Information Technology Essentials
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Information Technology Essentials provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts and tools that underpin modern computing. The course covers key topics such as computer hardware, software, operating systems, networks, data management, cybersecurity, and the impact of IT on society. Students will explore the principles of information systems and gain practical experience in using productivity tools, cloud services, and basic troubleshooting techniques. Emphasis is placed on understanding how IT is applied in various business and personal environments, preparing students with the foundational knowledge necessary for further studies or careers in the technology field.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/183
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2566
Sample Questions
Q1) At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate?
A) Application
B) Session
C) Transport
D) Network
Answer: D
Q2) The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address?
A) MAC (Media Access Control) address
B) DAC (Data Access Control) address
C) DAC (Digital Access Control) address
D) PAC (Packet Access Control) address
Answer: A
Q3) At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate?
A) Layer 2
B) Layer 3
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 5
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the different types of software changes?
Answer: Some of the software changes that you might be called upon to implement include:
* patch-A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software. It corrects a bug, closes a vulnerability, or adds minor enhancements to only part of the software, leaving most of the code untouched.
* upgrade-A software upgrade is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities.
* rollback-A software rollback is the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to patch or upgrade it.
* installation-New software, such as CRM (customer relationship management) software for sales reps or a financial software package for accountants, must be installed on the relevant devices and incorporated with network resources.
Q2) A 66 block is more suitable for data connections than the older 110 block.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are the Class D and Class E IPv4 address ranges not available for general use?
Answer: Class D addresses begin with octets 224 through 239 and are used for multicast transmissions, in which one host sends messages to multiple hosts. An example of this is when a host transmits a videoconference over the Internet to multiple participants. Class E addresses, which begin with 240 through 254, are reserved for research.
Q2) DNS follows a centralized database model, allowing for easier management of DNS records.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What text editor can be used on Linux to view and edit the contents of a configuration file?
A) Notepad
B) Microsoft Word
C) vim
D) edit
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?
A) UDP
B) ICMP
C) TCP
D) ARP
Q2) In IPv6, what field is used to indicate what sequence of packets from one source to one or multiple destinations a packet belongs to?
A) traffic class
B) group ID
C) flow label
D) traffic exchange
Q3) Which statement regarding the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is accurate?
A) BGP is limited to a single autonomous system.
B) BGP is exclusively a distance-vector protocol.
C) BGP utilizes TCP for communicating updates.
D) BGP is a more advanced version of OSPF.
Q4) IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multimode fiber contains a core that is larger than a single mode fiber core.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the biggest limiting factor on fiber-optic cable length?
Q3) When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit?
Q4) Bidirectional transceivers utilize what technology to separate the data in each direction?
A) wavelength division multiplexing
B) time division multiplexing
C) frequency division multiplexing
D) statistical time division multiplexing
Q5) PoE+ devices are defined by what IEEE standard?
A) 802.3at
B) 802.3af
C) 802.3fc
D) 802.3c
Q6) Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary?
A) Physical layer
B) Network layer
C) Data link layer
D) Transport layer
Q2) What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer?
A) It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.
B) It is used to manage MAC addresses in message frames.
C) It performs management of the physical layer's modulation techniques.
D) It is used to manage low-level encryption on a network.
Q3) Radiation patterns can be used to classify antennas into what two basic categories?
Q4) 802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput?
A) 600 Mbps
B) 1.3 Gbps
C) 3.47 Gbps
D) 6.93 Gbps
Q5) How does configuration of wireless clients for wireless access in an enterprise environment differ from normal setup?
Q6) What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments?
A) VMware vSphere
B) Oracle VirtualBox
C) Parallels
D) Citrix Xen
Q2) In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data?
A) flow director
B) vRouter
C) SDN controller
D) SDN switch
Q3) What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?
A) Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
B) Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
C) Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D) OpenVPN
Q4) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?
A) switchport trunk native vlan
B) switchport set native vlan
C) config native vlan
D) set native-vlan-id
Q2) Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number?
A) network ID
B) subnet ID
C) magic number
D) host ID
Q3) How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs?
A) 4 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 12 bytes
D) 20 bytes
Q4) How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets?
Q5) Where does the term trunk originate from, and how does it apply to modern networking?
10
Q6) What are some of the different reasons to use VLANs?
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding denial-of-service (DoS) attacks is accurate?
A) A denial-of-service attack occurs when a MAC address is impersonated on the network.
B) A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources.
C) A denial-of-service attack is generally a result of a disgruntled employee.
D) A denial-of-service attack is no longer a major concern due to the increased throughput available on most networks.
Q2) An RFID label on a box is an example of what type of physical security detection method?
A) motion detection technology
B) video surveillance via CCTV
C) tamper detection
D) asset tracking tagging
Q3) Over a long-distance connection, using SSH keys is more secure than using passwords.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some of the characteristics of malware that make it difficult to detect?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ACL statements, using the "any" keyword is equivalent to using a wildcard mask of what value?
A) 0.0.0.0
B) 255.255.255.255
C) 255.255.0.0
D) 0.0.255.255
Q2) In order to prevent ports that are serving network hosts from being considered as best paths, what should be enabled to block BPDUs?
A) BPDU filter
B) BPDU guard
C) root guard
D) BPDU drop
Q3) What is multifactor authentication, and what are some examples?
Q4) How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality?
Q5) By default, Active Directory is configured to use the Kerberos protocol, but can be configured to use LDAP or a combination of LDAP and Kerberos.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What Storage Area Network (SAN) protocol runs on top of TCP, and can be used on an existing twisted-pair Ethernet network, while maintaining low cost?
A) Fibre Channel (FC)
B) Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C) Internet SCSI (iSCSI)
D) InfiniBand (IB)
Q2) If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day?
A) .4 seconds
B) 8 seconds
C) 1 minute, 26 seconds
D) 14 minutes, 23 seconds
Q3) What are some of the more common network performance metrics that are utilized?
Q4) What happens when an NMS uses the SNMP walk command?
A) The NMS sends a request for data to the agent on a managed device.
B) The NMS uses get requests to move through sequential rows in the MIB database.
C) The NMS requests a list of all active SNMP traps on the system.
D) The NMS walks through a list of given SNMP hosts.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the MPLS standard, and why is it often used by ISPs to move traffic from one customer site to another?
Q2) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Q3) What is the difference between a DTE and a DCE?
Q4) In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?
A) Metro Carrier Transport
B) Carrier Ethernet Transport
C) Intra-city Ethernet
D) Ethernet SONET
Q5) CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) is an open standard that is accepted and used worldwide.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to?
A) They connect directly to the central office.
B) They connect to a mobile switching center.
C) They connect to other wireless base stations, then to the central office.
D) They connect to a wireless station repeater.
Q7) What is the role of a multiplexer when working with T-carrier lines?
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