophytes and seedless vascular plants alike?
A)Plants in both groups have vascular tissue.
B)In both groups,sperm swim from antheridia to archegonia.
C)The dominant generation in both groups is the sporophyte.
D)Plants in both groups have true roots,stems,and leaves.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q3) Bioprospectors and ethnobotanists search for plants and plant products used for medicines by native cultures.The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to
A)attract pollinators for seed dispersal.
B)attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits.
C)defend the plant against herbivores and microbes.
D)All of these answers apply.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) This symbiotic association grows on rocks,where it begins the process of soil formation,and it is a major food source for caribou.
A)arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi
B)ectomycorrhizal fungi
C)endophytes
D)lichens
E)chytrids
Q2) Referring to Simard et al.(1997),what is the result that would most strongly refute their hypothesis?
A)No movement;carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.
B)Reciprocal exchange;carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.
C)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.
D)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.
Q3) Plant biomass (growth)in Figure 31.6 increases as fungal diversity increases.True or false?
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation,your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island.You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms and,as a student of biology,you decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase).You select three organisms and observe them in detail,making the notations found in Figure 32.1. Which organism would you classify as an animal?
A)organism A
B)organism B
C)organism C
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is least associated with a sessile lifestyle?
A)the ability to secrete a poisonous coating
B)the habit of feeding on mobile prey
C)fluid feeding
D)asexual reproduction
Q3) Which of the following species would you not classify as an animal?
A)sponges
B)horses
C)blue whales
D)choanoflagellates
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Whiteflies are common pest insects found on cotton,tomato,poinsettia,and many other plants.Nymphs are translucent and mostly sessile,feeding on their host plants' phloem (sap)from the undersides of leaves.They undergo incomplete metamorphosis into winged adults.Because whitefly nymphs cannot escape predation by moving,you hypothesize that their translucent bodies make them hard to spot by predators.How could you directly test this hypothesis?
A)Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs on plant leaves of different colors (e.g.,red vs.green poinsettia leaves).
B)Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs coated with a nontoxic dye vs.undyed whitefly nymphs.
C)Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs vs.whitefly adults.
D)Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs by predators that are translucent vs.predators that are not translucent.
E)Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs feeding on poisonous plants vs.those feeding on nonpoisonous plants.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) In what respect do humans differ from all other anthropoids?
A)lack of a tail
B)eyes on the front of the face
C)bipedal posture
D)opposable thumbs
E)diurnal activity
Q2) How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
A)It allowed for more modes of communication.
B)It allowed vertebrates to grow a bony skull.
C)It increased their mobility.
D)It allowed vertebrates to feed on a wider variety of food sources.
E)It provided for an appreciation of a wider variety of foods.
Q3) The evolution of the limb in chordates has generally led to
A)increased diversity of movement types,as animals evolve to fill different niches.
B)decreased diversity of movement types,as animals evolve toward a single most efficient way of moving.
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) You just discovered a new virus.This virus infects heart muscle,where it causes inflammation.This virus has a very high mutation rate.Which of the following is the best strategy for finding a treatment for this virus?
A)Develop a vaccine from living viruses.
B)Identify the receptor this virus uses and develop an antibody against that receptor.
C)Encourage infected individuals to engage in heart-strengthening exercise.
D)Develop a drug that blocks the host's ribosomes,which the virus uses to produce its proteins.
Q2) The European spruce sawflies pose a potential threat to spruce forests.Baculoviruses have proven to be highly effective biological control agents against these sawflies.Why would pest managers prefer to use a baculovirus rather than a predator feeding on the pest?
A)The baculovirus particles are harmless to vertebrates.
B)Each type of baculovirus only kills a small number of host species.
C)The virus cannot replicate outside of a host cell.
D)All of the above are reasons a baculovirus would be preferred over a predator.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Wood is an accumulation of
A)primary xylem.
B)secondary xylem.
C)vascular bundles.
D)primary phloem.
E)secondary phloem.
