Chapter 2: Ethical Issues
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Q1) Failures and inadequacies in the health care facility's operation and organization are often misinterpreted as ethical issues.These issues are known as
A) systems problems.
B) social problems.
C) ethical issues.
D) governmental problems.
Answer: A
Q2) The Code of Ethics for Nursing provides a framework for the nurse in ethical decision making and
A) is usurped by state or federal laws.
B) allows the nurse to focus on the good of society rather than the uniqueness of the client.
C) was recently adopted by the American Nurses Association.
D) provides society with a set of expectations of the profession.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Genomics in Critical Care
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Q1) Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS)is a caused by a lack of genetic material in 15q11.2-13.Approximately 70% of PWS is related to deletion.Based on this information,it can be determined that PWS is a
A) chromosome disorder.
B) single gene disorder.
C) complex gene disorder.
D) multifactorial disorder.
Q2) Which of the following would be classified as a single-gene disorder?
A) Down syndrome
B) Marfan syndrome
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Type 2 diabetes
E) Sickle cell disease
F) Cardiovascular atherosclerotic diseases
Q3) When a genetic variant exists in greater than 1% of the population,it is considered a A) genetic mutation.
B) genetic polymorphism.
C) genetic deletion.
D) tandem repeat.
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Chapter 6: Psychosocial and Spiritual Alterations and Management
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Q1) Commonly used medications for withdrawal symptoms include
A) chlordiazepoxide and folic acid.
B) chlordiazepoxide and lorazepam.
C) lorazepam and promethazine.
D) promethazine and thiamine.
Q2) A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a severed spinal cord injury at the T2 level.The patient has been in halo traction with immobilization for the past week.The physician explains to the patient that the spinal cord has been severed and that the patient will not be able to walk again.The patient becomes overtly hostile to everyone.The patient is demonstrating
A) regression.
B) loss of autonomy.
C) ineffective coping.
D) hope.
Q3) Regression as a coping mechanism for critical care patients
A) is necessary to some degree to allow staff to administer care.
B) indicates deterioration of the physical state.
C) is adaptive when the patient calls the nurse every 15 minutes, even for trivial matters.
D) is best avoided to ensure successful recovery.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Sleep Alterations and Management
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Q1) During a sleep study,which of the following groups of information are gathered?
A) Airflow, snoring, and tonsil size
B) Electroencephalogram, electrocardiogram, and end-tidal carbon dioxide
C) Oxygen saturation, number of arousals, and airflow
D) Frequency of awakenings, REM speed, and apnea-hypopnea index
Q2) A sufficient amount of sleep has been achieved when a person awakens
A) after 8 to 10 hours of uninterrupted sleep.
B) with external stimuli and gets through the day without feeling sleepy.
C) without external stimuli and gets through the day without feeling sleepy.
D) feeling rested in the morning and takes a nap in the afternoon.
Q3) A patient was given the diagnosis of congestive heart failure (CHF)2 years ago.The patient complains of increased daytime sleepiness and states his support system has been complaining more and more about snoring.Central sleep apnea is suspected.Treatment depends on whether the patient has hypercapnic or nonhypercapnic central sleep apnea.The patient's primary treatment plan should include
A) CPAP.
B) bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP).
C) acetazolamide and medroxyprogesterone.
D) modafinil and zolpidem.
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Chapter 8: Nutrition Alterations and Management
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Q1) An effect of malnutrition on respiratory function is A) decreased surfactant.
B) increased vital capacity.
C) decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
D) tachypnea.
Q2) The patient is receiving corticosteroid treatment for neurologic alterations.The nurse should assess the patient for episodes of A) hyponatremia.
B) hyperalbuminemia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q3) A primary nutritional intervention for hypertension is A) decreasing carbohydrates. B) limiting salt.
C) increasing protein.
D) increasing fluids.
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Chapter 9: Pain and Pain Management
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Q1) The use of PCA infusion pumps allows the patient to A) act preemptively by administering a bolus of medication when pain begins. B) choose between the use of opioids or NSAID medication to control pain.
C) decrease the risk of respiratory depression.
D) control pain medication in 2-hour increments.
Q2) The neural processes of encoding and processing noxious stimuli necessary but not sufficient for pain is known as A) perception.
