Immunology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Immunology is the study of the immune system, its structure, functions, and role in defending the body against disease-causing organisms and foreign substances. This course covers the components of the innate and adaptive immune responses, mechanisms of immune recognition, development of immune cells, and the molecular and cellular basis of immune responses. Students will explore key concepts such as antigen presentation, antibody formation, immunological memory, hypersensitivity, autoimmunity, and immunodeficiency. Emphasis is placed on the clinical implications of immunological principles, including applications in vaccination, transplantation, allergy, and emerging therapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology Serology in Laboratory Medicine 5th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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33 Chapters
851 Verified Questions
851 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Overview of Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of clonal selection include:
A) antigen binding to a unique antigen receptor site.
B) activation of antigen-bound lymphocytes.
C) proliferation of antigen-bound lymphocytes.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) T lymphocytes respond to:
A) antigens presented on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell.
B) antigens on microorganisms or other living cells.
C) native antigenic determinants of appropriate fit.
D) antigens floating in body fluids.
Answer: A
Q3) The immune system has distinctive characteristics,such as memory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The immune system has distinctive characteristics,such as immobility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plateau phase
A)Antibody concentration increases rapidly
B)Antibody is catabolized.
C)Antibody titer is stabile.
D)No antibody is detectable.
Answer: C
Q2) Another name for the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)in humans is:
A) human leukocyte antigen.
B) allogenic antigens.
C) epitopes.
D) autoantigens.
Answer: A
Q3) Tears,saliva,and other body secretions typically contain:
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgD.
D) IgA.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Granulocytes and Mononuclear Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Niemann-Pick disease
A)Deficiency of sphingomyelinase
B)Deficiency of a-glucocerebrosidase
Answer: A
Q2) Polymorphonuclear neutrophilic (PMN)leukocytes
A)Primary phagocytic cells
B)Recognition of foreign antigen
C)Antibody-synthesizing cells
Answer: A
Q3) The sequence of blood cell development in the embryo and fetus is:
A) yolk sac,liver-spleen,bone marrow.
B) yolk sac,bone marrow,liver/spleen.
C) liver-spleen,yolk sac,bone marrow.
D) bone marrow,liver-spleen,yolk sac.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Lymphocytes and Plasma Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bruton's disorder
A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens
Q2) Which characteristic is not associated with B lymphocytes?
A) Demonstrate surface immunoglobulin (sIg)
B) Differentiate into plasma cells with antigenic stimulation
C) Participate in an anamnestic response as memory cells
D) Can directly lyse a foreign antigen
Q3) The CD cell surface membrane marker that appears during the first stage of T lymphocyte development and remains present as an identifying marker to T lymphocytes is:
A) CD2.
B) CD4.
C) CD8.
D) CD10.
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Chapter 5: Soluble Mediators of the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physiologic or cellular consequences of complement activation can include:
A) production of inflammatory mediators.
B) cytolysis or hemolysis.
C) opsonization.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Cytokines are also referred to as interleukins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Complement is characterized by all the following except:
A) collection of proteins synthesized in the liver.
B) heat-labile series of 18 plasma proteins.
C) normally present in the circulation in an inactive form.
D) normally present in the circulation as an active enzyme.
Q4) C3
A)Acute-phase protein
B)Most common complement deficiency
C)Useful with results of anti-DNA in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
D)Associated with Raynaud's phenomenon
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Chapter 6: Safety in the Immunology-Serology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipstick or makeup should not be applied in the clinical work area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gloves should be changed between each patient contact.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Preemployment health profiles of students and laboratory staff should include immune status evaluation for ________________ at a minimum.
A) hepatitis B
B) rubella
C) measles
D) all of the above
Q4) Standard Precautions refer to:
A) treating blood as potentially infectious.
B) treating blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious.
C) treating body fluids as potentially infectious.
D) none of the above.
Q5) Sterile gloves must be used for all laboratory work.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Quality Assurance and Quality Control
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Q1) Median
A)Middle value in a body of data
B)Value that occurs most frequently in a mass of data
C)Mathematical average calculated by dividing the sum of all individual values by the number of values
Q2) Precision
A)How close a test result is to the true value
B)Highly purified substances of a known composition
C)Specimen with a known value that is similar in composition to the test specimen
D)How close the test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same material are performed
Q3) Expected or normal (reference)values
A)Quality control
B)Sources of error
C)Principle and purpose of the test
D)Procedural protocol
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Chapter 8: Basic Serologic Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) A graduated pipette can be used when:
A) extreme accuracy is needed.