Q2) Which of these is not an example of a parenchyma cell?
A)stem cells that form a callus in the making of cuttings
B)cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants
C)support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems
D)edible cells in fruits and vegetables
E)tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes
Q3) What part of the root is responsible for water and nutrient absorption?
A)root cap
B)mucigel
C)zone of cellular division
D)zone of cellular elongation
E)zone of cellular maturation
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Water potential of plants during night is ________ compared to day water potential due to ________.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
Q2) Which of the following would not be expected to contribute to high rates of transpiration?
A)high atmospheric CO concentration
B)bright sunlight
C)warm air temperature
D)brisk wind
E)high soil moisture
Q3) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for symplastic movement of water?
A)porous cell walls
B)cytoskeleton
C)plasmodesmata
D)large central vacuole
E)semipermeable membranes of mitochondria
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Which elements are responsible for the greater part of plant wet weight?
A)carbon,nitrogen,oxygen
B)carbon,nitrogen,phosphorus
C)carbon,oxygen,hydrogen
D)oxygen,hydrogen,phosphorus
E)oxygen,hydrogen,nitrogen
Q2) What type of soil is most difficult for roots to penetrate?
A)gravel
B)humus
C)clay
D)sand
E)silt
Q3) For most plants,a higher amount of humus in the soil is
A)beneficial.
B)harmful.
C)neutral.
Q4) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the ground.Several hours after the change in position,where in the root cells (position A,B,or C in the figure above)would you find the amyloplasts?
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q2) In lettuce seeds,blue light initiates germination.If you measured hormone levels within the seed,which hormone would be produced upon exposure to blue light?
A)gibberellin
B)ethylene
C)abscisic acid
D)salicylic acid
E)all of the above
Q3) What do phototropin and ABA have in common?
A)They induce stomata closing.
B)They regulate opening and closing of water pores in the plasma membrane.
C)They regulate activity of H -ATPases.
D)They are localized in the plasma membrane.
E)All of the above apply.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) A gardener in Canada wants to surprise his mother on her birthday and make her favorite Shrubalthea bush flower in May instead of the end of June.The bush is growing in the greenhouse.Which of the following might make the Shrubalthea bush flower early?
A)fertilizing the bush
B)grafting leaves of a Shrubalthea that was exposed to long nights
C)grafting leaves of a Shrubalthea that was exposed to short nights
D)exposing flower buds of the Shrubalthea bush to long nights
E)exposing flower buds of the Shrubalthea bush to short nights
Q2) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12).What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?
A)The sperm has 6 chromosomes.
B)The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.
C)The zygote has 12 chromosomes.
D)The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Multicellular organisms are limited by size and,thus,ways to increase surface area of a structure are often advantageous.Which of the following pairs of words best describes ways to increase the surface area of a structure?
A)folding and branching
B)shortening and converging
C)flattening and converging
D)shortening and flattening
Q2) Which class of tissue has many different types and functions in humans dictated by the unique extracellular matrix surrounding that tissue?
A)connective
B)muscle
C)epithelial
D)nervous
E)none of the above
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43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) What is the function of the shark rectal gland?
A)It is involved in osmoregulation.
B)It is responsible for excretion of undigested residue.
C)It secretes a hypotonic solution.
D)It concentrates electrolytes necessary for homeostasis in a hypertonic environment.
Q2) Which of the following affects the osmolarity of a solution?
A)glucose concentration
B)water concentration
C)salt concentration
D)all of the above
Q3) Insects maintain water and electrolyte balance through which anatomical structures?
A)kidneys
B)Malpighian tubules
C)rectal gland
D)chloride cells
Q4) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are NOT heterotrophs?
A)suspension feeders
B)algae
C)endoparasites
D)insects
Q2) Fangs,like those found in wolves,are designed to
A)grind and chew.
B)tear flesh.
C)swallow the prey whole.
D)filter feed.
Q3) If you chew a salted cracker long enough,it begins to taste sweet.Why?