B) nociception.
C) transduction.
D) transmission.
Q3) A patient complains of pain at his incision site.The nurse is aware that four processes are involved in nociception.The proper order of the processes is A) transmission, perception, modulation, and transduction. B) perception, modulation, transduction, and transmission.
C) modulation, transduction, transmission, and perception. D) transduction, transmission, perception, and modulation.
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Chapter 11: End-Of-Life Issues
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Q1) A patient was admitted to the critical care unit several weeks ago with an acute myocardial infarction and subsequently underwent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery.Since a cardiac arrest 5 days ago,the patient has been unresponsive.An electroencephalogram shows no meaningful brain activity.After a family conference,the physician orders a DNR order,and palliative care is begun.This means
A) the patient will continue to receive the same aggressive treatment short of resuscitation if he has another cardiac arrest.
B) all treatment will be stopped, and the patient will be allowed to die.
C) all attempts will be made to keep the patient comfortable without prolonging his life.
D) the patient will be immediately transferred to hospice.
Q2) _____ is a powerful influence when the decision-making process is dealing with recovery or a peaceful death.
A) Hope
B) Religion
C) Culture
D) Ethics
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) A patient reports feeling dizzy after standing quickly.Which of the following could provide a clue regarding the cause?
A) Hemoglobin level of 14.0 g/dL and hematocrit level of 42.3%
B) Poor skin turgor with extended tenting
C) Supine blood pressure of 146/93 mm Hg
D) Resting heart rate of 96 beats/min
Q2) The atrioventricular (AV)node delays the conduction impulse from the atria (0.8-1.2 seconds)for which of the following reasons?
A) To limit the amount of blood that fills the ventricle from the atria
B) To provide time for the ventricles to fill during diastole
C) To limit the number of signals the ventricles receive in some rhythms
D) To allow the atria to rest between signals
Q3) The outermost layer of the artery that helps strengthen and shape the vessel is the A) tunica.
B) intima.
C) adventitia.
D) media.
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Clinical Assessment
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Q1) During a history examination,a patient tells the nurse,"The cardiologist says I have a leaking valve." The nurse documents that the patient has a history of
A) acute mitral regurgitation.
B) aortic insufficiency.
C) chronic mitral regurgitation.
D) pericardial friction rub.
Q2) An assessment finding of pulsus alternans may indicate evidence of A) left-sided heart failure.
B) jugular venous distention.
C) pulmonary embolism.
D) myocardial ischemia.
Q3) The nurse assesses the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses as weak and thready.Indicate the correct documentation for the pulse volume that the nurse would use.
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 3+
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following values,when elevated,places the patient at lowest risk for CAD?
A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B) Triglycerides
C) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
Q2) Which of the following assessment findings is most specific for acute onset of pulmonary edema?
A) Pulmonary crackles
B) Peripheral edema
C) Pink, frothy sputum
D) Elevated central venous pressure
Q3) The most frequent dysrhythmia seen initially with sudden cardiac death is A) premature ventricular contractions.
B) ventricular tachycardia.
C) ventricular fibrillation.
D) asystole.
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Chapter 16: Cardiovascular Therapeutic Management
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Q1) A reliable indicator of reperfusion after fibrinolytic therapy is A) dysrhythmias.
B) Q waves.
C) elevated ST segments.
D) a rapid decrease in serum CK levels.
Q2) The rationale for administration of a fibrinolytic agent is A) dilation of the blocked coronary artery.
B) anticoagulation to prevent formation of new emboli.
C) dissolution of atherosclerotic plaque at the site of blockage.
D) restoration of blood flow to the obstructed coronary artery via lysis of the thrombus.
Q3) In analyzing the ECG strip,the nurse notices a spike before each QRS complex.The patient's heart rate is 70 beats/min.This phenomenon is reflective of A) 60-cycle electrical interference; check equipment.
B) pacing artifact; the pacemaker is sensing and capturing.
C) electrical artifact; the pacemaker is not sensing.
D) patient movement; check electrodes.
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Chapter 17: Pulmonary Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is a passive event in a spontaneously breathing patient?
