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Interpersonal Communication for Business explores the essential skills and strategies necessary for effective communication in professional environments. The course covers foundational theories and practical techniques for verbal and nonverbal communication, active listening, feedback, conflict resolution, and relationship building within teams and organizations. Through case studies, simulations, and collaborative activities, students develop the ability to communicate persuasively and empathetically, navigate workplace dynamics, and enhance their overall professional interactions to support individual and organizational goals.
Recommended Textbook
Business Communication Today 11th Global Edition by Courtland Bovee
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Q1) Despite increased market globalization, the nature of business communication has not changed much in recent years.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Downward communication flows from employees to executives, providing accurate, timely reports on problems, trends, opportunities, grievances, and performance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What does it mean for an audience to "decode" a message?
Answer: The audience decodes a message by extracting the ideas from it. Decoding is the sixth step in the communication process.
Q4) The rumor mill tends to be most active when employees receive too much information about their company.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) In part, poor listening occurs because listeners
A) can think faster than speakers can speak.
B) are unable to think originally.
C) concentrate on each word the speaker says, rather than the overall point.
D) do all of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) Nonverbal communication includes facial expressions and hand gestures, but not the clothes people wear, the way they sit, or the way they walk.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Most audiences are unable to process information as quickly as a speaker talks, so they get behind in comprehending what the speaker is saying.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Some group members have ________ ________ made up of private motives that affect the group's interaction.
Answer: hidden agendas
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Q1) In low-context cultures, businesspeople tend to focus on the results of the decisions they face.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In general, business correspondence in other countries is often ________ the style used by U.S. businesspeople.
A) more humorous than
B) more formal than
C) less formal than
D) none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following sentences contains an idiomatic expression?
A) Our monthly sales quota is unrealistic.
B) We don't expect to meet our monthly sales quota.
C) The sales quota is very reasonable.
D) Making our monthly sales quota will be a piece of cake.
Answer: D
Q4) ________ is a fear of strangers and foreigners.
Answer: Xenophobia
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Q1) Briefly explain the difference between the topic of a message and the main idea.
Q2) Briefly define media richness, and provide at least one example each of a rich medium and a lean medium.
Q3) In high-context cultures, ________ media are often more effective than ________ ones.
A) leaner, richer
B) foreign, domestic
C) oral, written
D) none of the above
Q4) As long as your message is clear and interesting, the medium you choose doesn't really matter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If you expect your audience to be receptive to your message, the indirect approach will be most effective.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A good way to test the thoroughness of your message is to use the ________ approach and ask whether the message answers who, what, when, where, why, and how.
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Q1) When delivering negative news, it is misleading to emphasize any positive aspects of the situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Abstract words are direct and can be easily visualized.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plain language is a style of writing used primarily for communicating to those who do not have a college degree.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A compound sentence is one that contains one main thought (independent clause) and one or more subordinate thoughts (dependent clauses).
A)True
B)False
Q5) A properly constructed paragraph should deal with more than one topic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) ________ is a cluster of sentences related to the same general topic.
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Q1) When it comes to paragraph length
A) use one-sentence paragraphs only occasionally, for emphasis.
B) use long paragraphs if you want your document to look more inviting.
C) keep all paragraphs to fewer than 60 words.
D) use long paragraphs with detailed information for direct-mail letters.
Q2) "Environmental impact consultant study results" is an example of A) a dangling modifier.
B) a dependent clause.
C) a long noun sequence.
D) redundancy.
Q3) A(n) ________ document can contain any combination of text, graphics, photographs, audio, animation, video, and interactivity.
Q4) A spell checker
A) highlights words it doesn't recognize.
B) has eliminated the need for proofreading.
C) suggests synonyms.
D) cannot automatically correct misspelled words as you type.
Q5) ________ ________ provides visual contrast for your readers and gives them a resting point.
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Q6) An electronic ________ gives you alternative words and helps you find synonyms.
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Q1) SMS is another term for text messaging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One important element of basic email etiquette is to
A) use bullets and lists.
B) respect the chain of command.
C) include headings on all emails.
D) capture your readers' attention.
Q3) Explain how inappropriate use of email at work can lead to legal problems.
Q4) Without a steady stream of new information, a blog is unlikely to be successful.
A)True
B)False
Q5) "Viral marketing" is
A) the spread of enthusiasm for a product in much the same way that biological viruses are spread from person to person.
B) advertising products and services related to the health-care industry.
C) the unethical practice of marketing products through computer viruses.
D) none of the above.
Q6) A(n) ________ is the online equivalent of recorded radio or video broadcasts.
