Course Introduction
Human Physiology Exam Review
Human Physiology explores the functions and mechanisms of the human body, focusing on the biological systems that sustain life. This course covers foundational topics such as the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, muscular, digestive, endocrine, and reproductive systems, emphasizing how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Students will gain an in-depth understanding of cellular and organ function, physiological processes, and how the body responds to internal and external changes. The course integrates theoretical knowledge with practical applications, preparing students for advanced studies in health, medicine, and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology 11th Edition by Stuart Fox
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20 Chapters
2345 Verified Questions
2345 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Study of Body Function
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is
A)increased blood glucose concentrations.
B)increased blood calcium concentrations.
C)increased body temperature.
D)increased exposure to sunlight.
Answer: A
Q2) Adult stem cells may be found in
A)hair follicles.
B)the brain.
C)red bone marrow.
D)skeletal muscle.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) Endocrine glands secrete ____________ in response to specific stimuli.
A)enzymes
B)hormones
C)water
D)mucus
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemical Composition of the Body
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the water found in the body is in the A)blood.
B)intracellular fluid compartment.
C)extracellular fluid compartment.
D)blood and extracellular fluid compartment.
Answer: B
Q2) Rapid, uncontrolled hydrolysis of body fats can result in ketoacidosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The addition of water with the proper enzymes to a molecule is called A)dehydration synthesis.
B)condensation.
C)hydrolysis.
D)combustion.
Answer: C
Q4) Covalent bonds are formed between monosaccharides through dehydration synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Genetic Control
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Growth due to increased cell size is called
A)hypertrophy.
B)hyperplasia.
C)atrophy.
D)dystrophy.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of an inclusion?
A)glycogen
B)actin
C)melanin
D)triglycerides
Answer: B
Q3) Protein synthesis requires
A)aminoacyl-tRNA synthase to link amino acids to specific tRNA molecules.
B)secreted proteins to be synthesized by cytosolic polyribosomes.
C)recognition of the anticodon in mRNA by the codon in tRNA.
D)the presence of transcription factors.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Enzymes and Energy
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97 Verified Questions
97 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common reducing agent used to couple chemical reactions in cells is A)riboflavin.
B)niacin.
C)NADH.
D)FAD.
Q2) The level of protein structure primarily involved in determining enzyme activity is the
A)primary structure.
B)secondary structure.
C)tertiary structure.
D)quaternary structure.
Q3) When an enzyme catalyzes a chemical reaction
A)the enzyme binds to the substrate's active site.
B)the enzyme's active site binds the product.
C)amino acids in the substrate allow for interaction with the product.
D)amino acids in the enzyme's active site interact with substrate molecules.
Q4) A reducing agent donates electrons to a molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Respiration and Metabolism
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can undergo metabolic conversion to acetyl CoA and enter the Krebs cycle?
A)glucose
B)fatty acids
C)protein
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Skeletal muscle contains glucose 6-phosphatase to produce free glucose from glucose 6-phosphate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glycolysis would be inhibited by
A)a lack of pyruvate.
B)an excess of ATP.
C)an excess of ADP.
D)a lack of oxygen.
Q4) Blood glucose concentrations can be maintained by hydrolysis of glycogen in the A)liver.
B)skeletal muscle.
C)smooth muscle.
D)kidneys.
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Chapter 6: Interactions Between Cells and The Extracellular Environment
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly related to its ___________ concentration.
A)water
B)solute
C)solvent
D)matrix
Q2) ____________ transport does not require membrane proteins.
A)Facilitated diffusion
B)Bulk
C)Simple diffusion
D)Active
Q3) A one molal NaCl solution has the same osmolality as a one molal glucose solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Secondary active transport
A)utilizes energy directly.
B)often utilizes symport proteins.
C)always uses the influx of sodium ions.
D)is only important in the kidney.
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Chapter 7: The Nervous System
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lack of extracellular Ca<sup>2+</sup> would cause increased release of neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endocannabinoids are retrograde NTs, meaning they are
A)released from presynaptic neurons and diffuse to the postsynaptic neuron.