A) Coughing
B) Inhalation
C) Exhalation
D) Yawning
Q2) Trauma to which vertebrae will cause ventilation dysfunction?
A) C3-C5
B) C5-T?
C) T? -T6
D) T7-T10
Q3) The conducting airways
A) participate in gas exchange.
B) cool the incoming airway.
C) remove moisture from incoming air.
D) prevent the entry of foreign material.
Q4) Which of the following is considered physiologic dead space?
A) Respiratory bronchiole and unperfused alveoli
B) Trachea and perfused alveoli
C) Trachea and unperfused alveoli
D) Trachea and mainstem bronchi
19
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Chapter 18: Pulmonary Clinical Assessment
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Q1) A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with acute respiratory failure secondary to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.The patient has a 15-year history of emphysema and bronchitis.On inspection,the nurse observes that the patient is experiencing air trapping.While auscultating the chest,the nurse notes the presence of coarse,rumbling,low-pitched sounds in the right middle and lower lobes.On further inspection of the patient,the nurse observes that his fingers appear discolored.This is a result of
A) clubbing.
B) central cyanosis.
C) peripheral cyanosis.
D) chronic tuberculosis.
Q2) Deviation of the trachea occurs in which of the following conditions?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Emphysema
E) Pleural effusion
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) A patient is admitted with acute respiratory failure attributable to pneumonia.Smoking history reveals that the patient smoked two packs of cigarettes a day for 25 years,stopping 10 years ago.ABG values on the current ventilator settings are pH,7.37; PaCO<sub>2</sub>,50 mm Hg; and HCO<sub>3</sub>-,27 mEq/L.Chest radiography reveals a large right pleural effusion.Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the patient's ABG values?
A) Compensated respiratory acidosis
B) Compensated metabolic alkalosis
C) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
D) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Q2) On admission,a patient presents as follows: pH,7.38; respiratory rate,24 breaths/min,regular,pursed-lip breathing; PaO<sub>2</sub>,66 mm Hg; heart rate,112 beats/min,sinus tachycardia; PaCO<sub>2</sub>,52 mm Hg; blood pressure,110/68 mm Hg; HCO<sub>3</sub>-,24 mEq/L; and SpO<sub>2</sub>,90% on O<sub>2</sub> 2 L/min nasal cannula.These gases show
A) uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
B) uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
C) compensated metabolic acidosis.
D) compensated respiratory alkalosis.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following diagnostic criteria is indicative of ARDS?
A) Radiologic evidence of bibasilar atelectasis
B) PaO<sub>2</sub>/FiO<sub>2</sub> ratio less than or equal to 200 mm Hg
C) Pulmonary artery wedge pressure greater than 18 mm Hg
D) Increased static and dynamic compliance
Q2) The most common presenting signs and symptoms associated with PEs are
A) tachycardia and tachypnea.
B) hemoptysis and evidence of deep vein thromboses.
C) apprehension and dyspnea.
D) right ventricular failure and fever
Q3) Depending on the patient's risk for the recurrence of PE,a patient may be placed on warfarin for
A) 1 to 3 months.
B) 3 to 6 months.
C) 3 to 12 months.
D) 12 to 36 months.
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Chapter 22: Neurologic Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Which areas of the spinal cord have tenuous blood supply and are especially vulnerable to circulatory embarrassment?
A) C2 to C3
B) C5 to C6
C) T8 to T10
D) L4 to L5
Q2) Based on the circle of Willis,if the right internal carotid artery is blocked so that inadequate blood flows to the cerebral arteries,oxygen and nutrients to the brain
A) can be supported by the circle of Willis.
B) are diminished by 25%.
C) are diminished by 50%.
D) are blocked.
Q3) The region of the brain that acts as a relay station for both motor and sensory activity is the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) Considering anatomic location,which cranial nerve will be affected first by downward pressure onto the infratentorial structures?
A) III
B) VI
C) IX
D) X
Q2) A critical care patient is diagnosed with massive head trauma.The patient is receiving brain tissue oxygen pressure (PbtO<sub>2</sub>)monitoring.The nurse recognized that the goal of this treatment is to maintain PbtO<sub>2</sub>
A) greater than 20 mm Hg.
B) less than 15 mm Hg.
