Introduction to Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Introduction to Biology provides a foundational exploration of the principles governing living organisms and their environments. This course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will gain an understanding of biological molecules, metabolic processes, and the flow of energy within living systems. Emphasis is placed on scientific thinking, laboratory skills, and the significance of biology in societal and ethical contexts, preparing students for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Q1) Name three ways that science and technology enrich your life today.
Answer: After reading the chapter,students should be familiar with some of the benefits of science and technology and should be able to give many different examples.Examples could include the availability of modern medicines; electricity and electronics,such as television and telephones; modern transportation; refrigeration.
Q2) A tree in your backyard is home to robins,squirrels,beetles,and lichens.Together all these organisms compose a/an:
A)biosphere.
B)organism.
C)population.
D)community.
E)niche.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is an example of how living things assimilate energy?
A)blinking at a bright light
B)producing a new generation of offspring
C)eating a meal
D)solving a mathematics problem
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Q1) Which of the following would form the fewest covalent bonds?
A)neon (eight electrons in the second shell)
B)carbon (four electrons in the second shell)
C)hydrogen (one electron in the first shell)
D)oxygen (six electrons in the second shell)
Answer: A
Q2) You have a substance and begin a set of experiments in which you break it down into other substances through chemical reactions.After a few successive reactions,you discover a set of products that can't be broken down further,no matter what type of chemical reaction you attempt.These substances are:
A)protons.
B)elements.
C)neutrons.
D)electrons.
E)isotopes.
Answer: B
Q3) A signal molecule will ________ to a receptor if the molecules' shapes match,similar to a key in a lock.
Answer: bind
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Q1) Unique chemical groups that confer special properties to an organic molecule are called:
A)monomers.
B)amino acids.
C)functional groups.
D)lipids.
Answer: C
Q2) Why are proteins,polysaccharides,and nucleic acids considered polymers,but lipids are not?
Answer: A polymer is made up of many similar or identical subunits.Proteins,polysaccharides,and nucleic acids are made up of individual monomers linked together to form larger molecules.Lipids are not polymers because they are not composed of many similar structural units linked together to form a large molecule.
Q3) Chitin and cellulose are examples of:
A)structural polysaccharides.
B)storage polysaccharides.
C)monosaccharides.
D)disacchrides.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Q1) Insulin is a protein made in large amounts in cells of the pancreas.These cells secrete insulin into the blood,where it controls the uptake of sugar by body cells.How is insulin transported from the ER to the surface of the cell?
A)Insulin is sent through the cavities (lumen)of the endoplasmic reticulum that attach directly to the plasma membrane.
B)Insulin moves along tracks of cytoskeleton proteins.
C)Insulin moves through plasmodesmata to the surface of the cell.
D)Insulin is carried in small sacs of membrane (vesicles)that move from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus and then to the plasma membrane.
E)Insulin is carried by lysosomes that empty their contents outside the cell.
Q2) Harmful substances are detoxified within the cell by the ________.
Q3) The function of ribosomes is to synthesize:
A)RNA.
B)lipids.
C)DNA.
D)proteins.
E)polysaccharides.
Q4) Most of the volume of a mature plant cell is taken up by the ________.
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Q1) Osmosis is an example of passive transport.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ functions in cell lubrication,adhesion,and signaling.
Q3) A component of the plasma membrane that helps to maintain its fluidity is:
A)protein.
B)carbohydrate.
C)nucleic acid.
D)the phospholipid bilayer.
E)cholesterol.
Q4) Facilitated diffusion occurs down a concentration gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cholesterol helps to maintain the correct fluidity of the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The hydrophilic heads of phospholipids in the plasma membrane face a water-based environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Q1) The study of the thermodynamics of biology is known as ________.
Q2) A ripped piece of paper will never spontaneously repair itself.Explain the law of thermodynamics that explains why this is so.
Q3) You have been asked to explain to a high school class the first law of thermodynamics and how this law affects the students' lives.Using your own words,describe the first law of thermodynamics,and give an example (other than the examples described in the chapter).
Q4) You work hard to pedal your bicycle up a steep hill.You rest when you get to the top,then you let your bicycle roll quickly down the other side of the hill.You converted ________ energy into ________ energy,then you converted it back into ________ energy.
