Information Systems in Organizations Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Information Systems in Organizations explores how organizations utilize information systems to achieve strategic goals, enhance operational efficiency, and facilitate decision-making processes. The course examines the components of information systems, including hardware, software, data, procedures, and people, and how these elements interact to support business functions such as communication, collaboration, and control. Students learn about the development, implementation, and management of information systems, the impact of emerging technologies, and the ethical, legal, and security considerations involved in managing organizational data. Through case studies and practical examples, the course emphasizes the critical role that information systems play in driving innovation, competitive advantage, and organizational transformation.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 13th Global Edition by Marshall B. Romney
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Accounting Information Systems: an Overview
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Q1) Who of the following is not a stakeholder with whom an accounting information system typically communicates directly?
A)Wall Street industry analyst
B)venture capitalist
C)company that supplies raw materials
D)company that purchases finished goods for resale to consumers
Answer: A
Q2) Groups of related business activities such as the acquisition of merchandise and payment of vendors are called
A)transaction cycles.
B)economic cycles.
C)business events.
D)transactions.
Answer: A
Q3) The primary objective of accounting is to
A)implement strong internal controls.
B)provide useful information to decision makers.
C)prepare financial statements.
D)ensure the profitability of an organization.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Overview of Transaction Processing and Enterprise Resource Planning Systems
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Q1) Source documents generally help to improve accuracy in transaction processing because
A)they specify which information to collect.
B)logically related data can be grouped in the same area of the document.
C)they provide directions and steps for completing the form.
D)All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) An ERP system might facilitate the purchase of direct materials by all of the following except
A)selecting the best supplier by comparing bids.
B)preparing a purchase order when inventory falls to reorder point.
C)routing a purchase order to a purchasing agent for approval.
D)communicating a purchase order to a supplier.
Answer: A
Q3) A chart of accounts is an example of (select all that apply)
A)sequence codes.
B)block codes.
C)group codes.
D)mnemonic codes.
Answer: B,C
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Chapter 3: Systems Documentation Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a flow of data or documents?
A)#12
B)#13
C)#14
D)#15
Answer: A
Q2) Graphical representations of information are often supplemented by A)narrative descriptions.
B)relevant e-mail communications.
C)logic charts.
D)oral descriptions from management.
Answer: A
Q3) In a data flow diagram of the customer payment process,"Customer payment" will appear above or in A)a square.
B)a circle.
C)two horizontal lines.
D)an arrow.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Relational Databases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is probably the most immediate and significant effect of database technology on accounting?
A)replacement of the double entry-system
B)change in the nature of financial reporting
C)elimination of traditional records such as journals and ledgers
D)quicker access to and greater use of accounting information in decision-making
Q2) Describe the information that is contained in the data dictionary.
Q3) In a well-designed and normalized database,which of the following attributes would be a foreign key in a cash receipts table?
A)customer number
B)cash receipt date
C)remittance advice number
D)customer check number
Q4) Which of the following elements link rows in one table to rows in another table?
A)primary keys
B)foreign keys
C)semantic keys
D)link keys
Q5) Explain the relational database data model.
Q6) Describe a data dictionary.
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Chapter 5: Computer Fraud
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Q1) Which of the following is the greatest risk to information systems and causes the greatest dollar losses?
A)human errors and omissions
B)physical threats such as natural disasters
C)dishonest employees
D)fraud and embezzlement
Q2) Identify the opportunity below that could enable an employee to commit fraud.
A)An employee's spouse loses her job.
B)An employee has a close association with suppliers or customers.
C)An employee suddenly acquires lots of credit cards.
D)An employee is upset that he was passed over for a promotion.
Q3) All of the following are required for an act to be legally classified as fraudulent except
A)a falsehood is made.
B)about a material fact.
C)to inflict pain.
D)resulting in a financial loss.
Q4) Why is computer fraud on the rise?
Q5) Describe at least four ways a company can make fraud less likely to occur.
Q6) What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of fraud perpetrators?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Computer Fraud and Abuse Techniques
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Q1) Wassim Masood has been the webmaster for Woori Finance only ten days when Woori's website was flooded with access attempts.Wassim shut down the site and only opened it to Web addresses which he specifically identified as legitimate.As a result,many of Woori's customers were unable to obtain loans,causing Woori to lose a significant amount of business.Woori Finance suffered from a
A)denial-of-service attack.