B)released from postsynaptic neurons and diffuse to the presynaptic neuron.
C)released from presynaptic neurons and diffuse back to the presynaptic cell body.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Parkinson's disease is associated with the loss of dopaminergic neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) White matter is
A)myelinated axons in the CNS.
B)myelinated axons in the PNS.
C)nonmyelinated cell bodies and dendrites in the CNS.
D)nonmyelinated axons in the CNS.
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Chapter 8: The Central Nervous System
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory impulses associated with crude touch and pressure are transmitted by the posterior spinocerebellar tracts to the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cell bodies of motor neurons are found within the dorsal root ganglia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The medulla oblongata
A)contains numerous vital centers.
B)contains the facial nuclei.
C)acts only as a relay center.
D)is the most advanced region of the brain.
Q4) Damage to the white matter of the brain would prevent transmission of information between nuclei.
A)True B)False
Q5) The pons and cerebellum comprise the metencephalon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Autonomic Nervous System
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96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autonomic motor pathways utilize two neurons while somatic motor pathways utilize one neuron
A)True
B)False
Q2) Damage to the autonomic motor nerves would probably result in
A)no change in muscle tone.
B)muscle atrophy.
C)flaccid paralysis.
D)increased skeletal muscle contraction.
Q3) The sympathetic chain ganglia is found laterally on both sides of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers are relatively long.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Many autonomic visceral effector organs can function without nervous innervation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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143 Verified Questions
143 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What area of the retina has no photoreceptors?
A)fovea centralis
B)macula
C)optic disc
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of cone?
A)red
B)blue
C)yellow
D)green
Q3) The fovea centralis contains only rods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Long term blockage of the canal of Schlemm can induce
A)glaucoma.
B)cataracts.
C)macular degeneration.
D)detached retina.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Endocrine Glands
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121 Verified Questions
121 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most senior precursor molecule?
A)a prehormone
B)a prohormone
C)a hormone
D)a hormone receptor
Q2) Cycles of physiological activity that follow a 24-hour pattern are called
A)circadian rhythms.
B)biomemetic rhythms.
C)psychological rhythms.
D)cerebral rhythms.
Q3) Adrenocorticotropin would be synthesized in
A)the pars distalis.
B)the pars tuberalis.
C)the pars intermedia.
D)the neurohypophysis.
Q4) Aspirin reduces inflammation by
A)inhibiting the COX1 isoenzyme.
B)inhibiting the COX2 isoenzyme.
C)inhibiting the COX3 isoenzyme.
D)increasing production on PGI<sub>2</sub> and PGE<sub>2</sub>.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Muscle
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repaying the oxygen debt requires replacing oxygen that was
A)bound to blood hemoglobin.
B)bound to muscle myoglobin.
C)used for tissue warm up.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Myosin will not bind to actin unless ADP is bound to the myosin head.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to the __________ nerve root would prevent the muscle spindle from transmitting information to the central nervous system.
A)dorsal
B)ventral
Q4) Which of the following statements about muscles is FALSE?
A)During isometric contractions muscles do not generate tension.
B)The strength of contraction is directly proportional to the stimulus intensity.
C)Tendons act as part of the series-elastic component of a muscle.
D)During muscle contraction the Z disks move closer together.
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14
Chapter 13: Blood, Heart, and Circulation
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116 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of blood ejected by the ventricles per beat is termed the A)cardiac output.
B)end diastolic volume.
C)blood pressure.
D)stroke volume.
Q2) The action potential of cardiac pacemaker cells is caused by
A)inward diffusion of Na<sup>+</sup>.
B)inward diffusion of Ca<sup>2+</sup>.
C)inward diffusion of K<sup>+</sup>.
D)outward diffusion of K<sup>+</sup>.
Q3) The circulatory system provides regulation through A)clotting.
B)hormones.
C)immunity.
D)blood gases.
Q4) Failure of the SA node to depolarize would result in an ECG
A)lacking a T wave.