Q7) In an email message, "cc" refers to ________ ________.
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Q1) In a positive message, the main idea is presented
A) in the last sentence of the letter.
B) in the first sentence of the middle paragraph.
C) right at the beginning of the letter.
D) at the end of the middle paragraph.
Q2) If you request a recommendation from a person you haven't had contact with recently, you should
A) use the bad-news approach.
B) use the persuasive approach.
C) use the opening of your letter to refresh the person's memory.
D) enclose a stamped, preaddressed envelope.
Q3) Dissatisfied customers can request a(n) ________, or claim settlement.
Q4) When closing a direct request, you should be sure to include
A) an indication of the consequences of a failure to reply.
B) a mention of your own qualifications or status.
C) the time limits involved in your request.
D) an apology for taking up the reader's time.
Q5) A(n) ________ ________ is a specialized document used to share relevant information with the local or national news media.
Q6) List at least three guidelines to follow when writing condolence messages.
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Q1) In a negative message organized using the indirect approach, the reasons that justify the negative decision
A) should be long and roundabout to cushion the negative aspects.
B) come directly after the buffer and follow naturally from it.
C) are so obvious that you don't need to mention them.
D) should be glossed over quickly.
Q2) When delivering bad news, wording such as "We must turn down," "I am unable to," and "We cannot afford to"
A) is unavoidable.
B) is likely to cause pain and anger in the reader.
C) softens the blow by drawing attention away from the reader and onto the sender.
D) will impress the reader as being straightforward and forceful.
Q3) The direct approach is always best when denying a request for information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One way to avoid being accused of defamation is to stick to the facts when communicating with customers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Demographic information includes people's psychological characteristics, such as personality, attitudes, and lifestyle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Regardless of the audience's specific needs, if your product is good and your message is clear, you will likely persuade them to make a purchase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One way to overcome audience resistance to your message is to
A) emphasize the positive.
B) use the hard-sell approach.
C) address all possible concerns that your audience has.
D) do all of the above.
Q4) What does AIDA stand for?
Q5) The primary purpose of the desire section of a persuasive message is to get the audience to keep reading (or listening) to your message.
A)True B)False
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Q1) When conducting a database search, you use wildcards to
A) provide variations on your key terms.
B) find similar spellings of your search terms.
C) help you find plurals and alternative spellings of your key words.
D) do all of the above.
Q2) Some of the most useful and up-to-date resources available at libraries are online databases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are some criteria you can use in evaluating the credibility of an information source?
Q4) According to the fair use doctrine
A) plagiarism is not an issue in the business world-it is a problem only in schools and academic circles.
B) once material is made public, it no longer belongs to the author.
C) you can use other people's work only if you don't prevent them from benefiting as a result.
D) crediting sources is all that is necessary to avoid legal problems.
Q5) Briefly describe five general procedures that can increase the productivity of your research.
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Q1) Bar charts can be used to compare more than one set of data.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When designing visuals, you should keep in mind that elements such as shapes and colors have meanings, which can vary among cultures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Visual literacy" describes the abilities to create effective images and correctly interpret visual messages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alternating rows of a table with contrasting colors serves no design purpose and qualifies as chartjunk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In designing visuals for business reports, what tasks are best suited for bar charts? List at least two.
Q6) A(n) ________ is a poor choice for noticing mathematical trends.
Q7) A(n) ________ title on a graphic simply identifies the topic.
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Q1) Managers use feasibility reports to examine the ramifications of a decision they are about to make.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Analytical reports for skeptical audiences should generally follow the ________ approach.
A) indirect
B) hypothetical
C) aggressive
D) direct
Q3) Compliance reports are generally required by
A) accounting departments.
B) marketing departments.
C) government agencies.
D) parent companies.
Q4) List three types of reports commonly used to monitor and control operations in business.
Q5) Describe three strategies for effectively organizing a website.
Q6) The statement of ________ defines why you are preparing a report.
Q7) Briefly explain problem factoring.
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Q1) If your proposal involves providing replacement machine parts that your company regularly stocks, it is not necessary in the Work Plan section to describe how you'll accomplish what must be done.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Report templates often identify the specific format recommended for headings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Whereas a(n) ________ file in a report requires readers to be online so the file can be updated, a(n) ________ file does not.
A) embedded; linked
B) Microsoft Word; pdf
C) linked; embedded
D) pdf; Microsoft Word
Q4) In the close of a proposal to install energy-saving light fixtures at a local hospital, it is not necessary to emphasize client benefits if you think they are obvious.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The letter of transmittal
A) may follow the direct or indirect plan.