B)zero-day attack.
C)malware attack.
D)cyber-extortion attack.
Q2) Wassim Masood works in the information technology department of TMV.On Monday morning,he arrived at work,scanned his identity card,and entered his code.At that moment,a lady in a delivery uniform came up behind Wassim with a bunch of boxes.Although Wassim held the door for the delivery lade,he later wondered if the delivery lady was engaged in A)pretexting.
B)piggybacking.
C)posing.
D)spoofing.
Q3) What is social engineering?
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Control and Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is not a basic principle of the COSO ERM framework?
A)Companies are formed to create value for society.
B)Management must decide how much uncertainty it will accept to create value.
C)Uncertainty results in risk.
D)Uncertainty results in opportunity.
Q2) Which internal control framework is widely accepted as the authority on internal controls?
A)COBIT
B)COSO Integrated Control
C)COSO Enterprise Risk Management
D)Sarbanes-Oxley Control Framework
Q3) To ensure compliance with copyrights and to protect itself from software piracy lawsuits,companies should ________.
A)periodically conduct software audits
B)update the operating system frequently
C)buy software from legitimate suppliers
D)adopt cloud operating platforms
Q4) Explain how a company could be the victim of fraud,even if ideal segregation of duties is enforced.
Q5) Explain why the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act was important to accountants.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Controls for Information Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) This protocol specifies the procedures for dividing files and documents into packets to be sent over the Internet.
A)access control list
B)Internet protocol
C)packet switching protocol
D)transmission control protocol
Q2) The most effective method for protecting an organization from social engineering attacks is providing
A)a firewall.
B)stateful packet filtering.
C)a demilitarized zone.
D)employee awareness training.
Q3) The most important element of any preventive control is
A)the people.
B)the performance.
C)the procedure(s).
D)the penalty.
Q4) Describe four requirements of effective passwords .
Q5) Explain social engineering.
Q6) Identify six physical access controls.
10
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Privacy Controls
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Q1) Describe some steps you can take to minimize your risk of identity theft.
Q2) If an organization asks you to disclose your social security number,but fails to establish a set of procedures and policies for protecting your privacy,the organization has likely violated which of the Generally Accepted Privacy Principles?
A)Management
B)Notice
C)Choice and consent
D)Use and retention
Q3) Data masking is also referred to as A)encryption.
B)tokenization.
C)captcha.
D)cookies.
Q4) The system and processes used to issue and manage asymmetric keys and digital certificates are known as A)asymmetric encryption.
B)certificate authority.
C)digital signature.
D)public key infrastructure.
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Chapter 10: Processing Integrity and Availability Controls
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accounting department at Aglaya Telecom records an average of 5,000 transactions per hour.A cost-benefit analysis leads management to conclude that the maximum acceptable amount of data loss is 20,000 transactions.If the firm's recovery time objective is 60 minutes,then the worst case recovery time objective is
A)1 hour.
B)2 hours.
C)3 hours.
D)4 hours.
Q2) Is it best practice for an organization to practice periodically restoring a system from its backup files?
A)No,doing so might introduce errors into the system's data.
B)No,doing so takes the system offline and prevents customers from being able to access the system.
C)Yes,doing so verifies the procedure and backup media are working correctly.
D)Yes,doing so improves the efficiency of the system.
Q3) True or False: Best practice requires backups be retained indefinitely.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define and contrast a recovery point objective and a recovery time objective.
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Chapter 11: Auditing Computer-Based Information Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is not an information systems audit test of controls?
A)Observe computer-site access procedures.
B)Investigate how unauthorized access attempts are handled.
C)Review logical access policies and procedures.
D)Examine the results of disaster recovery plan simulations.
Q2) The ________ audit reviews the general and application controls of an AIS to assess its compliance with internal control policies and procedures and its effectiveness in safeguarding assets.
A)financial
B)information systems
C)management
D)internal control
Q3) True or False: During the evidence evaluation stage of an operational audit,the auditor measures the system against generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the risk-based audit approach.
Q5) Explain why the auditor's role in program development and acquisition should be limited.