C) between 15 and 20 mm Hg.
D) between 10 and 20 mm Hg.
Q3) Successful completion of digital subtraction angiography requires what participation on the part of the patient?
A) Responding appropriately to various commands
B) Repositioning at appropriate intervals
C) Remaining motionless
D) Holding inspiration during imaging
25
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Chapter 24: Neurologic Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Q1) The patient has sustained an ischemic stroke involving the left cerebral hemisphere.Which of the following neurologic abnormalities would you expect to see?
A) Aphasia
B) Left visual field defect
C) Difficulty balancing his checkbook
D) Ataxic gait
E) Somnolence
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding Guillain-Barré syndrome supports the admission to a critical care unit?
A) The demyelination process of the peripheral nerves is irreversible.
B) The demyelination process is limited to the peripheral nervous system only.
C) The paralysis associated with the syndrome occurs in a descending pattern.
D) The most common cause of death is from respiratory arrest.
Q3) Which of the following patients has the best prognosis based on the cause of coma?
A) A 36-year-old man with closed head injury
B) A 50-year-old woman with hepatic encephalopathy
C) A 46-year-old woman with subarachnoid hemorrhage
D) A 72-year-old man with hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
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Chapter 25: Kidney Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) If the patient's blood pressure drops,which of the following will help maintain adequate glomerular pressure?
A) Constriction of the afferent arteriole
B) Dilation of the efferent arteriole
C) Dilation of the collecting tubule
D) Constriction of the efferent arteriole
Q2) When renin eventually stimulates angiotensin II,the adrenal glands then secrete A) aldosterone.
B) potassium.
C) ADH.
D) vasopressin.
Q3) Where does the concentration and dilution of urine occur?
A) In the juxtamedullary nephrons
B) In the cortical nephrons
C) In the peritubular capillaries
D) In the internal nephron
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Chapter 26: Kidney Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) Percussion of kidneys is usually done to
A) assess the size and shape of the kidneys.
B) detect pain in the renal area.
C) elicit a fluid wave.
D) evaluate fluid status.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the critical care unit in congestive heart failure secondary to renal insufficiency.The patient reports that over the past few weeks,his urine output has decreased,and he has developed peripheral edema and ascites.A diagnosis of renal failure is made.The patient urinalysis has a specific gravity of 1.040.What could be the potential cause for this value?
A) Volume overload
B) Volume deficit
C) Acidosis
D) Urine ketones
Q3) Which of the following assessment findings would indicate fluid volume excess?
A) Venous filling of the hand veins greater than 5 seconds
B) Distended neck veins in the supine position
C) Presence of orthostatic hypotension
D) Third heart sound
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Chapter 27: Kidney Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Q1) The patient is a gravida 6,para 1.She is admitted after a cesarean section after an amniotic embolus.Her heart rate (HR)is more than 150 beats/min with a systolic BP less than 80 mm Hg.Her temperature is 38°C,and her condition has caused her to develop prerenal azotemia.The patient was fluid resuscitated through a double-lumen catheter,which was placed into her right femoral access,and started on vasopressors with a fair response (BP,80/50 mm Hg; HR,122 beats/min).Because of her diagnosis and a concern regarding fulminating sepsis,the patient was begun on CVVH.Which of the statements best describes CVVH?
A) Complete renal replacement therapy requiring large volumes of ultrafiltrate and filter replacement
B) Complete renal replacement therapy that allows removal of solutes and modification of the volume and composition of extracellular fluid to occur evenly over time
C) Involves the introduction of sterile dialyzing fluid through an implanted catheter into the abdominal cavity, which relies on osmosis, diffusion, and active transport to help remove waste from the body
D) Complete renal replacement therapy that allows an exchange of fluid, solutes, and solvents across a semipermeable membrane at 100 to 300 mL/hr
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Chapter 28: Gastrointestinal Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Which laboratory value is reflective of hepatocellular dysfunction?
A) Elevated blood glucose level
B) High levels of unconjugated bilirubin
C) Decreased prothrombin time
D) Decreased partial thromboplastin time
Q2) Which organ lies obliquely beneath the cardiac sphincter and above the pyloric sphincter?