B) is usually included as an appendix.
C) should be written in an informal, chummy tone.
D) has a more formal style than the report itself.
Q2) In reports that are intended to lead to action, the recommendations section may be fairly extensive because it spells out exactly what should happen next.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Covers for business reports are typically blank sheets of card stock that serve to protect the contents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The list of secondary sources at the end of a report is labeled "Works Cited" when it contains
A) all the secondary sources consulted in preparing the report.
B) only those secondary works that were mentioned in the report.
C) anonymous sources.
D) more than ten entries.
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Q1) Of the total time you spend writing your oral presentation, you should devote only a minimal amount to writing your introduction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When making a presentation to an unfamiliar audience, you need to establish ________ quickly by listing your qualifications.
Q3) You should never ask to see the location for your presentation in advance, since doing so shows a lack of confidence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When you prepare a speech or presentation, your first step involves A) planning the content, length, and style of your speech or presentation. B) choosing the right words. C) analyzing the situation. D) doing all of the above.
Q5) The purpose of most business presentations is to inform or ________.
Q6) Briefly explain how nervousness can actually improve the quality of your presentation.
Q7) List two goals to achieve in the body of a business presentation.
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Q1) ________ slides tell your audience where you've been and where you're going in your presentation.
Q2) Thanks to software such as Microsoft PowerPoint, preparing presentation visuals now requires almost no planning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be an appropriate handout to accompany an oral presentation?
A) A photo of you, with a caption listing all of your qualifications
B) A list of relevant websites
C) An interesting but unrelated news article
D) Any of the above
Q4) In an upcoming presentation, you plan to cover three important changes to your employees' working hours. The proper place to list this plan would be the ________ slide.
A) teaser
B) introduction
C) agenda
D) cover
Q5) What is a title slide?

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Q1) Because the competition for most jobs is so great, even a seemingly minor mistake on a résumé can eliminate your chances of success.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For college students, attempting to develop a job-search strategy before the senior year is a waste of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n) ________ résumé is organized around a list of skills and areas of competence.
Q4) If you plan to include a career objective or summary of qualifications in your résumé, you should make it as vague as possible to keep from limiting your prospects. A)True
B)False
Q5) The best approach to résumé writing is to create a single, solid version and send it to all prospective employers.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Within two days after an employment interview, you should
A) write a follow-up letter (using the format for persuasive messages) and include another copy of your résumé.
B) have a friend call to see whether you got the job.
C) send the interviewer a short note of thanks.
D) assume that you didn't get the job if you haven't heard anything.
Q2) Because application letters are ________ messages, the AIDA approach is ideally suited for them.
A) negative
B) persuasive
C) routine
D) positive
Q3) In the middle section of a job application letter, you should
A) give your entire work history, in case the employer doesn't read your résumé.
B) present your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization.
C) mention any ways in which you do not meet the job qualifications but point out that you are willing to learn.
D) do all of the above.
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Q1) If you are writing a business letter to someone you know well, it is acceptable to use his or her first name in the salutation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In formal business reports, every page should have a page number printed at the top.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When is an enclosure notation required in a business letter?
A) When the letter includes other documents.
B) All business letters require enclosure notation.
C) When the letter is typed by one person to express the sentiments of another person.
D) When the letter is sent in hard-copy form as a printed document rather than electronic form.
Q4) If you include an attention line in a business letter, you should place it
A) two lines below the complimentary close.
B) below the salutation.
C) at the top of the page, centered under the letterhead.
D) on the first line of the inside address.
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Q1) You should always use APA style for documentation in your reports, even if your employer or client normally uses a different form.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With MLA style, you use
A) the author-page reference system.
B) superscripts and footnotes or endnotes.
C) the author-date system.
D) full citations within the text itself.
Q3) Entries for the bibliography for a report following the Chicago style
A) alphabetize magazine articles by the name of the magazine if no author is cited.
B) capitalize only the first words of titles of books and articles.
C) use only the name of the principal author, followed by "et al." to represent any other authors.
D) use quotation marks around the titles of articles from newspapers and journals.
Q4) There is difference between endnotes and a bibliography.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is a demonstrative pronoun?
A) Who
B) This
C) Anyone
D) He
Q2) The following sentence uses all words correctly: She was disinterested in paying me a complement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plural of "son-in-law" is "sons-in-law," but the possessive is "son-in-law's."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Punctuation goes inside quotation marks if the whole sentence is quoted but outside the quotation marks if only the last part of the sentence is a quote.
A)True
B)False
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