A)potential; kinetic; potential
B)kinetic; potential; kinetic
C)heat; kinetic; heat
D)heat; potential; heat
Q5) Would ATP be the energy currency of the cell if the phosphate groups the cell contains were not charged? Why or why not?
Q6) Molecules that facilitate the work of enzymes by binding with them are ________.
Q7) A reaction that requires the input of energy to move forward is ________.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Q1) Organisms exist that can survive using only glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What does oxygen allow humans to do?
A)breathe
B)produce food
C)digest food
D)produce ATP from food
Q3) Eukaryotic cells require oxygen to:
A)enter the Krebs cycle as an intermediate.
B)perform fermentation.
C)breathe.
D)serve as an electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.
E)start glycolysis.
Q4) The enzymes used by the Krebs cycle are located:
A)in the cytosol.
B)in the inner compartment of the mitochondrion.
C)attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D)between the inner membrane and outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q5) ________ is the first product of the Krebs cycle.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) During the light reactions of photosynthesis,which of these does not occur?
A)Water is used to regenerate the electrons in the chlorophyll that were excited by sunlight.
B)Sunlight excites electrons in chlorophyll, which are transferred directly to ATP.
C)Sunlight excites electrons in chlorophyll, allowing an electron acceptor up the energy hill to accept them.
D)Sunlight excites electrons in chlorophyll, which eventually wind up on NADPH.
Q2) Carbon fixation is taking place when plants:
A)oxidize CO .
B)incorporate CO into sugars.
C)ingest CO .
D)produce CO .
E)convert CO into ATP.
Q3) If something is oxidized,it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only plants can carry out photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell
Division
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Q1) Which statement is true of mitosis and cytokinesis in normal tissues?
A)Cytokinesis partially overlaps with mitosis.
B)Cytokinesis occurs simultaneously with mitosis.
C)Mitosis precedes cytokinesis.
D)Cytokinesis precedes mitosis.
Q2) Human skin cells and human white blood cells of the immune system both perform protective functions.Skin cells function primarily in external physical protection,whereas white blood cells function primarily in internal protection.Nonetheless,both types of cells contain a complete copy of the human genome.Explain how cells can have the same genetic information and yet perform different functions.What prevents skin cells from making all the same proteins of a white blood cell?
Q3) Chromosomes are aligned at the equator of a cell during:
A)prophase.
B)metaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
Q4) During which phase of mitosis are the chromosomes aligned along the equator of the cell? Predict what would happen if a cell completed mitosis without first lining up all the chromosomes in the middle of the cell.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) What factors produce genetic diversity in bacteria?
A)crossing over
B)mitosis
C)crossing over and independent assortment
D)mutation and gene transfer
Q2) If an egg is fertilized by a sperm carrying an X chromosome,the resulting child might be either a boy or a girl,depending on the sex chromosome carried by the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the result of independent assortment during meiosis?
A)The cells that result have either all maternal or all paternal chromosomes.
B)Parts of homologous chromosomes are exchanged.
C)Both copies of a sister chromatid pair end up in the same gamete.
D)The cells that result are genetically identical to each other.
E)Genetically diverse gametes are produced.
Q4) In meiosis,X and Y chromosomes will pair as homologous chromosomes,but they will recombine only in a few limited regions,at the ends.Explain why recombination is limited in this situation.
Q5) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) In a dihybrid cross,if heterozygotes are crossed,what fraction of the offspring is expected to have both the dominant phenotypes?
A)1/16
B)1/3
C)2/3
D)3/16
E)9/16
Q2) Mendel wanted to make sure his starting plants bred true,meaning the: A)seeds would always sprout.
B)peas would always be green.
C)phenotypes of the offspring in each generation could not be predictable. D)phenotypes of the offspring in each generation were always the same as the parent. E)phenotypes of the offspring in each generation would sometimes look like the male parent and sometimes look like the female parent.
Q3) If a plant heterozygous for the genes for both seed color and shape is self-fertilized,the ratio of offspring with smooth,green seeds is ________/16.(Yellow and smooth are the dominant phenotypes.)