B) very precise accuracy is needed.
C) great accuracy is not needed.
D) speed is more important than precision.
Q2) A dilution is a(n):
A) ratio of volume or number of parts of the substance to be diluted in the total volume,or parts,of the final solution.
B) indication of relative concentration.
C) frequently used measure in serologic testing.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Chyle
A)Rupturing of red blood cells that produces a pink or reddish color to serum or plasma
B)Emulsion of fat globules that often appears in serum after eating,during digestion
C)Yellowish color to plasma or serum
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Chapter 9: Point-Of-Care Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultimate responsibility and control of POCT reside within the CLIA-certified laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Waived tests
A)More complex than waived tests but usually automated
B)Usually nonautomated or complicated tests requiring considerable judgment
C)Simple procedures
D)Slide examinations
Q3) Ectopic pregnancy cannot be distinguished from normal pregnancy by using only hCG measurements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A major advantage of point-of-care testing (POCT)is:
A) faster turnaround time.
B) lower cost.
C) no need for quality control monitoring.
D) both a and c
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11
Chapter 10: Agglutination Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most efficient type of antibodies in agglutination reactions are:
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
Q2) Prozone phenomenon
A)The zone in which optimum precipitation occurs
B)An excessive antibody concentration that produces a FALSE -negative reaction
C)An excessive antigen concentration that results in no lattice formation
D)An equal amount of antigen and antibody concentrations
Q3) Flocculation
A)Uses antibodies bound to a particle to enhance the visibility of the reaction
B)Based on the interaction of soluble antigen with antibody
C)Detects antibodies with erythrocyte antigens
Q4) Prozone phenomenon
A)Dilute patient's serum and retest.
B)Wash cells according to directions;use positive and negative quality control (QC)steps.
C)Repeat blood specimen should be collected a week or more later.
D)Calibrate centrifuge to proper speed and time.
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Chapter 11: Electrophoresis Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Second step
A)Proteins are separated by their net charge.
B)Polyspecific antisera are applied to 10 electrophoretic patterns.
C)Protein reference patterns are stained and examined.
D)Monospecific antisera are applied to five electrophoretic patterns.
Q2) The immunoelectrophoresis of a normal serum typically depicts IgM,IgG,and IgA bands,but IgD and IgE bands are missing because:
A) of a technical error.
B) the patient is immunodeficient for IgD and IgE.
C) the prozone produces a false-negative result.
D) normal concentrations of IgD and IgE are too low to be detected.
Q3) Immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)is considered to be a better technique than immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE)for typing large monoclonal gammopathies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Heterogeneous
A)The antigen-antibody precipitation line resembles a segment or arc of a circle.
B)The antigen-antibody precipitation line assumes an elliptical shape.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Labeling Techniques in Immunoassay
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fluorescent substance or dye absorbs light of one wavelength and emits light of another wavelength.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
A)Semiconductor nanocrystals
B)Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles
C)Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
D)Molecular cytogenetic technique
E)May be used in many fluorescent and colorimetric applications
Q3) Indirect immunofluorescent assay
A)Antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins.
B)Conjugated antibody is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions at a microscopic level.
C)An antigen is first exposed to unlabeled antibody and then to labeled antibody.
Q4) In fluorescent antibody microscopy using a fluorescent substance or dye,the incident light is infrared.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Automated Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fluorescent polarization immunoassay can perform a(n):
A) microparticle enzyme immunoassay.
B) fluorescence polarization immunoassay.
C) ion capture technologies.
D) all of the above.
Q2) In nephelometry measurement,a __________________method is used.
A) variable-time
B) fixed-time
C) fluorescent-tagging
D) competitive immunoassay
Q3) Laser is an acronym for:
A) light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
B) light augmentation by stimulated emitted radiation.
C) light amplified by stimulated energy radiation.
D) large angle stimulation by emitted radiation.
Q4) Monoclonal antibodies can produce spurious results in nephelometry.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Molecular Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Southern blot
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Use of labeled antibodies specific for the protein of interest
Q2) Amplification of nucleic acid fragments from a different target is performed with: A) PCR.