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Chapter 12: The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections
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Q1) Segregation of duties controls dictates that the collection and recording functions be kept separate from each other.However,the accounts receivable department needs to know when customers pay their invoices.What is a solution to this potential internal control problem?
A)Establish a lockbox arrangement with a bank.
B)Have customers send a remittance advice with their payment.
C)Have mailroom personnel prepare a remittance list which can be forwarded to accounts receivable.
D)all of the above
Q2) The shipping department at Eka Toys follows policies that determine which carrier will deliver orders according to the size,weight,and destination of the shipment.It maintains standing agreements with shippers that specify legal responsibility for the shipment while it is in transit.The terms of the shipping agreements are documented on A)picking tickets.
B)packing slips.
C)bills of lading.
D)RFID tags.
Q3) Describe typical credit approval procedures.
Q4) Define and describe benefits of a CRM system.
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Chapter 13: The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash Disbursements
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Q1) Ngai Nhung is the sales manager at Hung Technologies.At lunch with the company CEO,Ngai proudly announced that he had received a ________ from a client.The client had just requested a large quantity of components from Hung.
A)blanket purchase order
B)voucher
C)purchase order
D)purchase requisition
Q2) In the expenditure cycle,the majority of payments made are by check.What are some control issues related to payment of vendors by check?
Q3) To accomplish the objectives set forth in the expenditure cycle,a number of key management decisions must be addressed.Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the expenditure cycle?
A)How can cash payments to vendors be managed to maximize cash flow?
B)What is the optimal level of inventory and supplies to carry on hand?
C)Where should inventories and supplies be held?
D)What are the optimal prices for each product or service?
Q4) Identify ten threats and applicable control procedures in the expenditure cycle.
Q5) Under what conditions is MRP more suitable than JIT and vice versa?
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Chapter 14: The Production Cycle
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Q1) The expenses associated with the use of clean rooms in the production of computer hard drives are ________ costs.
A)prevention
B)inspection
C)internal failure
D)external failure
Q2) Which objective listed below is not a cost accounting objective for the production cycle?
A)Provide information for planning,controlling,and evaluating the performance of production operations.
B)Provide cost data about products used in pricing and product mix decisions.
C)Collect and process the information used to calculate inventory and cost of goods sold amounts that appear in the financial statements.
D)Provide tests of audit control functions as part of the AIS.
Q3) Discuss the role the accountant can play in the production cycle.
Q4) Identify and discuss the two common methods of production planning.
Q5) Identify and discuss the two documents that are the result of product design activities.
Q6) What role does the AIS play in the production cycle?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Human Resources Management and Payroll Cycle
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Q1) Discuss the threat of unauthorized changes to the payroll master file and its consequences.
Q2) A payroll clearing account is used to
A)check the accuracy of payroll costs.
B)speed up payroll transaction processing.
C)reduce the transaction costs associated with payroll transaction processing.
D)eliminate the need to manually record payroll transactions.
Q3) All of the following regarding payroll checks is correct except
A)access to payroll checks should be restricted.
B)payroll checks should be sequentially pre-numbered.
C)payroll checks should be drawn on the organization's regular bank account(s).
D)the cashier should sign payroll checks.
Q4) Which type of payroll report contains information such as the employees' gross pay,payroll deductions,and net pay in a multicolumn format?
A)payroll register
B)deduction register
C)employee earnings statement
D)federal W-4 form
Page 17
Q5) Describe benefits and threats of incentive and bonus programs.
Q6) Discuss the various types and sources of input into the HRM/payroll cycle.
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Chapter 16: General Ledger and Reporting System
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the principles of proper graph design for bar charts?
A)Include data values with each element.
B)Use 3-D rather than 2-D bars to make reading easier.
C)Use colors or shades instead of patterns to represent different variables.
D)Use titles that summarize the basic message.
Q2) Identify one way "rainbow tables" are often used.
A)to discover plaintext passwords associated with a hash
B)to integrate different tables into one,master table
C)to perform a zero-balance check
D)to ensure referential integrity of all the associated tables
Q3) The balanced scorecard attempts to solve what major issue associated with traditional accounting reports?
A)Traditional accounting reports focus too narrowly on financial performance.
B)Traditional accounting reports are not easily understood by non-accountants.
C)Traditional accounting reports are expensive to produce.