Q4) What is the difference between a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross?
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Q1) If a disease is caused by a dominant allele,it means that a person with the disease:
A)will always pass it on to all their children.
B)will pass it on to one-fourth of their children.
C)must be homozygous dominant for the allele.
D)must be heterozygous for the allele.
E)could be either homozygous or heterozygous for the allele.
Q2) Color blindness is caused by an X-linked recessive gene.A color-blind man and a woman with normal vision whose father was color blind have a son.The probability that their son is color blind is:
A)0)25 (or 25 percent).
B)0)50 (or 50 percent).
C)0)75 (or 75 percent).
D)1)00 (or 100 percent).
E)none of these.
Q3) If one of your parents has Huntington disease and is heterozygous for the disorder,you have a 50 percent chance of inheriting the disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Q1) How are X rays used in the technique of X-ray diffraction?
A)The scattering of X rays by a purified form of a molecule reveals its structure.
B)DNA strands are separated by X-ray energy, revealing the order of bases.
C)Cells are broken open to release chromosomes by being bombarded with X rays.
D)The X rays are used to mutate DNA to determine the location of genes.
E)Enzymes are destroyed by X rays, revealing the order of steps in metabolism.
Q2) What is the complementary sequence for a segment of DNA with the sequence ACGGCT?
A)TCGGCA
B)AGCCGT
C)TGCCGA
D)ACGGCT
E)GTAATC
Q3) The nucleotides in one strand of DNA are held together by:
A)bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the base of the next.
B)hydrogen bonds between phosphates.
C)bonds between the phosphate of one nucleotide and the base of the next.
D)hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
E)links between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of the next.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation, and Regulation
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Q1) Mutations in regulatory DNA sequences may be more important to evolution than mutations in genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the products of translation?
A)polypeptide chains/proteins
B)DNA
C)nucleotides
D)ribosomes
E)RNA
Q3) What is a codon?
A)three genes in a bacterium that are all regulated together
B)a segment of a chromosome that encodes an RNA
C)three amino acids in a row in a protein
D)a three-base sequence of mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid
E)a sequence in DNA that is the binding site for RNA polymerase
Q4) What are the basic differences between DNA and RNA molecules?
Q5) How does the protein synthesis occur?
Page 16
Q6) What are the different types of RNA that are found in a cell,and what are their functions?
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) Genetically modified crops have been produced mainly to benefit:
A)consumers.
B)farmers.
C)the scientific community.
D)the United State's ability to export agricultural products.
Q2) "Golden rice" is a transgenic form of rice because it:
A)produces omega-3 fatty acids.
B)contains genes from a bacterium and a daffodil.
C)produces insulin.
D)produces cancer-fighting drugs.
Q3) What is used to cut DNA in generating recombinant DNA?
A)bacteriophage
B)plasmids
C)primers
D)restriction enzymes
Q4) Restriction enzymes occur naturally in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) Through the process of ________,a cell will incorporate genetic material from outside itself.
Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Male guppies that have colorful spots on them are chosen more often by female guppies for mating.Males can have from one to six spots.The more spots they have the more females are attracted to them.However,bright spots also make the males more vulnerable to predators.In a pond with predators,male guppies have an average of 3.2 spots.Predict what would happen to the average spot number on the males over the generations if you removed all predators from the pond.Using natural selection,explain your answer.
Q2) In science,theories are well established and thus are not "theoretical" in the everyday usage of the word.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about ________.
Q4) The forelimb of the common ancestor of whales,cats,bats,and gorillas would have had how many digits?
A)one
B)three
C)five
D)The number of digits cannot be determined from the information given.
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Q5) The use of radioactive elements to date geological specimens is called ________.
Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) Cheetahs are not a healthy species.Several million years ago they were widespread in Africa and Asia,but their numbers fell drastically during the last ice age and again when they were hunted to near extinction in the nineteenth century.Now,they suffer from low survivorship (a large number of animals dying),poor sperm quality,and greater susceptibility to disease.Normally,an animal will reject tissue transplanted from another animal,but cheetahs will not reject tissue grafted on to them from another cheetah.What happened to the cheetah? How did their genetic variation change? Where does genetic variation ultimately come from? What mechanism can maintain and increase genetic variation in natural populations?
