Infectious Diseases Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of infectious diseases, focusing on the biological, clinical, and epidemiological aspects of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Students will explore mechanisms of disease transmission, pathogenesis, immune responses, and strategies for prevention and control, including vaccines and antimicrobial agents. Through case studies and current events, the course emphasizes the global impact of infectious diseases, emerging infections, and public health responses, equipping students with a foundational understanding necessary for careers in healthcare, research, and public health policy.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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62 Chapters
948 Verified Questions
948 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.
A)Staphylococcus Aureus
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus aureus..
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: C
Q2) Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.
A)Escherichia coli
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Escherichia coli..
D)Escherichia Coli
Answer: A
Q3) The proper way to indicate that a bacterium has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be
A)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia.
B)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia ) cepacia
C)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia
D)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia ) cepacia.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uptake of free DNA from the environment and recombination with the recipient's homologous DNA is known as A)mutation.
B)transduction.
C)transformation.
D)induction.
Answer: C
Q2) The mechanism of genetic control in which genes are induced only when the substrate to be degraded by enzymatic action is present is called A)repression.
B)mutation.
C)transduction.
D)induction.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immune system cells primarily function as antibody producers and originate from stem cells?
A)B lymphocytes
B)T lymphocytes
C)Natural killer cells
D)Neutrophils
Answer: A
Q2) Cells that live a day or less circulating in blood and tissues and are usually the first cells on the scene of bacterial invasion are called
A)monocytes.
B)polymorphonuclear neutrophils.
C)lymphocytes.
D)macrophages.
E)All of the above are correct.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) To be sterilized in an autoclave, infectious medical waste should be
A)packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.
B)processed for 15 to 20 minutes at 121° centigrade and 30 psi pressure.
C)processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
D)processed for at least 1 hour at 121° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
Q2) A cleaning solution used on the laboratory benchtop to kill bacteria that are potentially harmful to humans would be called a/an
A)surfactant.
B)disinfectant.
C)biocide.
D)antiseptic.
Q3) Universal precautions include
A)use of barrier devices to prevent exposure to skin and mucous membranes.
B)hand washing.
C)avoiding injuries with sharp objects.
D)all of the above.
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6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capnophiles grow best in
A)ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide.
B)increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O .
C)Five percent to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O .
D)Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%).
Q2) Accurate and rapid presumptive identification
A)can many times provide valuable information to clinicians in the early stages of disease.
B)can many times be accomplished by simple procedures in the laboratory.
C)can sometimes shorten hospitalization time and save money.
D)may save lives of infectious disease patients.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A)To assess the quality of the specimen
B)To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C)To guide the workup of the specimen
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q2) The first step in the Gram stain is the application of the primary stain A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q3) The acid-fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain A)teichoic acids.
B)mycolic acids.
C)peptidoglycan.
D)disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%) is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) Which medium can be described as suppressing the growth of most gram-negative organisms while allowing gram-positive bacteria to grow?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA (colistin, nalidixic acid) blood
C)BHI (brain heart infusion)
D)Thioglycollate
Q3) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?
A)Selective
B)Supportive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determination of the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an unknown organism.
A)Hybridization
B)Sequencing
C)Amplification (PCR)
D)Genotypic
Q2) Hybridization methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are applied repeatedly through numerous cycles.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immunochemical test that involves antigen present in a specimen binding to the combining sites of the antibody exposed on the surfaces of latex beads is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are those that
A)react with many different types of antigens.
B)react with many species of bacteria within the same genus.
C)react with many different antigens of one specific organism.
D)can be produced from many different species of host organisms.
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as
A)a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B)a direct fluorescent antibody test.
C)an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D)a radioimmunoassay.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibody-mediated immune responses produced by specific proteins are generated by
A)lymphocytes of the T (thymus-derived) class.
B)lymphocytes of the B (bone marrow-derived) class.
C)neutrophils.
D)basophils.
Q2) Neutralizing antibodies are
A)those that function by attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement.
B)those that function by binding to and blocking surface receptors for host cells.
C)those that function by attaching to the surface of pathogens and making the pathogens more amenable to ingestion by phagocytic cells.
D)those that function by attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by chemotaxis.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q2) Penicillin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q3) Antibiotic resistance that results from altered cellular physiology and structure caused by changes in a microorganism's usual genetic makeup is known as
A)intrinsic resistance.