B)lacking a QRS complex.
C)lacking a P wave.
D)that is isoelectric.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Cardiac Output, Blood Flow, and Bloodpressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertension can be treated with sympathetic beta<sub>1</sub>-receptor antagonists.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dizziness during hyperventilation is due to a decrease in cerebral blood flow.The decreased blood flow is caused by A)vasodilation.
B)decreased stroke volume.
C)vasoconstriction.
D)decreased respiration.
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation promotes an overall increase in blood flow resistance. A)True
B)False
Q4) During maximal exercise, the skeletal muscles can receive as much as ____ of the total blood flow.
A)35%
B)45%
C)65%
D)85%
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Chapter 15: The Immune System
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delayed hypersensitivity is most often treated with antihistiamines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Inhibition of the actions of cytotoxic T lymphocytes causes
A)decreased antibody secretion.
B)decreased stimulation of B lymphocytes.
C)increased secretion of perforin.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) What theory states that tolerance to self-antigens is achieved through the destruction of lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens?
A)clonal-selection theory
B)clonal-deletion theory
C)clonal-anergy theory
D)monoclonal-antibody theory
Q4) What substance released by NK cells and cytotoxic T cells destroys the DNA of an infected cell?
A)perforin
B)interleukin-1
C)interferon
D)granzyme
17
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Chapter 16: Respiratory Physiology
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127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung compliance increases as the amount of surfactant in the lung increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Increasing the partial pressure of a gas increases the amount of that gas which will dissolve in a fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What disease is characterized by the abnormal hemoglobin S?
A)sickle-cell anemia
B)thalassemia
C)cystic fibrosis
D)emphysema
Q4) Decompression sickness could occur if an airplane's cabin depressurized at a high altitude.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles expands the thoracic cavity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Physiology of the Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) The osmotic diuretic mannitol inhibits salt and water absorption in the proximal convoluted tubule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The effectiveness of some antibiotics, such as penicillin, is enhanced by preventing their excretion by use of
A)toxiporins.
B)organic anion transporters.
C)probenecid.
D)xenobiotics.
Q3) The maximal response to antidiuretic hormone occurs in the cortical nephrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _______________ nephrons play an important role in producing concentrated urine.
A)juxtamedullary
B)cortical
C)pelvic
D)calical
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Chapter 18: The Digestive System
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135 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jaundice caused by the bile duct blocked by gallstones is created by high blood levels of
A)free bilirubin.
B)urobilinogen.
C)conjugated bilirubin.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Diarrhea often results when the osmolarity of the fecal matter in the colon is increased.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following may be beneficial in treating gastric ulcers?
A)epinephrine
B)histamine blockers
C)gastric inhibitory peptide
D)carboxypeptidase
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of intestinal microbiota?
A)production of B vitamins
B)ferment indigestible contents of the chyme
C)production of vitamin K
D)hydrolyze proteins
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Chapter 19: Regulation of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The oral glucose test is a measure of the ability of the alpha cells to secrete insulin and of the ability of insulin to increase blood glucose levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Superoxide radicals have which of the following beneficial effects?
A)killing bacteria
B)promote proliferation of fibroblasts
C)promote proliferation of lymphocytes
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Insulin resistance may be stimulated by elevated concentrations of all of the following EXCEPT
A)tumor necrosis factor alpha.
B)resistin.
C)adiponectin.
D)retinol binding protein 4.
Q4) During the absorptive state, catabolic reactions are favored over anabolic reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic disorders can be detected earliest by A)amniocentesis.
B)chorionic villus biopsy.
C)newborn screening.
D)ultrasound.
Q2) Women who are thin, athletic, and under prolonged stress which leads to inadequate GnRH release may experience cessation of menstruation or A)dysmenorrhea.
B)menorrhea.
C)metrorrhea.
D)functional amenorrhea.
Q3) The most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism is congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What hormone triggers ovulation?
A)LH
B)FSHC.
C)progesterone
D)hCG
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