Q2) If within a large population no mutations occur,no migration occurs,all mating is random,and each individual has an equal chance of reproducing,which of the following will probably happen?
A)No evolution will occur.
B)A bottleneck will occur.
C)A change in allele frequency will lead to rapid evolution.
D)Extinction will occur.
Q3) The smallest unit that can participate in evolution is a ________.
Q4) ________ characters are continuously variable.
Q5) The original source of variation within a population comes from ________.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Where would a researcher most likely find examples of allopatric speciation?
A)in the surface waters of Lake Michigan
B)in a forest on the west side of Lake Michigan
C)in a forest on the east side of Lake Michigan
D)in forests on the east and west sides of Lake Michigan
Q2) A population becomes isolated from other populations of the same species,and then genetic divergence occurs that prevents them from breeding with other populations.What has happened?
A)speciation
B)formation of genetic drifts
C)directional selection
D)mechanical incompatibility
Q3) Two different species of pines release their pollen at different times.This is an example of:
A)behavioral isolation.
B)geographic isolation.
C)mechanical isolation.
D)temporal isolation.
Q4) Describe the difference between homologous and analogous structures in organisms,and give an example of each.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Organisms from which kingdom or domain were the first photosynthesizers?
A)Protista
B)Plantae
C)Bacteria
D)Archaea
Q2) The first land vertebrates were the ________.
Q3) The earliest evidence of life on Earth dates to about 3.8 billion years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amniotic egg was important in the colonization of the land because it:
A)was deposited in water.
B)could hold multiple embryos.
C)had a hard shell and membranes to prevent drying out.
D)was easy to produce.
Q5) An important characteristic common to most primates is:
A)large, front-facing eyes.
B)short or absent tails.
C)grassland habitats.
D)the use of tools.
Q6) The first single-celled organisms appeared around 3.5 ________ years ago.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) Which Homo species from 1-2 million years ago is connected as an ancestor of Homo sapiens according to the hominin family tree?
A)Homo ergaster
B)Homo habilis
C)Homo erectus
D)Homo neanderthalensis
Q2) The genus Kenyanthropus appears to be the immediate ancestor of the genus Homo.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The closest living primate relative to humans is the gorilla.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following species of hominin is the most recent to have become extinct?
A)Homo neanderthalensis
B)Homo habilis
C)Homo erectus
D)Homo ergaster
Q5) The ability for a hominin to walk upright is referred to as ________.
Q6) The first wave of modern human migration out of Africa began about ________. Page 23
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Q1) Paramecium is a heterotrophic protist that moves using cilia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "1" corresponds to the:
A)receptor.
B)capsid.
C)RNA.
D)envelope.
Q3) Cells such as those of golden algae that form stable associations but do not take on specialized roles are described as:
A)incomplete unicellular.
B)selective multicellularity.
C)true multicellularity.
D)colonial multicellularity.
Q4) When bacteria undergo binary fission,they produce identical daughter cells. A)True
B)False
Q5) Bacteria are considered to be a type of protist. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) In which group are smuts and rusts found?
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)chytrids
Q2) The fungal group with the largest number of known species is:
A)zygomycetes.
B)ascomycetes.
C)basidiomycetes.
D)chytrids.
Q3) Nearly all fungi reproduce using mushrooms as their reproductive structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ecologically speaking,most soil fungi are to plant roots as:
A)viruses are to animals.
B)smut fungi are to corn.
C)mosquitoes are to mammals.
D)intestinal bacteria are to humans.
Q5) Fungi and plants have a long-term relationship in the history of life on Earth.Appraise the evidence in support of this concept.
Page 26
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Bilateral symmetry refers to distribution of body parts:
A)randomly in pairs from top to bottom.
B)around a central axis.
C)similarly on right and left sides.
D)in pie-slice sections.
E)in no particular order.
Q2) Leeches are in the phylum: A)Nematoda.
B)Mollusca.
C)Annelida.
D)Cnidaria.
E)Platyhelminthes.
Q3) The phylum of animals that does not show true tissues or symmetry is: A)Nematoda.