B) reverse transcriptase-PCR (RT-PCR).
C) multiplex PCR.
D) real-time PCR.
Q3) Transcription-mediated amplification
A)This amplifies target nucleic acid without the use of a thermocycler.A double-stranded DNA fragment is created and becomes the target for exponential amplification.
B)An isothermal assay that targets either DNA or RNA but generates RNA as its amplified product.
C)Oligonucleotide pairs hybridize to target sequences within the gene or the cryptic plasmid.
D)Only RNA is targeted for amplification.
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16
Chapter 15: The Immune Response in Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Major immunologic defense mechanisms against bacteria include:
A) lysozyme.
B) phagocytosis.
C) interferon production.
D) both a and b
Q2) Histoplasmosis
A)Latex particle agglutination
B)ImmunoCAP system
C)Fungus media nucleic acid probe
Q3) Primary infection with the virus results in the clinical manifestations of
A)Shingles
B)Chickenpox
Q4) Rubella
A)The most common congenital virus infection
B)A spectrum of congenital defects
C)Hydrocephalus,intracranial calcification,and retinochoroiditis-the most common manifestations of tissue damage
D)Sequelae of virus infection (include three distinct neurologic syndromes)
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Chapter 16: A Primer on Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytomegalovirus vaccine
A)Protection against bioterrorism
B)Protection against cervical cancer
C)Not available for preventing congenital infection
D)DNA-based vaccine
E)Annual vaccination required
Q2) Therapeutic vaccine
A)Given to HIV-negative individuals
B)For HIV-positive patients to improve their immune system
Q3) Smallpox vaccine
A)Has reduced disease by 99%
B)Successful in cats
C)Given to high-risk individuals
Q4) Hay fever vaccine
A)Protection against bioterrorism
B)Protection against cervical cancer
C)Not available for preventing congenital infection
D)DNA-based vaccine
E)Annual vaccination required
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Chapter 17: Streptococcal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance that could mediate the fever,shock,and tissue injury observed in patients with STSS is:
A) antibody against antistreptolysin O (ASO).
B) M protein.
C) TNF-a.
D) lymphokine.
Q2) The principle of the optical immunoassay involves:
A) anti-GAS (antibody)being attached (immobilized)to a thin film.
B) S.pyogenes being attached (immobilized)to a thin film.
C) a color change in the presence of antigen binding.
D) a color change in the absence of antibody binding.
Q3) Rising titer
A)Current infection
B)Past infection
C)Trend toward recovery
D)Rules out Streptococcus pyogenes infection
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19
Chapter 18: Syphilis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spirochetemia
A)Diagnosis only by serologic methods
B)Presence of gummas
C)Development of a chancre
D)Generalized illness followed by macular lesions in most patients
E)Very early in infection,even before the first lesions
Q2) The term for nontreponemal antibodies produced by syphilis-infected patients against components of their own or other mammalian cells is:
A) autoagglutinins.
B) reagin antibodies.
C) alloantibodies.
D) nonsyphilis antibodies.
Q3) Syphilis develops in which percentage of the sexual partners of persons with syphilitic lesions?
A) 10% to 25%
B) 25% to 40%
C) 30% to 50%
D) 50% to 75%
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Chapter 19: Vector-Borne Diseases
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Q1) Most U.S.cases of Lyme disease remain concentrated in ____________ regions.
A) northeastern
B) north-central
C) Pacific coastal
D) all of the above
Q2) I.persulcatus
A)Europe
B)Western United States
C)Asia
D)Northeastern and Midwestern United States
Q3) One of the most widely available assays for antibody in Lyme disease is:
A) EIA for total IgM or IgG antibodies.
B) Southern blot test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA).
D) RIA.
Q4) Preferred host for larval and nymphal stages of I.scapularis.
A)White-footed mouse
B)White-tailed deer
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Chapter 20: Toxoplasmosis
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Q1) The preferred method for detection of T.gondii is:
A) culture.
B) ELISA.
C) IFA.
D) PCR.
Q2) The PCR assay for T.gondii can be performed on:
A) serum or plasma.
B) fresh or frozen biopsy tissue.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Congenital toxoplasmosis can result in:
A) central nervous system (CNS)malformation.
B) prenatal mortality.
C) congenital heart defects.
D) both a and b
Q4) The best evidence of toxoplasmosis infection is a significant change in:
A) two appropriately timed specimens.