B)inherent resistance.
C)acquired resistance.
D)environmentally mediated resistance.
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13
Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important requirement for appropriate inoculum preparation in susceptibility testing includes
A)use of a pure culture.
B)use of an inoculum that matches the severity of the infection.
C)use of a single isolated colony.
D)use of a variety of colony types.
Q2) The difference between the serum bactericidal test and the minimum bactericidal concentration test is that
A)the medium used is patient's serum.
B)the source of the antibiotic used in testing is the patient's own serum that contains the therapeutic antimicrobial agent(s) that the patient has been receiving.
C)the antibacterial impact of factors other than the antibiotics also are observed.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Enterococcal resistance to ampicillin predicts resistance to A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins. D)amikacin.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of A)clumping factor.
B)free coagulase.
C)extracellular coagulase.
D)catalase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The species of Staphylococcus that is one of the most important human pathogens is
A)Staphylococcus luteus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus mucilaginosus.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
Q3) The resident human flora staphylococcus that is more likely to cause infections in compromised hosts such as cancer patients is
A)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be described as
A)susceptible to bile and optochin.
B)alpha hemolytic.
C)a major cause of bacterial meningitis.
D)often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule.
E)All of the above are true.
Q2) What morphologic feature is a major consideration in determining an identification scheme for streptococci?
A)Colony shape and color
B)Hemolytic pattern
C)Smell
D)Consistency
Q3) The drug of choice for most enterococcal infections is
A)vancomycin and a penicillin.
B)clindamycin and vancomycin.
C)a penicillin and an aminoglycoside.
D)Septra.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Media that can be used for isolation of Bacillus anthracis include
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)CNA blood agar.
Q2) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible, and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary inoculation to a Loeffler slant, overnight incubation, and subculture of any growth to cystine-tellurite blood agar is no longer recommended for recovery of
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q2) Patients who are immunocompromised and pregnant women should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style, feta, brie, Camembert, and blue-veined cheese to prevent
A)foodborne listeriosis.
B)staphylococcal food poisoning.
C)gastric gangrene.
D)salmonella infection.
Q3) A bacterium described as being coryneform has which type of morphology?
A)Short rods with rounded ends arranged singly, in "palisades" of parallel cells
B)Short rods in pairs that remain connected after cell division to form V or L shapes
C)Bacilli that resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothirix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, non-branching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into TSI agar is most likely
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q2) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q3) Large numbers of large gram-positive bacilli are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)no apparent vaginal infection.
C)bacterial vaginosis caused by Lactobacillus sp.
D)gonorrhea
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend into the air that are called A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
Q2) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface that are called
A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
Q3) Partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus
C)Gordona
D)Tsukamurella
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enterotoxigenic and enteroinvasive are terms often linked to which of the following bacterial species?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Salmonella enteritidis
C)Shigella sonnei
D)Yersinia pestis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Not only is this group of gram-negative bacteria considered normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals, but also it contains agents of important diseases such as gastroenteritis and enteric fevers, urinary tract infections, and bacterial pneumonia.
A)Neisseriaceae
B)Micrococcaceae
C)Enterococcus
D)Enterobacteriaceae
Q3) MacConkey-sorbitol agar is useful for detecting pathogenic strains of
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Shigella species.
C)Salmonella species.
D)Vibrio species.
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiation of S.maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by A)the oxidase test.
B)maltose and glucose medium.
C)tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
Q3) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes the source of Burkholderia cepacia infections?
A)Plants, soil, and water
B)Medical devices medical solutions
C)Contaminated foods
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) An organism described as oxidase-positive, TSI slant with an alkaline/no change, good growth at 42° C, and producing bright bluish green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q3) All Brevundimonas, Burkholderia, Ralstonia, Pseudomonas, and Acidovorax share which of the following characteristics?
A)Oxidase-positive
B)Utilize glucose oxidatively
C)Able to grow on MacConkey agar
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and
Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Psychrobacter immobilis.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Paracoccus yeei.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia .
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24
Chapter 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Agrobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Among the yellow-pigmented, oxidase-positive, glucose oxidizers that are occasionally encountered in human specimens are
A)Chryseobacterium meningosepticum.
B)Flavobacterium meningosepticum.
C)Sphingobacterium spiritivorum.