A)The taste buds for "salty" become fatigued and cease to fire.
B)Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.
C)The contents of the cracker become soluble in saliva.
D)Sugar that remained in the mouth from previous meals becomes soluble in saliva.
Q4) Refer to Figure 43.1.Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Blood is pumped at high pressures in arteries from the heart to ensure that all parts of the body receive adequate blood flow.Capillary beds,however,would hemorrhage under direct arterial pressures.How does the design of the circulation network contribute to reducing blood pressure to avoid this scenario?
A)Blood flow through the capillaries is essentially frictionless,and this reduces the amount of pressure on their walls.
B)The total cross-sectional diameter of the arterial circulation increases with progression from artery to arteriole to capillary,leading to a reduced blood pressure.
C)Fluid loss from the arteries is high enough that pressure drops off significantly by the time blood reaches the capillaries.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms play a role in regulating heart rate?
A)chemical messengers in the blood,such as epinephrine
B)nerves originating from the medulla (lower part of the brain)
C)pacemaker cells within the heart
D)all of the above (A to E)only A and C
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) If an action potential is triggered in a neuron,what must have happened?
A)resting potential was reached
B)threshold potential was reached
C)membrane potential was reached
Q2) Neurotransmitters can be either excitatory or inhibitory.Which of the following neurotransmitters usually have an inhibitory effect on the post-synaptic cell?
A)acetylcholine
B)gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)glutamate
D)dopamine
Q3) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to the action of the sodium-potassium pump and potassium leak channels?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Which type of receptor would you expect to be most abundant in the antennae of a moth?
A)thermoreceptors
B)mechanoreceptors
C)chemoreceptors
D)electroreceptors
E)nociceptors
Q2) You work in a lab and are given a slide with a stained specimen on it,but your colleague forgot to label the slide.You look at the specimen under the microscope and notice that the cells are branched,striated,and contain one or two nuclei.Based on these characteristics,what type of tissue would you hypothesize the specimen is?
A)muscle
B)nervous
C)connective
D)epithelial
Q3) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Tadpoles must undergo a major metamorphosis to become frogs.This change includes reabsorption of the tail,growth of limbs,calcification of the skeleton,increase in rhodopsin in the eye,development of lungs,change in hemoglobin structure,and reformation of the gut from the long gut of an herbivore to the short gut of a carnivore.Amazingly,all of these changes are induced by thyroxine.What is the most likely explanation for such a wide array of effects of thyroxine?
A)There are many different forms of thyroxine,each specific to a different tissue.
B)Different tissues have different types of receptors.
C)Some tissues have membrane receptors for thyroxine,while other tissues have thyroxine receptors within the nucleus.
D)Different releasing hormones release thyroxine to different tissues.
E)Answers B and C both apply.
Q2) What condition would exist in a patient whose thyroid gland cannot sequester iodine?
A)thyroid cancer
B)goiter
C)overstimulation of thyroid hormone
D)all of the above
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following is a challenge to the hypothesis that certain species of animals produce an unusually large number of sperm in order to increase the probability of conception when females engage in multiple matings?
A)Female bats can eject the sperm of certain males after mating.
B)A female can actively choose which male mates with her last,thus increasing the odds of conception with that male's sperm.
C)Answers A and B both challenge this hypothesis.
D)None of the above answers challenges this hypothesis.
Q2) Which one of the following criteria is not required to induce Daphnia to switch from asexual to sexual reproduction?
A)water from crowded populations of Daphnia
B)the absence of males in the population
C)short day lengths
D)low food supply
Q3) Following spermatogenesis,sperm are stored in the
A)prostate gland.
B)seminal vesicles.
C)epididymis.
D)van deferens.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) What would be the consequence(s)of a mutation that did not allow for selection against self-responding lymphocytes (those that respond against self)?
A)The immune system would fail and the individual would catch many illnesses.
B)This would likely be a fatal condition as the lymphocytes would attack all self cells.