B) acute and convalescent specimens.
C) two appropriate specimens analyzed at the same time in the laboratory.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 21: Cytomegalovirus
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Q1) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)is related to:
A) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
B) herpes simplex 1.
C) herpes simplex 2.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Primary and recurrent maternal CMV infections cannot be transmitted in utero.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All the herpesviruses are relatively large,enveloped ________ viruses.
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) retro
D) both b and c
Q4) Individuals with the greatest risk of developing CMV infection are:
A) fetuses.
B) immunocompromised individuals.
C) persons older than 40 years.
D) both a and b
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Chapter 22: Infectious Mononucleosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Davidsohn differential test
A)Distinguishes between heterophil antibodies;uses beef erythrocytes,guinea pig kidney cells,and sheep erythrocytes
B)Detects heterophil antibodies and uses horse erythrocytes
C)Detects heterophil antibodies and uses sheep erythrocytes
Q2) All the following statements about Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)are true except that it:
A) usually causes an acute,benign condition.
B) usually causes a self-limiting,lymphoproliferative condition.
C) is the cause of Burkitt's lymphoma.
D) is not an agent in the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
Q3) Anti-VCA immunoglobulin G (IgG)is usually detectable within:
A) 24 hours.
B) 72 hours.
C) 3 to 5 days.
D) 4 to 7 days.
Q4) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)heterophil antibody is characterized by reaction with horse,ox,and sheep erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Viral Hepatitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hepatitis viruses can result in chronic infection and the potential development of liver cancer?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Both b and c
Q2) Hepatitis A virus infection
A)Long-incubation hepatitis
B)Infectious hepatitis or short-incubation hepatitis
Q3) A chronic carrier state (persistent infection)and chronic hepatitis (chronic liver disease)_______ occur as long-term sequelae of hepatitis A.
A) do
B) do not
Q4) Hepatitis B virus infection
A)Long-incubation hepatitis
B)Infectious hepatitis or short-incubation hepatitis
Q5) Hepatitis B
A)Primary hepatitis virus
B)Secondary hepatitis virus
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Chapter 24: Rubella and Rubeola Infections
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Q1) IgG rubella antibody in a concentration of 1:8 or greater indicates:
A) past infection with rubella virus.
B) clinical protection against future rubella infection.
C) acute infection with rubella virus.
D) both a and b
Q2) No rubella infection outbreaks have occurred in the United States in the recent past.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fill in the blanks.The incubation period of acquired rubella infection varies,but (1)___________ days is typical.Infected persons are usually contagious for 12 to 15 days,beginning (2)_______days before the appearance of a rash (if present).Acute rubella infection lasts from (3)_____days and generally requires minimal treatment.Permanent effects are extremely rare in those with an acquired infection.
A)3 to 5
B)5 to 7
C)12 to 14
D)12 to 15
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Chapter 25: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Q1) The HIV infectious process begins when the protein on the viral envelope binds to the protein receptor _______ on the surface of a target cell.
A)CD8
B)CD4
C)p24
D)p26
Q2) A protein included in the core of the HIV-1 virus is called:
A) gp41.
B) p24.
C) p25.
D) either b or c
Q3) Human immunodeficiency virus can enter the body with cells associated with HIV.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pattern 2: Africa,Caribbean,parts of South America.
A)Primarily a disease of heterosexuals
B)Fewer known cases of HIV-AIDS
C)Primarily a disease of homosexuals and intravenous (IV)drug abusers
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Chapter 26: Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Q1) Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for:
A) contact sensitivity.
B) elimination of tumor cells bearing neoantigens.
C) rejection of foreign graft tissue.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The Arthus reaction is associated with the immune phenomenon of:
A) deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels.
B) release of histamine from tissue basophils.
C) destruction of body tissue by cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
D) phagocytosis of IgG-coated erythrocytes.
Q3) Immune complex reactions can:
A) suppress or augment the immune response.
B) inhibit tumor cell destruction.
C) be deposited in blood vessel walls,glomerular membranes,and other sites.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Delayed hypersensitivity
A)Cell-mediated
B)Antibody-mediated
C)Dependent on the host's response to a subsequent exposure of antigen
D)Not mediated by antigen-antibody interaction
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Immunoproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major growth factor for multiple myeloma (MM)cells is:
A) IL-2.