A) Esophagus
B) Stomach
C) Duodenum
D) Ileum
Q3) An important role of saliva is that it
A) washes away bacteria.
B) provides the body's main source of potassium.
C) contains hydrochloric acid for breakdown of protein.
D) stimulates the sympathetic nervous system.
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Chapter 30: Gastrointestinal Disorders and Therapeutic Management
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Q1) A patient with a 10-year history of alcoholism was admitted to the critical care unit with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.The physiologic alteration that occurs in acute pancreatitis is
A) uncontrolled hypoglycemia caused by an increased release of insulin.
B) loss of storage capacity for senescent red blood cells.
C) premature activation of inactive digestive enzymes, resulting in autodigestion.
D) release of glycogen into the serum, resulting in hyperglycemia.
Q2) Absorption of Prilosec and Prevacid occurs in the
A) stomach.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) cecum.
Q3) The physician orders gastric lavage to control GI bleeding.The nurse has inserted a large-bore NG tube.What temperature and irrigating fluid would be used to obtain the best results?
A) Warm NS or water
B) Iced NS or water
C) Room temperature NS or water
D) Iced NS only
Page 32
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Chapter 32: Endocrine Clinical Assessment and Diagnostic Procedures
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Q1) A normal HbA?c level for a normal person is
A) less than 5.4%.
B) less than 6.5%.
C) between 5.4% and 6.5%.
D) between 3% and 5.4%.
Q2) The patient weighed 62 kg on admission yesterday.Today the patient weighs 60 kg.The nurse knows this reflects a fluid loss of
A) 1 L.
B) 2 L.
C) 4 L.
D) 10 L.
Q3) A patient is being evaluated for thyroid dysfunction.His daily regular medications include aspirin,Lanoxin,and insulin.The nurse knows that the laboratory work may be affected by
A) the aspirin.
B) the Lanoxin.
C) the insulin.
D) none of the medications.
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Chapter 34: Trauma
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Q1) Major trauma patients are at a high risk of developing deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism because of
A) blood stasis.
B) hypernatremia.
C) injury to the intimal surface of the vessel.
D) hyperosmolarity.
E) hypercoagulopathy.
F) immobility.
Q2) A patient has sustained an epidural hematoma after a 10-foot fall from a roof.Which of the following is true about epidural hematomas?
A) They are usually arterial in nature.
B) They typically have a worse mortality rate than subdural hematomas.
C) They are associated with a permanent loss of consciousness.
D) Clinical signs and symptoms include bilateral pupil dilation.
Q3) The majority of falls accounting for traumatic injury occur in what population?
A) Construction workers
B) Adolescents
C) Older adults
D) Young adults
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Chapter 35: Shock,sepsis,and Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome
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Q1) Hypovolemic shock that results from an internal shifting of fluid from the intravascular space to the extravascular space is known as
A) absolute hypovolemia.
B) distributive hypovolemia.
C) relative hypovolemia.
D) compensatory hypovolemia.
Q2) Which of the following clinical manifestations is not suggestive of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?
A) Temperature of 37.5° C
B) Heart rate of 95 beats/min
C) Respiratory rate of 24 breath/min
D) White blood cell (WBC) count of 15,000 cells/mm3
Q3) An inflammatory biochemical that is secreted in response to endotoxin or noninfectious agents is
A) arachidonic acid metabolite.
B) platelet-activating factor.
C) tumor necrosis factor.
D) the complement system.
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Chapter 36: Burns
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Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department after a house fire.He fell asleep with a lit cigarette,and the couch ignited.TBSA burn is estimated at 25% deep partial-thickness burns to areas of the chest,back,and left arm and 20% full-thickness burns to the right arm,right upper leg,and areas on the face.The nurse is unable to obtain a palpable pulse or a Doppler pulse signal in the right arm on admission of this patient.What immediate intervention is needed?
A) Escharotomy
B) Silvadene application
C) Splint application
D) Xenograft application
Q2) Roughly 80% of burns in children are classified as
A) radiation burns.
B) chemical burns.
C) electrical burns.
D) thermal burns.
Q3) Which zone is the site of the most severe damage?