D)Empedobacter brevis.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Chryseobacterium.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Staphylococcus.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough), an epidemic disease, is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by
A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
Q2) Myroides is
A)oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B)urease-positive and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar and at 42° C.
D)nonmotile and both urea- and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) Which statement best describes the habitats of Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats vary from the soil and water environment to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited to the mucous membranes of humans and animals.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) The primary habitat for Plesiomonas shigelloides and Chromobacterium violaceum is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q2) Stool specimens suspected of containing which enteric pathogen should be collected and transported only in Cary-Blair medium because buffered glycerol saline is toxic for this bacterium?
A)Vibrio
B)Salmonella
C)Shigella
D)Plesiomonas
Q3) The primary habitat for Aeromonas spp.is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Sphingobacterium spp.can be described as
A)oxidase-negative, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
B)oxidase-positive, glucose-oxidizing, gram-negative bacilli that fail to grow on MacConkey agar.
C)oxidase-positive, glucose-fermenting, gram-negative bacilli that grow on MacConkey agar.
D)oxidase-positive, non-glucose-utilizing, gram-negative bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar.
Q2) Which statement best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats are unknown.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella elongata appears as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
Q2) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobials.
D)performing the DNA test.
Q3) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections, primarily of the respiratory tract, is
A)Moraxella catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by which characteristic?
A)Its pink pigmentation
B)Its grapelike odor
C)Its large spreading colony morphology
D)Its bleachlike odor
Q2) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Eikenella.
D)Staphylococcus.
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli, which bacterial species can be recognized in culture by its bleachlike odor?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Kingella spp by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Capnocytophaga hominis by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for indole.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Capnocytophaga hominis can be distinguished from Haemophilus aphrophilus by A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for indole.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from Haemophilus aphrophilus by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Very short bacilli occasionally seen as filamentous forms
A)H. haemolyticus
B)H. influenzae biotype aegypticus
C)H. influenzae
D)H. segnis
E)H. parainfluenzae
Q3) Coccobacilli or small rods
A)H. haemolyticus
B)H. influenzae biotype aegypticus
C)H. influenzae
D)H. segnis
E)H. parainfluenzae
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatitis can all be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) A common characteristic of the bacterial species Bartonella henselae and Afipia felis is
A)both are believed to cause cat-scratch disease.
B)the ability to grow on chocolate agar but not very well on routine blood (trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood) and not at all on MacConkey agar.
C)that primary isolation from clinical specimens is best accomplished using special cultivation conditions.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of A)metronidazole.
B)bismuth.
C)tetracycline.
D)All of the above.
Q2) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by
A)direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B)contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C)multiplication of the organism in food products.
D)direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
Q3) Making sure that all foods derived from animal sources are thoroughly cooked, all milk is pasteurized, and all drinking water is chlorinated are ways to avoid becoming infected with A)Helicobacter.
B)Arcobacter.
C)Enterobacter.
D)Campylobacter.
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35
Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) A nonmotile, urease- and nitrate-positive, strictly aerobic gram-negative coccobacillus is most likely
A)Bordetella.
B)Moraxella.
C)Kingella.
D)Acinetobacter.
E)Brucella.
Q2) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are
A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough) is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q3) During the catarrhal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)vomiting and "whooping" as air is rapidly inspired into the lungs past the swollen glottis.
D)lymphocytosis and fever.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Francisella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) One of the most common laboratory-acquired infections that is caused by a Biosafety Level 2 pathogen is caused by
A)Bordetella pertussis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Sodoku, characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion is caused by
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Bordetella species.
D)Pasteurella species.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by ingestion of the bacterium is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Determination of carbohydrate utilization patterns for differentiation of Neisseria spp.and M.catarrhalis is best done by
A)48- to 72-hour incubation of inoculated cystine trypticase soy agar (CTA) with 1% dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
B)oxidative-fermentative (OF) medium with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
C)heavy inoculation of buffered, low-peptone substrate with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
D)carbohydrate testing strips.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding the pathogenesis of N.cinerea?
A)N.cinerea is a leading cause of fatal bacterial meningitis.
B)Virulence factors include pili, capsule formation, and endotoxin.
C)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and thrombocytopenia are complications of infection.
D)N.cinerea is commonly encountered as a contaminant in clinical specimens.