D)Traditional accounting reports are produced too slowly to provide value.
Q4) What is responsibility accounting?
Q5) How is an audit trail used in the general ledger and reporting system?
Q6) Discuss the value and role of budgets as managerial reports.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Database Design Using the Rea Data Model
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Q1) REA models are usually depicted in which diagramming form?
A)entity-relationship diagrams
B)decision tree diagrams
C)if-then diagrams
D)stock-flow diagrams
Q2) Identify the item below that would be classified as an agent by the REA data model.
A)an IOU from a customer
B)the CFO
C)a customer sale
D)none of the above
Q3) Identify the notation often used to represent cardinality information.
A)dotted lines
B)Greek characters
C)crow's feet
D)color coding
Q4) Define cardinality.
Q5) Describe an REA data model.
Q6) Explain specifically what is meant by the following statement: "Accountants can and should participate in all stages of the database design process."
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Implementing an Rea Model in a Relational Database
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Q1) How many tables are needed to implement an REA data model that has three distinct entities,two M:N relationships and two 1:N relationships in a relational database?
A)5
B)7
C)8
D)10
Q2) An integrated REA diagram merges multiple copies of some entities in order to A)minimize the repetition of agent entities.
B)maximize the legibility of the diagram by avoiding the need to have relationship lines cross one another.
C)Both A and B are true.
D)Both A and B are false.
Q3) In a relational database,which of the following attributes would typically be included in the table that stores data about the Vendor entity?
A)Invoice number
B)Outstanding balance
C)Product code
D)Inventory
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Chapter 19: Special Topics in Rea Modeling
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Q1) Identify the entity linked to almost every other entity in an REA diagram for HRM/payroll cycles.
A)Employee
B)Job title
C)Payroll
D)Worker I.D.
Q2) Financial Institution number is most likely to be a foreign key in
A)Cash.
B)Disburse Cash.
C)Receive Inventory.
D)Warehouse.
Q3) In which entity would an item's standard cost information most likely be maintained?
A)Inventory entity
B)Order_Inventory entity
C)Inventory-Order_Inventory entity
D)none of the above
Q4) Why might an REA diagram show relationships between resources and agents?
Q5) Why is cost information stored in several relational tables?
Q6) Why might an REA diagram show relationships between agents?
22
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Systems Development and Systems Analysis
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Q1) ________ is a form of user resistance where data are erroneously entered into a system.
A)Acceptance
B)Aggression
C)Avoidance
D)Aggravation
Q2) ________ model is the basic model used to create a framework for an economic feasibility analysis.
A)The capital budgeting
B)The cash budgeting
C)The cost/benefit
D)All of the above models are used to create a feasibility framework.
Q3) The question of what the project should and should not accomplish is determined in what step of systems analysis?
A)feasibility study
B)initial investigation
C)systems analysis report
D)systems survey
Q4) What are some of the reasons why behavioral problems occur when a new AIS is introduced?
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Chapter 21: Ais Development Strategies
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Q1) Identify a key advantage of a business process management system (BPMS)as compared to an event-based system.
A)ease of use
B)processing speed
C)cost
D)built in audit trail
Q2) True or False: The IT department should be given control of end-user computing (EUC).
A)True
B)False
Q3) As part of the bidding process required for bidding on providing a new software system to Kinect Incorporated,Thorton Wilder prepared diagrams that represent input and output screenshots.These diagrams are an example of A)CASE.
B)an operational prototype.
C)a RFP.
D)a nonoperational prototype.
Q4) Discuss how information system outsourcing can provide the organization with both a business solution and asset management.
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Chapter 22: Systems Design,implementation,and Operation
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Q1) The ________ is responsible for identifying such risk factors in an implementation plan.
A)implementation team
B)steering committee
C)systems analysis team
D)systems development team
Q2) Describe structured programming.
Q3) ________ is a process used to uncover and eliminate program errors.
A)Black box testing
B)Debugging
C)Desk checking
D)White box testing
Q4) The ________ is responsible for evaluating the design alternatives and selecting the one that best meets the organization's needs.
A)design team
B)implementation committee
C)steering committee
D)systems analysts
Q5) Describe the approaches to system conversion.
Q6) Describe at least four considerations during controls design. Page 25
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