A) Zone of coagulation
B) Peripheral zone
C) Zone of stasis
D) Zone of hyperemia
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Chapter 37: Organ Donation and Transplantation
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Q1) After a urinary diversion pancreatic transplant,the nurse must anticipate which order?
A) Continuous bladder irrigation
B) Intermittent insulin injections
C) Removal of the nasogastric tube as soon as the patient is alert
D) Daily hematocrit and hemoglobin levels.
Q2) Who determines the medical suitability of the patient for organ donation?
A) The organ procurement organization (OPO) coordinator
B) The patient's family
C) The admitting health care provider
D) The transplant team
Q3) Not every patient with end-stage liver disease is a candidate for receiving a transplant.Which of the following conditions are contraindications to a kidney transplant?
A) Malignancy during the past 5 years
B) Active infectious process
C) Advanced cardiopulmonary disease
D) Recreational drug use
E) Nonadherence to current medical regimen
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Chapter 38: Hematologic Disorders and Oncologic Emergencies
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pathophysiologic events contributes to renal failure associated with tumor lysis syndrome?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Elevated white blood cell count
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Crystallization of uric acid in the renal tubules
Q2) Type 2 heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is characterized by
A) formation of thrombi, causing vessel occlusion.
B) spontaneous epistaxis.
C) elevated prothrombin times.
D) massive peripheral ecchymoses.
Q3) Sickle cell anemia is not prevalent in persons of which descent?
A) West African
B) Sole European
C) Middle Eastern
D) Asian or Pacific Islander
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Chapter 39: The Obstetric Patient
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of obstetric cardiac arrest in pregnancy is A) anesthetic complications.
B) idiopathic peripartum cardiomyopathy.
C) pregnancy-induced hypertension.
D) hemorrhage.
Q2) Which medication is not commonly used during pulmonary dysfunction that occurs during pregnancy?
A) Antibiotics
B) ?-Adrenergic
C) Theophylline
D) Ipratropium
Q3) Extrinsic factors that influence fetal development include all the following EXCEPT A) fungal infections.
B) chromosomal abnormalities.
C) "unknown" causes.
D) medication exposure.
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Chapter 40: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 1-month-old infant with stable supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)at a rate of 250 beats/min.She weighs 6 kg.How much adenosine should be given?
A) 0.05 mg rapid IV push
B) 0.1 mg rapid IV push
C) 0.6 mg rapid IV push
D) 0.5 mg rapid IV push
Q2) The pathophysiologic characteristic of a left-to-right shunt resulting from a congenital heart defect is
A) decreased pulmonary blood flow.
B) mixed lesions with variable clinical symptoms.
C) increased pulmonary blood flow.
D) obstruction of blood flow to the ventricles.
Q3) The upper airway of an infant is different from that of an adult in that the infant's
A) epiglottis is located lower than an adult's.
B) tongue is larger, and it fills the oral cavity.
C) larynx is tubular shaped with its narrowest portion at the epiglottis.
D) airway is more rigid than an adult's.
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Chapter 41: The Older Adult Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older patient is starting a new medication that is metabolized in the liver and excreted by the kidneys.Which is the best assessment to monitor the patient's ability to tolerate the medication?
A) Liver function tests
B) Drug side effects experienced by the patient
C) Kidney function tests
D) Therapeutic drug levels
Q2) A 68-year-old patient has been admitted to the coronary care unit after an inferior myocardial infarction.Age-related changes in myocardial pumping ability may be evidenced by
A) increased contractility.
B) decreased contractility.
C) decreased left ventricle afterload.
D) increased cardiac output.
Q3) Which of the following would be a normal assessment finding for an older patient?
A) Inability to remember what was eaten yesterday
B) An increase in resting heart rate
C) Hypoactive bowel sounds
D) Brisk papillary response to light
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Chapter 42: The Perianesthesia Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common cause of postoperative hypertension?
A) Administration of morphine
B) Fluid overload
C) Bladder distention
D) Tachycardia
Q2) Which of the following benzodiazepines has a slow onset of action and long duration?
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Midazolam (Versed)
C) Lorazepam (Ativan)
D) Droperidol (Inapsine)
Q3) What medication may be used to treat laryngospasm?
A) Racemic epinephrine
B) Succinylcholine
C) Albuterol
D) Morphine
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