E)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Feces in a sterile specimen cup
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q2) Recapping a syringe and transporting the needle and syringe to the laboratory ensures the preservation of the anaerobic nature of this type of specimen and
A) is the method of a. choice for transporting specimens for anaerobic culture.
B) is not acceptable for transporting specimens for anaerobic culture because of safety concerns involving needlestick injuries.
C) is rapidly replacing other methods of transporting specimens for anaerobic culture because of the effective preservation of the anaerobic nature of this type of specimen.
D) is the method of choice for transporting fluid and other aspirated specimens for anaerobic culture.
Q3) Cervical swab
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q4) Urine via catheter
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
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Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of a bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative, and indole-negative anaerobic Gram negative bacilli is
A)nonpigmented Prevotella.
B)Porphyromonas spp.
C)Bacteroides fragilis group.
D)pigmented Prevotella.
E)Bacteroides ureolyticus.
Q2) The media used for isolating the anaerobic agent of bacteremia may include A)thioglycollate.
B)Schaedler's broth.
C)thiol broth.
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The media used for culturing a blood specimen for anaerobes may include A)anaerobic blood agar.
B)Schaedler's broth.
C)5% sheep blood agar.
D)laked kanamycin-vancomycin blood agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The type of specimen collected for mycobacterial studies that must be neutralized with 10% sodium carbonate is
A)spontaneously produced sputum.
B)gastric lavage.
C)transtracheal aspiration.
D)bronchial lavage.
Q2) The Runyon system of classification is based on
A)colony and microscopic morphology.
B)biochemical characteristics.
C)growth rate and colonial pigmentation.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) One drawback associated with the fluorochrome stain method for detecting Mycobacterium is that
A)it is less sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B)it requires the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C)many rapid-growers may not appear fluorescent with these reagents.
D)it increases the amount of time needed for examining smears.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligate intracellular parasitism is A)Ehrlichia.
B)Chlamydia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
Q2) The extracellular, metabolically inert, infective form of the Chlamydia is called the A)reticulate body.
B)elementary body.
C)replicate body.
D)initial body.
Q3) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligate intracellular parasitism is A)Rickettsia.
B)Ehrlichia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Q2) The natural habitat of Mycoplasma sp., which causes infectious disease in humans, can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of humans.
B)the aquatic environment.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Compared to other spirochetes, Borrelia can be described as
A)long, more slender, with hooked ends.
B)somewhat thicker with fewer and looser coils.
C)long, more slender, with tight coils.
D)somewhat thicker than treponemes with fewer and looser coils.
Q2) A self-limiting illness and the most common clinical syndrome associated with leptospires that includes fever, headache, myalgia, and aseptic meningitis in the immune stage is called
A)icteric leptospirosis.
B)anicteric leptospirosis.
C)Weil's disease.
D)syphilis.
Q3) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by the appearance of a chancre is known as
A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)late syphilis.
D)tertiary syphilis.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) Strongyloides stercoralis
A)Rectal tape prep
B)Tissue biopsy
C)Sputum
D)Feces
E)Blood smear
Q2) The eggs of which intestinal parasite are not commonly found in feces and must be detected by other diagnostic techniques?
A)Giardia lamblia
B)Cryptosporidium parvum
C)Clonorchis sinensis
D)Enterobius vermicularis
Q3) Trichinella spiralis
A)Rectal tape prep
B)Tissue biopsy
C)Sputum
D)Feces
E)Blood smear
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) Chlamydoconidia are produced by
A)hyphae fragmentation through the points of septation.
B)the rounding up and enlargement of the terminal cells of the hyphae in which there is a concentration of protoplasm and nutrient material.
C)the union of two matching types of Zygomycetes.
D)ascocarps that are multiplied by binary fission.
Q2) Which group of fungi produce infections that involve the superficial areas of the body, including the hair, skin, and nails?
A)Dermatophytes
B)Zygomycetes
C)Dimorphic fungi
D)Dematiaceous fungi
Q3) Large, spherical, thick-walled yeast cells 8 to 15 µm in diameter, usually with a single bud that is connected to the parent cell by a broad base, usually indicates infection with A)Coccidioides immitis.
B)Blastomyces dermatitidis.
C)Histoplasma capsulatum.
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) The test of choice for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis caused by enterovirus is
A)cell culture.
B)PCR.
C)antigenemia immunoassay.