B) IL-6.
C) IL-20.
D) IL-22.
Q2) MGUS is characterized by all the following except:
A) fewer than 10% plasma cells in the bone marrow.
B) presence of lytic bone lesions.
C) anemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
Q3) Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate at:
A) -18° C.
B) -4° C.
C) 0° C.
D) 4° C.
Q4) The most consistent immunologic feature of multiple myeloma (MM)is:
A) constant synthesis of a dysfunctional single monoclonal protein.
B) incessant synthesis of immunoglobulin chains of fragments.
C) suppression of the synthesis of normal functional antibody.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 28: Autoimmune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antineutrophil antibody
A)Measures antibody to nuclear antigens
B)Produces a characteristic granular cytoplasmic staining pattern to cytoplasmic constituents of granulocytes
C)An antibody to a basic nonhistone nuclear protein
D)Found in about 80% of patients with pernicious anemia
Q2) Similarities between organ-specific and organ-nonspecific disorders include the fact that circulating autoantibodies react with normal body constituents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parenchymal destruction by questionable cell-mediated hypersensitivity or antibodies.
A)Organ-specific
B)Organ- nonspecific
Q4) Anticardiolipin antibody is associated with:
A) rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
B) multiple sclerosis (MS).
C) pernicious anemia (PA).
D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
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Chapter 29: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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Q1) A speckled pattern in antinuclear antibody (ANA)testing characterizes:
A) dsDNA,histones,and DNA-histone complexes.
B) anti-RNP and anti-Sm.
C) centromere proteins A,B,and C.
D) nuclear lamins A,B,and C and nuclear pore proteins.
Q2) Which autoimmune disorder is indicated by an increased titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith)antibody?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Progressive systemic sclerosis
D) Polymyositis
Q3) Antibodies directed against ___________ cells,including the membrane molecules that mediate their responses,are regularly detected in patients with SLE.
A) T
B) B
C) plasma
D) macrophage
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Chapter 30: Rheumatoid Arthritis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51620
Sample Questions
Q1) Pathogenic mechanisms hypothesized for rheumatoid arthritis include:
A) an infective agent or other stimulus binds to receptors on dendritic cells (DCs).
B) activated T lymphocytes proliferate and migrate into the joint.
C) complement activation.
D) both a and b
Q2) Prognostic markers that may help identify patients with more severe RA who are still in the early stages of the disease include the presence of certain HLA class I alleles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include antinuclear antibodies (ANAs). A)True
B)False
Q4) Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Solid Organ Transplantation
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51621
Sample Questions
Q1) HLA-B27 antigen is the only HLA antigen with a disease association strong enough to be useful in the differential diagnosis of:
A) Reiter's syndrome.
B) juvenile chronic arthritis with spinal involvement.
C) anterior uveitis.
D) ankylosing spondylitis.
Q2) Immunosuppression is used for the suppression of established rejection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Potential graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)has all the following factor requirements except:
A) a source of immunocompetent T lymphocytes.
B) a source of immunocompetent B lymphocytes.
C) age of the blood product.
D) inability to reject donor cells.
Q4) The stronger the antigen difference,the more severe the graft-versus-host reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Bone Marrow Transplantation
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51622
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type(s)of microorganisms found in bone marrow (BM)or peripheral blood stem cells (PBSCs)after transplantation infections is (are):
A) fungi.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) both a and c
Q2) Aplastic anemia is treatable by stem cell transplantation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Toxicities and side effects associated with the infusion of cryopreserved products are mainly caused by:
A) DMSO preservative.
B) volume overload.
C) glycerol preservative.
D) both a and b
Q4) Alkylating agents
A)5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
B)First agents used in bone marrow transplantation
C)Cytotoxic predominantly during M phase or G2 and M phases of cell cycle
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Chapter 33: Tumor Immunology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51623
Sample Questions
Q1) Tumors are neoplasms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Usually encapsulated
A)Benign
B)Malignant
Q3) Most tumors are of connective tissue origin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Corticosteroids
A)Cell cycle active,phase-specific
B)Cell cycle active,phase-nonspecific
C)Non-cell cycle active
Q5) A new positive prognostic indicator for primary breast cancer in women is:
A) a good gene expression signature.
B) a low S phase tumor cell content.
C) diploid DNA content of tumor cells.
D) all of the above.
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