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Information Technology Management explores the strategic role of information systems and technologies in modern organizations. The course examines how IT can be leveraged to achieve business objectives, improve organizational performance, and gain competitive advantage. Students will analyze topics such as IT governance, digital transformation, project management, and the alignment of IT with business strategies. Practical case studies and real-world scenarios highlight challenges related to data security, ethical considerations, and emerging trends like cloud computing and artificial intelligence. By the end of the course, students will have a comprehensive understanding of how to effectively plan, implement, and manage IT resources within a business environment.
Recommended Textbook
MCITP Guide to Microsoft Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Administration 1st Edition by
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 10 Chapters
409 Verified Questions
409 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) You can easily determine what servers hold all the roles by opening a command prompt and entering the following command: ____
A) netdom query trust
B) netdom query fsmo
C) netdom query pdc
D) netdom query dc
Answer: B
Q2) The ADPrep switch ____ is used to prepare the forest for Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2 domain controllers.
A) /ForestBuild
B) /ForestNew
C) /ForestPrep
D) /ForestSelect
Answer: C
Q3) A(n) _________________________ is used within a domain to organize objects.
Answer: Organizational Unit (OU)
Organizational Unit
OU
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DC hosting the ____ master role manages the addition and removal of domains, and the addition and removal of application directory partitions.
A) domain naming
B) RID
C) schema
D) infrastructure
Answer: A
Q2) You can use the ____ command to check the NIC settings.
A) dcdiag /all
B) netdc /all
C) netsh ipmi /all
D) IPConfig /all
Answer: D
Q3) Domain controllers work as ____ with loose convergence.
A) single masters
B) backup masters
C) overlapping masters
D) multi-masters
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ dynamic updates require that the DNS server is hosted on a domain controller and that a primary ADI zone is being used.
A) Reverse
B) GSSAPI
C) TDS
D) Secure
Answer: D
Q2) One easy way to check whether zone transfers are allowed to a server is to use the ____ command.
A) NSLookup
B) dig
C) IPConfig
D) dcdiag
Answer: A
Q3) The primary records used with Active Directory are the ____ records.
A) address (A)
B) pointer (PTR)
C) service location (SRV)
D) start of authority (SOA)
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) You must be a member of the Domain Admins group to create a PSO.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because users see OUs, the OUs must follow a structure understood by the users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sometimes, you might not want inherited Group Policies to apply to an OU; this can be achieved by setting the ____.
A) Block Settings
B) Restrict Inheritance
C) Block Inheritance
D) Disable Inheritance
Q4) Actual GPOs are commonly named based on their ____________________.
Q5) The acceptable values for the PSO "mustHave" attribute msDS-PasswordSettingsPrecedence are ____.
A) 0 through 65,535 (values of 3 and 5 commonly used)
B) 0 through 1024 (24 commonly used)
C) Anything greater than 0 (only used if more than one PSO applies)
D) 0 through 255 values of 8 to 15 often used
Q6) Discuss what printer location policies can be used for.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) It's common to use a basic method of load balancing, such as DNS round robin, with TS Session Broker.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Autoremediation is enabled by default when a ____ is created.
A) security policy
B) network permission set
C) network policy
D) constraint
Q3) A Windows Server 2008 server can be used as a RADIUS server by adding the ____ service.
A) NPS
B) NAP
C) RADIUS
D) RRAS
Q4) A full-blown server configured as a router is more efficient than a dedicated hardware router.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe a NAP client.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using ____, you can execute command-line commands from one server against a remote server.
A) WinRS
B) WinSAT
C) WinRM
D) WCEUtil
Q2) AD CS publishes a delta CRL once a ____ by default.
A) day
B) week
C) month
D) year
Q3) Users in the ___________________ role are granted the Issue and Manage Certificates permission and can approve certificate enrollment and revocation requests.
Q4) Users in the ____ role are granted the Manage Auditing and Security Log permissions.
A) Administrator
B) Approver
C) Auditor
D) Validator
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scheduled ____ provides automation and streamlines an administrator's job.
A) script
B) interface
C) baseline
D) tool
Q2) Regularly checking systems to ensure that they haven't been changed is called
A) compliance certification
B) compliance baselining
C) compliance auditing
D) compliance hardening
Q3) ____ audits user logon events when a user is authenticated from a local computer (not a domain controller).
A) Audit account management
B) Audit logon events
C) Audit object events
D) Audit privilege use
Q4) Name and describe a primary tool used for compliance auditing.
Q5) ____________________ identify resources in one network that can communicate with resources in another network.
9
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can load balancing and fault tolerance be achieved?
Q2) When performing an authoritative restore with NTDSUtil, you use the ____ of the object.
A) common name
B) distinguished name
C) fully qualified domain name
D) short host name
Q3) ____ includes all the methods and technologies used to ensure that a business can continue to operate even after a failure occurs.
A) Disaster recovery
B) Business recovery
C) Business continuity
D) Operations continuity
Q4) The ___________________ tools feature in Windows Server Backup includes support for doing backups with Windows PowerShell commands and scripts.
Q5) Explain the results of pausing, stopping and evicting a node.
Q6) Failover clusters can be used to provide fault tolerance at the disk level. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ is an add-on server product that can assess, deploy, and update large numbers of client computers or servers in an enterprise.
A) Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007
B) Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2007
C) Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007
D) Microsoft System Center Service Manager 2007
Q2) List and describe two WSS tools that can be used for collaboration.
Q3) An important element to monitor on an SQL Server is the state of the ____ log.
A) transaction
B) database
C) access
D) interface
Q4) Before you can add DFS role services, you must add the DFS namespaces, which are part of the File Services role.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List two problems that loss of data can cause for a company.
Q6) Provide an overview of how SCOM is used.
Q7) Identify and describe a primary benefit that BitLocker provides.
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Q1) Virtual ___________________ streaming provides only a portion of the application needed by the user to begin working.
Q2) App-V applications are designed to provide a seamless user experience.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ occurs when multiple physical servers are added for a specific purpose but are highly underutilized.
A) Server redundancy
B) Server creep
C) Server multiplication
D) Server sprawl
Q4) Hyper-V can be added to a virtual server using Microsoft Virtual PC or Windows Virtual PC.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the Microsoft SoftGrid Application Virtualization for Desktops.
Q6) What are the two components needed for hardware virtualization in Windows XP Mode?
Q7) Discuss two benefits of server consolidation.
Q8) Describe the System Center Application Virtualization Streaming Server.
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