D)shell vial assay.
Q2) Membrane ELISA tests in clinical virology
A)are well suited for high-volume testing and where rapid results are not needed.
B)cannot be performed by those with minimum training.
C)include vials of positive and negative sera for quality monitoring of test procedures.
D)involve a handheld reaction chamber with a cellulose-like membrane, reagents to apply to the membrane, and a chromogenic reaction.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Measures to avoid bacterial contamination in viral cultures include
A)centrifugation of specimen.
B)vortexing with sterile glass beads.
C)filtering specimen using a disposable 2-mm filter.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Endotoxin
A)A lipopolysaccharide comprising part of the cell wall structure of gram-negative bacteria that has a strong effect on several physiologic functions during septicemia
B)A condition in which bacteria or their products (toxins) are causing harm to the host
C)The syndrome in which bacteremia causes disease, characterized by fever, acute respiratory distress, shock, renal failure, intravascular coagulation, and tissue destruction
D)Infections that result from bacteria entering the blood circulation through the lymphatic system from another site of infection
Q2) In the case of infants and small children, how much blood can usually be drawn for bacterial culture?
A)No more than 10 mL
B)1 to 5 mL
C)0.5 mL
D)1 mL
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age) is
A)Haemophilus influenzae, type
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)type A influenza virus.
E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q2) Of the various types of specimens collected to diagnose respiratory infections, which one is acceptable for detection of anaerobic agents?
A)Tracheostomy aspirates
B)Bronchial washings
C)Gastric aspirates
D)Transtracheal aspirates
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) An infection of the epiglottis and other soft tissues above the vocal cords that typically presents with fever, difficulty in swallowing because of pain, drooling, and respiratory obstruction with inspiratory stridor is called A)epiglottitis.
B)pharyngitis.
C)Vincent's angina.
D)rhinitis.
E)thrush.
Q2) Laryngitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The most common source of infection in the central nervous system is A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in central nervous system structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q2) Large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are called A)the choroid plexus.
B)ventricles.
C)meninges.
D)pia mater.
Q3) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is called
A)dura mater. B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) The organism(s) that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac that exist as indigenous flora is(are)
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B)Lactobacillus spp.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q2) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q3) Keratitis
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
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Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Cystitis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)The isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency but yielding fewer organisms than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract is
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeasts.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Vaginitis
A)Inflammation of the vaginal mucosa resulting in abnormal discharge and an offensive odor or itching
B)A polymicrobial type of vaginitis characterized by mild perivaginal irritation and a foul-smelling discharge
C)An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy.
D)A mild to severe inflammation of the testicles that is generally acquired by blood-borne dissemination of viruses such as the mumps virus
Q2) Large amounts of epithelial cells, many of which are covered by tiny gram-variable rods and coccobacilli, and the absence of inflammatory cells in vaginal discharge is a sign of
A)pelvic inflammatory disease.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)bacterial vaginosis.
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Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of A)anaerobic species.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Enterococcus.
D)Enterobacteriaceae.
Q3) MacConkey agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q4) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Page 58
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) Progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
Q2) The most reliable specimen for determining the etiology of ulcers and nodules are
A)from the base of the ulcer or nodule.
B)those collected following removal of overlying debris.
C)those collected by surgical biopsy of deep tissues.
D)those collected without contact with the superficial layers of the lesion.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q2) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Q1) Performance of a new procedure several times on the same sample and evaluating the range of test results would be validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
Q2) The percentage of true-negative test results based on the prevalence of the disease in the population studied is referred to as A)accuracy.
B)predictive value negative.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
E)predictive value positive.
Q3) The reproducibility of a test when it is run (repeated) several times is called A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Long-term storage (>1 year) of stock aerobic and anaerobic bacteria can be accomplished by
A)subculture onto trypticase soy agar (TSA) slants.
B)freezing at 70° C.
C)storing them on blood agar plates at 37° C.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens, such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest, is called
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when they entered the hospital is referred to as
A)an autonomous infection.
B)a nosocomial infection.
C)an opportunistic infection.
D)septic introduction.
Q3) Microorganisms are spread in hospitals through
A)direct contact in contaminated food or intravenous solutions.
B)indirect contact from patient to patient on the hands of health care workers.
C)inhalation of droplets.
D)vector-borne contact.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
Q2) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q3) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
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