B)Annelida.
C)Platyhelminthes.
D)Cnidaria.
E)Porifera.
Q4) The features common to all chordates are: ________,________,________,and
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) The hormone IAA helps plants to respond to and grow toward a light source by:
A)slowing growth under low light conditions.
B)increasing mitosis on the side of the shoot facing light.
C)elongating cells on the opposite side of the shoot facing light.
D)triggering release of growth factors at the tip of the stem.
Q2) Endosperm is the nutritional tissue found within a seed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A major difference between gymnosperm and angiosperm seeds is that:
A)gymnosperm seeds are haploid.
B)angiosperm seeds are haploid.
C)gymnosperm seeds are larger.
D)angiosperm seeds are larger.
E)gymnosperm seeds are not surrounded by fruit.
Q4) Trees that intentionally lose their leaves according to coordinated,seasonal schedules are:
A)deciduous.
B)gametophytes.
C)sporophytes.
D)thigmotropic.
Page 28
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) Vascular bundles are found in monocot stems but not in dicot stems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The two basic divisions of the "body" of an angiosperm plant are ________ and ________.
Q3) You find a leaf that has large stomata and a thick,waxy covering.What is clear about the original plant?
A)The plant minimizes sunlight uptake.
B)The plant maximizes nutrient uptake.
C)The plant minimizes nutrient uptake.
D)The plant minimizes water loss.
Q4) Companion cells play a role in keeping xylem cells alive. A)True B)False
Q5) Flower parts arranged in multiples of four or five is characteristic of: A)monocots. B)dicots.
C)both monocots and dicots.
D)non-flowering seed plants.
Page 29
Q6) ________ provides the force that moves water up xylem.
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Chapter
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Subcutaneous fat tissue in humans is located mainly in the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Smooth muscle may be moved by either voluntary or involuntary control depending on location in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscle tissue has a specialized ability to:
A)protect the body.
B)support the body.
C)shorten or contract.
D)provide an internal framework for the body.
E)form the glands.
Q4) In oxygen homeostasis,the kidney that releases EPO,prompting increased red blood cell production is the:
A)stimulus.
B)response.
C)product.
D)reactant.
Q5) Bone and cartilage are examples of ________ tissues.
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a neuron is resting,it has a higher concentration of Na ions inside the cell membrane than outside.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The autonomic nervous system is a part of the:
A)central nervous system.
B)somatic nervous system.
C)peripheral nervous system.
D)appendicular nervous system.
Q3) The missing label indicated by a "2" corresponds to the:
A)malleus.
B)oval window.
C)cochlea.
D)tympanic membrane.
Q4) Routine activities and energy conservation are controlled by the:
A)peripheral nervous system.
B)parasympathetic division.
C)sympathetic division.
D)thalamus.
Q5) Why are sensory receptors often called transducers?
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A)glucagon
B)T4 from the thyroid
C)adrenaline
D)melatonin
E)estrogen
Q2) Which hormone causes glucose to be produced from the breakdown of protein and fat?
A)insulin
B)glucagon
C)cortisol
D)growth hormone
E)oxytocin
Q3) "Releasing hormones" and "inhibiting hormones" produced by the hypothalamus target the:
A)posterior pituitary.
B)anterior pituitary.
C)adrenal glands.
D)ovaries and testes.
E)digestive organs.
Page 33
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) CD4 and CD8 T cells are likely to become active when they:
A)interact with B-cells.
B)travel through the spleen.
C)travel through lymph nodes.
D)are attracted by the inflammatory response.
E)dock with a dendritic cell with a matching antigen.
Q2) Cells that help initiate the adaptive immune response by placing microbial antigens on their surfaces are generally referred to as:
A)helper T cells.
B)antigen-presenting cells.
C)B cells.
D)mast cells.
E)regulatory T cells.
Q3) Even though they are different species,cowpox exposure can render immunity to smallpox.Compare the connections between this fact and the causes of autoimmune disorders.
Q4) The inflammatory response is caused by the chemical ________.
Q5) Lymph "glands" (nodes)swelling is a sign that an infection is present.