C)The lymphocytes would be more likely to recognize antigens they had previously been exposed to.
Q2) A certain cell type has existed in the blood and tissue of its vertebrate host's immune system for over 20 years.One day,it recognizes a newly arrived antigen and binds to it,subsequently triggering a secondary immune response in the body.Which of the following cell types most accurately describes this cell?
A)B cell
B)T cell
C)memory cell
D)secondary cell
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) On Earth,the general trend is that with decreasing latitude and increased solar radiation,there is ________ produced by photosynthesis (by plants,etc).
A)an increase in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies
B)a decrease in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies
C)an increase in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food)
D)a decrease in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food)
Q2) A fish swimming into an estuary from a river would have which of the following as its greatest physiological challenge?
A)The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy.
B)The low oxygen content would give the fish difficulty in swimming aerobically.
C)The temperature change would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins.
D)The change in water solute content would challenge the osmotic balance of the fish.
Q3) What happens to animal and plant diversity as latitude decreases?
A)Animal and plant diversity increases.
B)Animal and plant diversity decreases.
C)Animal and plant diversity is not affected by latitudinal changes.
D)Animal and plant diversity increases in variation per unit area.
E)Animal and plant diversity decreases in variation per unit area.
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52
Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following has greatest coefficient of relatedness?
A)black bear siblings
B)human fraternal twins
C)worker honey bees
D)tiger siblings
Q2) Which one of the following examples best illustrates classical conditioning?
A)geese following the first thing they see upon hatching
B)cats running into the kitchen when they hear a food can being opened
C)birds hatching in isolation and singing their species-specific song
D)cats seeing a mouse and chasing it
Q3) In which quadrant of the figure above would bird migration be plotted?
A)quadrant A
B)quadrant B
C)quadrant C
D)quadrant D
Q4) In the figure above,do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles?
A)yes
B)no
C)cannot be determined
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) It is estimated that a flock of wood buffalo crane should be able to sustain an r of 0.085 for the foreseeable future.If the flock currently contains 350 individuals,how long will it take for that population to double?
A)8 years
B)13 years
C)15 years
D)21 years
Q2) Using information from the table above,which year was the most successful for the population?
A)year 0
B)year 1
C)year 5
D)The figure does not provide this information.
Q3) In the figure above,which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)none of the above
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) In the figure above,which community has the highest species richness?
A)community 1
B)community 2
C)community 3
D)community 4
Q2) In the hypothesis that C.stellatus (a species of barnacle)is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B.balanoides (another species of barnacle),what could be concluded about the two species?
A)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides and C.stellatus are both identical.
B)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides and C.stellatus are both different.
C)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides are different,but the fundamental and realized niches of C.stellatus are identical.
D)The fundamental and realized niches of B.balanoides are identical,but the fundamental and realized niches of C.stellatus are different.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
Q2) If plants in a northern temperate area use 26,400 kcal/m² of energy from solar radiation in photosynthesis,and the total amount of solar radiation energy reaching that area is 2,640,000 kcal/m²,what is the overall gross photosynthetic efficiency?
A)0)01%
B)0)1%
C)1%
D)100%
Q3) After looking at the experiment in the figure above,what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems?
A)Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity.
C)Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.
D)Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.
Q4) How much nitrogen is fixed from human processes?
A)It is equal to the amount fixed by natural means.
B)It is about half that fixed by natural means.
C)It is about double that fixed by natural means.
D)We cannot calculate this value.
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26886
Sample Questions
Q1) Ecosystems function better when biodiversity is high?
A)yes
B)no
C)mostly yes
D)mostly no
E)There are no data to indicate either way.
Q2) Researchers have been studying a rare population of 87 voles in an isolated area.Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated population.Besides having 10 additional animals,what benefits are there to importing individuals?
A)Additional animals from a distant population will likely bring genetic diversity and reduce inbreeding depression.
B)Additional animals will bring additional competition and could hurt the population.
C)Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift.
D)There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size.
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