A)True
B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arteries always carry blood that is oxygen rich.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Erythrocyte is another term for:
A)plasma protein.
B)white blood cell.
C)platelet.
D)red blood cell.
Q3) People with high blood pressure often take medication to lower blood pressure.Some of these medications might do this by:
A)increasing the blood volume.
B)relaxing the smooth muscles in the arteries.
C)opening the valves in the veins.
D)increasing the number of platelets in the blood.
Q4) Which blood component is made of fragments of cells rather than a complete cell?
A)red blood cells
B)platelets
C)white blood cells
D)plasma
Q5) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element involved in gas exchange?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the absorption of digested food takes place in the: A)stomach.
B)esophagus.
C)large intestine.
D)small intestine.
Q2) A classmate tells you that his mother had her gallbladder removed,and he says she wants to cut down on fat in her diet.He comments that he's not sure why because lipase is the enzyme that breaks down fats,and bile stored in the gallbladder isn't an enzyme.Although his last statement is factually true,how would you help your classmate understand this connection?
Q3) Which organ,A,B,or C,produces digestive enzymes and chemical buffers?
Q4) The urethra is different lengths in men and women.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The appendix is attached to which portion of the large intestine?
A)the cecum
B)the colon
C)the rectum
D)the ileocecal valve
Page 36
Q6) Complex carbohydrates that are digestible are known as ________.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) The end of a zygote that contains less yolk is the animal pole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is true regarding somites in an embryo?
A)Somites will become vertebrae.
B)Somites are found inside the notochord.
C)Somites will form the skull.
D)Somites will form the lungs.
Q3) Cells first arrange themselves into layers during organogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Of the choices listed,the first event that occurs during embryonic development is:
A)germ layer formation.
B)blastula formation.
C)organogenesis.
D)cleavage.
Q5) The blastocoel is the hollow cavity in the morula.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through what structure does an oocyte travel on its way to the uterus?
A)uterine tube
B)cervix
C)vagina
D)ovary
Q2) As sperm are made,they travel through the vas deferens and are stored in the seminal vesicles until ejaculation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is it useful for accessory glands to produce alkaline substances to accompany sperm?
A)Alkaline substances neutralize the acidic environment of the vagina.
B)Alkaline substances produce a pH optimum for nutrient absorption.
C)Alkaline substances are mainly fats used for energy.
D)Alkaline substances function as enzymes needed for swimming.
Q4) What is the long tube through which mature sperm are transported to the urethra during ejaculation?
Q5) Corpus luteum translates as "yellow body."
A)True
B)False
Page 39
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Life is a lottery and it makes sense simply to buy many tickets" is a strategy for organisms that exhibit:
A)K-selected growth.
B)sigmoidal growth.
C)density dependent growth.
D)density independent growth.
Q2) Environmental pressures on a population,such as temperature and pH,are density ________ factors.
Q3) The intrinsic rate of growth of a population is calculated by adding the death rate and the birth rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.
Q5) Most insects would be typical of which survivorship curve category?
A)early-loss species
B)constant-loss species
C)late-loss species
D)late-gain species
E)early-gain species
Page 40
Q6) Why are K-selected species also known as equilibrium species?
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Throughout the story of the evolution of parasites,we frequently see a shift from parasites that seriously harmed their hosts,to those who evolve benign,nearly commensal relationships with their hosts.Evaluate why parasites are more likely to evolve "live and let live" relationships while predators do not.
Q2) Batesian mimicry involves several harmful species evolving the same kind of characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The number of prey species is one of several factors determining the number of predators that can live in an area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A flea is considered to be a predator on a dog.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A community is a more inclusive category than a population.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following trophic levels could include carnivores?
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
E)either the third or fourth
Q2) Tundra is characterized by:
A)low rainfall, deep water penetration, and trees with a vibrant understory of moss.
B)high rainfall, slowly growing trees, and low temperatures.
C)low rainfall, coniferous trees, and permafrost.
D)low rainfall, dry soils, and permafrost.
E)low rainfall, seasonally wet soils, and permafrost.
Q3) Hot weather is common to all deserts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An animal that exclusively eats grasses would be both a primary consumer and an herbivore.
A)True
B)False
43
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